Unit 4 - Female Repro 2 Flashcards
How do animals with disorders of sexual differentiation generally present?
for infertility or evaluation of ambiguous genitalia
What is hydrosalpinx?
when the oviduct is distended by watery fluid
What is hydrosalpinx caused by?
a combination of secretory activity of the oviduct and blockage of the oviduct
What is salpingitis?
inflammation of the oviduct most commonly secondary to endometritis or peritonitis
What is pyosalpinx?
pus-filled oviduct
What are the consequences of hydrosalpinx, salpingitis, and pyosalpinx?
decreased fertility if unilateral, infertility if bilateral, or permanent infertility if severe inflammation
What is uterine torsion associated with?
pregnancy, pyometra, and hydrometra
What species is uterine torsion most common in?
cattle - more common in pluriparous couse where the broad ligament is looser and longer
What can greater than 180 uterine torsion lead to?
dystocia or circulatory obstruction leading to fetal death
What is another term for uterine displacement?
prolapse
What are the causes of uterine displacement?
prolonged dystocia with mechanical traction, retained placenta, or postparturient hypocalcemia
What are the causes of hydrometra/mucometras?
hormone-mediated increased uterine secretion (ovarian cysts, ovarian tumors, pseudopregnancy) or fluid cannot drain from the uterus (closed cervix; obstruction in the uterus, cervix, or vagina)
In hydrometras, what is the uterus distended with?
watery fluid
In mucometras, what is the uterus distended with?
mucus
What is uterine inflammation most commonly associated with?
estrus and pregnancy
What factors increase the risk of uterine infection?
abortion, retained fetus(s), retained placenta, twin births, dystocia, trauma to the canal during birth, and cystic endometrial hyperplasia
What is endometritis?
inflammation of the uterus limited to the endometrium
What is metritis?
inflammation of the entire uterine wall
What is perimetritis?
inflammation of the uterine serosa
What is pyometra?
suppurative inflammation of the uterus with an accumulation of pus distending the uterine lumen
What are the common routes of uterine infection?
via the cervix or maternal blood stream
When does placental subinvolution most commonly occur?
in young bitches after whelping their first litter
How do animals with placental subinvolutioin present?
with excessive or prolonged sanguinous vulvular discharge 4 weeks postpartum
What does placental subinvolution look like grossly?
the uterus may contain several large nodules representing slow involution of normal maternal placental sites
What clinical signs are associated with subinvolution?
no fever, no depression, wbc are normal, may be anemic, primarily cellular debris and rbc’s in the discharge
What clinical signs are associated with metritis?
fever, depression, wbc are elevated, rbc are normal, purulent discharge
What typical lab results are associated with canine pyometra?
inflammatory leukogram, hyperproteinemia, PU/PD, proteinuria
What species does pyometra most commonly occur in?
the cow, bitch, cat, and mare
What makes a mare a candidate for endometrial biopsy as part of a breeding soundness exam?
mares that have difficulty getting pregnant or carrying a foal to term
What is uterine hyperplasia mediated by>
hormone
What specifically causes uterine hyperplasia?
progesterone causes physiologic endometrial hyperplasia with subsequent atrophy during anestrus
What is uterine hyperplasia initiated by in ruminants?
excessive or prolonged hormonal stimulation (ovarian tumors, estrogenic plants, ovarian cysts)
What age is canine cystic endometrial hyperplasia common in?
older (>6 years)
What causes canine cystic endometrial hyperplasia?
repeated estrogen priming causing prolonged progesterone stimulation
What is a common sequela to cystic endometrial hyperplasia?
pyometra - progesterone makes the uterus more susceptible to infection
What are the types of uterine neoplasias?
epithelial, smooth muscle, or multicentric
What species commonly get epithelial uterine neoplasia?
rabbits
What does epithelial uterine neoplasia arise from?
the endometrium and endometrial glands
What type of epithelial uterine neoplasia do rabbits typically get?
adenocarcinoma
What type of smooth muscle neoplasias are found in the uterus?
leiomyoma and leiomyosarcomas
What is vulvar edema a normal response to?
estrogen
What can cause vulvar edema in swine?
feed containing the estrogenic mycotoxin zearalenone
What is vaginal hyperplasia a response to?
it is an exaggerated response of the vaginal mucosa to estrogen
Does vaginal hyperplasia resolve itself?
yes spontaneously during diestrus
What is vaginitis?
inflammation of the vagina
What gross changes are associated with vaginal inflammation?
mucosal surface is reddened and there may be vulvular discharge
What are the viral potential causes of vaginitis in cows?
bovine herpesvirus-1 (infectious pustular vulvovaginitis)
What are the viral potential causes of vaginitis in horses?
equine herpesvirus 3 (coital exanthema)
What are the bacterial causes of vaginitis?
Campylobacter fetus subsp venerealis and Taylorella equigenitalis
What is a protozoal cause of vaginitis?
Tritrichomonas fetus
What are some examples of vaginal/vulvar neoplasias that arise from the surface epithelium?
fibropapillomas and squamous cell carcinomas
What is the biological behavior of vaginal/vulvar squamous cell carcinomas?
they are locally invasive and may metastasize in the course of disease
What smooth muscle tumors are found in the vagina/vulva and in what species?
leiomyoma in older bitches
What is TVT?
canine transmissible venereal tumor
What clinical signs are associated with TVT?
bulging of the perineal region, dysuria, pollakiuria, and bulging of the tumor through the vulva
Where are TVTs located?
vagina, vulva, and nasal mucosa
How are TVTs transmitted?
they are transmitted to the external genitalia during mating
What is the behavior of TVTs in healthy, immuno-competent, adult dogs?
the tumor regresses simultaneously
How do you diagnose TVTs?
by exfoliative cytology or histopath
What species is twinning desirable in?
sheep and goats
What species is twinning undesirable in?
horses and cattle
How does the fetus react to injury?
early embryonic death and resorption, fetal mummification, fetal maceration, fetal emphysema, fetal edema, fetal anomalies, stillbirth, and abortion
When is the greatest risk of fetal loss?
during the first trimester
How does early embryonic death appear clinically?
as infertility - with either regular or delayed return to estrus
What are fetal causes for early embryonic death?
genetic or infectious
In what species is fetal mummification the most common in?
swine
What are the requirements for fetal mummification?
fetal death after bones have formed, fetal death without luteolysis, and a bacteria-free environment
What is the process of fetal mummification?
- fetal death 2. autolysis 3. fluid resorption in a bacteria-free environment 4. mummy
What are the fetal causes of fetal mummification?
infectious and inadequate space
What are the requirements for fetal maceration?
fetal death after bones have formed, retention of fetus, and a non-sterile environment
What is the process of fetal maceration?
- fetal death 2. non-sterile environment 3. bacterial digestion of fetal tissues 4. macerated fetus
What are the common sequela to fetal maceration?
metritis, endometritis, pyometra
What are the requirements for fetal emphysema?
in utero death plus gas producing bacteria
What are the causes of fetal emphysema?
maternal bacteremia and in utero death
What is abortion?
expulsion of a fetus prior to the time of expected viability
What is a still birth?
delivery of a dead fetus at a stage of gestation which it could have been viable - the lungs are not inflated
How do you know a fetal death is prepartum?
the lungs are not inflated and sink in formalin and there is mucoid fluid in the stomach
How do you know a fetal death was during parturition?
there is edema of the head, one or more forelimbs, the tail, tongue, or perineum, partial lung aeration, abdominal hemorrhage from liver rupture
How do you know a fetal death was post partum?
aerated lung, air or milk in stomach, evidence of muscle movement, and hoof ware
What are the types of placentas?
diffuse, cotyledonary, zonary, and discoid
What is the structure of a diffuse placenta?
nearly the entire surface of the allantochorion is involved in the formation of the placenta
What species have a diffuse placenta?
horses and pigs
What is the structure of a cotyledonary placenta?
multople discrete areas of attachment called cotyledons
What structures are on the fetal portion of a cotyledonary placenta?
cotyledons
What structures are on the maternal contact sites of a cotyledonary placenta?
caruncles
What is the cotyledon-caruncle complex called?
a placentome
What species have cotyledonary placentas?
ruminants
What is the structure of a zonary placenta?
the exchange placenta forms a complete or incomplete band of tissue surrounding the fetus
What species have zonary placentas?
dogs and cats
What is the structure of a discoid placenta?
the exchange placenta is discoid in shapw
What species have discoid placentas?
primates and rodens
What is the amnion?
the fluid filled sac around the fetus
What is chorioallantois?
the site of attachment to the maternal placenta and exchange with uterus
