Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Microbio > Controlling Microbial Growth (#1) > Flashcards

Controlling Microbial Growth (#1) Flashcards

1
Q

types of microbial control methods (4):

A

1) physical agents
2) chemical agents
3) mechanical removal methods
4) biological agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

the destruction or removal of vegetative pathogens but not bacterial endospores; usually used only on inanimate objects

A

disinfection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

the complete removal or destruction of all viable microorganisms; used on inanimate objects

A

sterilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

chemicals applied to body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens

A

antisepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

chemicals used internally to kill or inhibit growth of microorganisms within host tissues

A

chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

destruction or removal of ALL viable microorganisms (including endospores + viruses); have to be harsh enough to kill endospores; doesn’t have to be long-lasting but KILLS ALL

A

sterilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

sterilization uses _______

A

sterilants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

removal of organic matter (things microbes like to eat); usually use some type of agent; ex: wipes

A

decontamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

killing, inhibition, or removal of pathogenic microorganisms; microbes in endospores will probably still be alive

A

disinfection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

disinfection uses _______

A

disinfectants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

disinfection is used ON ______ objects

A

inanimate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

the goal of _______ is to reduce microbial load, but get rid of pathogens

A

disinfection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

reduction of microbial population to levels deemed “safe” – based on public health standards**

A

sanitization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

T/F: sanitation and sanitization are the same thing

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

removal of trash

A

sanitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

sanitization uses ________ which are held up to public health standards

A

sanitizers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

prevention of infection of living tissue

A

antisepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

chemical agents that kill or inhibit growth of microorganisms when applied to tissue

A

antiseptics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

antiseptics are also called “______”

A

germicides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

sometimes ______ will be labeled as antisepsis as its purpose

A

sanitizers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what does “antisepsis” mean?

A

getting rid of … rotting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

use of chemicals to kill or inhibit growth of microorganism within host tissue

A

chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

example of chemotherapy =

A

antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T/F: antibiotics are made in nature by bacteria + fungi

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

physical methods to control microbes (4):

A
  1. heat (moist or dry)
  2. low temperature
  3. radiation
  4. filtration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

type of heat that has BETTER penetration power than the other; has water in it; can’t use it all the time with certain bacteria

A

moist (compared to dry)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

type of physical method: destroys bacteria, fungi, and viruses

A

moist heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

3 types of moist heat:

A
  • boiling
  • pasteurization
  • autoclaving
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

type of moist heat method: will not always destroy endospores, so will NOT necessarily sterilize – good at disinfection tho

A

boiling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

some endospores can withstand ____ hours of boiling

A

20 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

type of moist heat method: way to heat up food that decreases microbial load and pathogens, but does NOT sterilize

A

pasteurization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

type of moist heat method: only type that CAN sterilize; puts steam under pressure to raise temperature

A

autoclaving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

controlled heating at temperatures well below boiling; used for wine, milk, and other beverages

A

pasteurization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

pasteurization kills _______ and slows spoilage + reduces the total microbial load (not exactly for a long per.) but does NOT sterilize

A

pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

bringing foods and liquids to very HIGH temps, but only for a short period of time

A

ultra-pasteurization (not rlly pasteurization)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

in autoclaving, the _____ is doing all of the killing; effective against ALL types of microbes = sterilization

A

temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

autoclave pressure =

A

15 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

autoclave temperature (of steam) =

A

121°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

autoclave time =

A

15 - 20 min. (at least 10 min)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

_____ objects take longer to autoclave (need it to penetrate all the way through)

A

larger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

you can’t autoclave ______ (will melt), a lot of _______, or things that CANNOT be exposed to ______

A

plastic, metals; water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

autoclaving puts steam under ______ to increase the temperature

A

pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

T/F: it takes a while for pressure to build up to get to 121°C in autoclaving

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

it takes at least ____ ______ for one autoclave cycle

A

1 hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

boiling time + temp required to kill bacteria endospores:

A

2-over 800 minutes @ 100°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

autoclaving time + temp required to kill bacteria endospores:

A

0.5-12 minutes @ 121°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

type of physical method: less effective than moist heat sterilization

A

dry heat sterilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

2 ways to dry heat sterilize:

A
  • dry heat sterilizer (oven)
  • flaming (incineration)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

T/F: dry heat requires higher temperatures and longer exposure times since penetrative power is weaker

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

for dry heat sterilization using an oven, items must be subjected to what temperature and for how long to sterilize?

A

160-170°C for 2-3 hours
for

51
Q

flaming is also called

A

incineration

52
Q

method of dry heat sterilization: method of STERILIZATION but SHORT-lived

A

flaming (incineration)

53
Q

2 types of LOW TEMP method (physical method):

A
  • freezing
  • refrigeration
54
Q

type of LOW temp method: stops microbial reproduction due to lack of liquid water; SOME microorganisms killed by ice crystal disruption of cell membranes

A

freezing

55
Q

freezing temp =

A

-20°C (or 0°F)

56
Q

T/F: the number of microbes when put into a freezer is roughly the same number when you take it out from freezing

A

true!

57
Q

type of LOW temp method: SLOWS microbial growth and reproduction; not stopping – why things still spoil

A

refrigeration

58
Q

what kind of bacteria still grow when refrigerated?

A

pyschrophiles

59
Q

refrigeration temp =

A

4°C (or 41°F)

60
Q

freezing _____ microbial reprod. and refrigeration ______ microbial reprod.

A

stops; slows

61
Q

2 types of radiation

A
  • UV (ultraviolet) radiation
  • ionizing radiation
62
Q

type of radiation: causes thymine dimers in DNA; POOR penetrating power; non-ionizing radiation; limited to the disinfection of SURFACES, air, and water; does not penetrate glass, plastic, dirt films, etc.

A

UV radiaiton

63
Q

most bactericidal (killing bacteria) wavelength in UV radiation =

A

260 nm

64
Q

most bactericidal wavelength in general =

A

greater than or equal to 400 nm; can’t see

  • aka UV radiation does not kill most bacteria
65
Q

UV radiation causes ______ _____ in DNA

A

thymine dimers

66
Q

UV radiation is limited to what kind of things (3)?

A
  • surfaces
  • air
  • water
67
Q

UV radiation can ______ surfaces but would have to expose every area of surface to be considered this

A

sterilize

68
Q

what type of UV light is the 260 nm UV radiation?

A

UV-C

69
Q

what does the formation of thymine dimers in DNA from UV radiation cause?

A

replication errors + even DNA to break (can kill an organism)

70
Q

type of radiation: beta, gamma, and x-rays; penetrates DEEP into objects; pushes electrons out of orbit

A

ionizing radiation

71
Q

ionizing radiation can be used for _______ sterilization

A

cold

72
Q

what do you use cold sterilization (ionizing radiation) for (3)?

A
  • antibiotics
  • medical supplies
  • food
73
Q

type of cold sterilization product: manufacturers of this use this method to sterilize it; would denature in heat

A

antibiotics

74
Q

why is cold sterilization good for food?

A

sterilizes it but doesnt cook it (ex: ground beef)

75
Q

what 3 types of waves are involved in ionizing radiation?

A
  • beta
  • gamma
  • x-rays
76
Q

type of physical method: reduces microbial populations; sterilization of heat – sensitive solutions; also used for air

A

filtration

77
Q

since filtration uses the sterilization of heat with SENSITIVE solutions, you must use a membrane filter with a defined _____ ______

A

pore size

78
Q

filtration is good at ______ and potentially _____ depending on size of pore in filter

A

disinfecting; sterilizing

79
Q

type of pore filters (3):

A
  • depth pore filters
  • membrane filter
  • nucleopore filters
80
Q

type of pore filter: no defined size of pore

A

depth pore filter

81
Q

type of pore filter: pore size is undefined but smaller than depth pore filters

A

membrane filter

82
Q

type of pore filter: PRE-defined pore filters; best at sterilizing

A

nucleopore filters

83
Q

CHEMICAL control of microbial growth involves the use of what?

A

antimicrobial agents

84
Q

a natural or synthetic chemical that kills or inhibits the growth of microbes

A

antimicrobial agent

85
Q

antimicrobial agents can be -______ or -______

A
  • cidal
  • static
86
Q

suffix indicating a chemical agent KILL; kills pathogens and many non-pathogens, but not necessarily endospores

A

-cidal

87
Q

suffix indicating a chemical agent that INHIBITS growth

A
  • static
88
Q

-cidal =

A

to kill

89
Q

-static =

A

stop

90
Q

types of antimicrobial agents (2):

A

antibiotics + semi-synthetics

91
Q

bactericidal, fungicidal, and viricidal means that the agent does what?

A

kills them

92
Q

bacteriostatic, fungistatic, and viristatic means that the agent does what?

A

inhibits growth

93
Q

bacterial growth graphs (log cell number growth vs. time) invovle what 2 types of counts?

A
  • total cell count
  • viable cell count
94
Q

bacterial growth graph: total cell count + viable cell count encounter a stationary period when the agent is present

A

bacteriostatic

95
Q

bacterial growth graph: viable cell count decreases significantly when agent is applied, but total cell count stays the same (levels off)

A

bactericidal

96
Q

bacterial growth graph: BOTH the total cell count + viable cell count decreases when the agent is applied

A

bacteriolytic

97
Q

the effectiveness of antimicrobial drugs can be determined based off of what 2 concentrations?

A
  • MIC (minimal inhibitory concentration)
  • MLC (minimal lethal concentration)
98
Q

type of antimicrobial effect. concentration: lowest concentration that INHIBITS growth of pathogens; doesnt mean it kills it

A

MIC (minimal inhibitory concentration)

99
Q

type of antimicrobial effect. concentration: lowest concentration of drugs that KILLS pathogens

A

MLC (minimal lethal concentration)

100
Q

MLCs are how much stronger than MICs to have a killing effect?

A

2-4x stronger [ ]

101
Q

which of these describes sterilization?
a) wiping food crumbs off your kitchen table
b) running dirty dishes through the dishwasher
c) spraying a bleach solution on your bathroom counter
d) boiling water before you drink it
e) none of the above

A

e) none of the above

102
Q

to determine the level of antimicrobial activity, you can perform what type of test?

A

dilution susceptibility test

103
Q

a dilution susceptibility test can only detect which type of concentration?

A

MIC

104
Q

dilution susceptibility test: smallest amount of agent needed to inhibit the growth of a test organism is the ______

A

MIC

105
Q

in the dilution susceptibility test, which tube determines the MIC

A

tube with no turbitity (no growth)

106
Q

dilution susceptibility test: broth from which microbe can’t be recovered is the _____

A

MLC

107
Q

in the dilution susceptibility test, you would have to _____ to determine the MLC

A

plate

108
Q

in the dilution susceptibility test, the tubes increase in dilution by a factor of ___ - _____

A

2-4

109
Q

disk diffusion test steps (4):

A
  1. inoculate plate with a liquid culture of a test organism
  2. disks containing antimicrobial agents are placed on surface
  3. incubate for 24-48 hrs
  4. test organism shows susceptibility to some agents, indicated by inhibition of bacterial growth around disks (zones of inhibition)
110
Q

in the Kirby-Bauer Method, you measure the ____ zone of inhibition

A

WHOLE

111
Q

T/F: sometimes it is hard to isolate bacterium from patients to perform a disk diffusion test to determine the effectiveness of an antimicrobial drug

A

true

112
Q

big zones of inhibition =

A

better (bacteria is more SENSITIVE to agent)

113
Q

antimicrobial agents in disk diffusion tests get ______ concentrated as it diffuses out

A

less

114
Q

factors influencing the effectiveness of an antimicrobial agent (6):

A
  • population size
  • population composition
  • concentration / intensity of the agent
  • duration of exposure
  • temperature
  • local environment
115
Q

factor influencing the effectiveness of an antimicrobial agent: looks at species, endospores, persister cells, biofilms, age of cells

A

population composition

116
Q

T/F: you don’t have to perform studies to make sure drug gets to desired part of body + reaches the MIC where it needs to be (aka concentrated enough)

A

false (you do…)

117
Q

______ cells are harder to kill

A

older (aka persister cells)

118
Q

you can use less antimicrobial agents when it is more ______

A

concentrated

119
Q

factor influencing the effectiveness of an antimicrobial agent: looks at presence of organic matter, pH, visocity

A

local environment

120
Q

used to determine the effectiveness of certain antimicrobials

A

Kirby-Bauer Method

121
Q

the Kirby-Bauer Method table relates ZONE DIAMETER to degree of microbial ______

A

resistance

122
Q

if the zone of inhibition is small, that means the bacteria is ______ to the agent

A

resistant

123
Q

if the zone of inhibition is big, that means the bacteria is _______ to the agent

A

sensitive

Microbio (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions