Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Thrall > Thrall chapter 15 MRI and CT features of canine and feline spinal disease > Flashcards

Thrall chapter 15 MRI and CT features of canine and feline spinal disease Flashcards

1
Q

1) What is the anatomical structure labelled ‘1’?
a) Interarcuate ligament
b) Dorsal longitudinal ligament
c) Intercapital ligament
d) Ligamentum flavum

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

2) Which structure reduces the likelihood of a dorsal disc protrusion between T2-T11
a) Interarcuate ligament
b) Dorsal longitudinal ligament
c) Intercapital ligament
d) Ligamentum flavum

A

c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

3) What type of joints are the articular process joints of the vertebrae?
a) Synarthrodial
b) Amphiarthroidal
c) Diarthrodial
d) Cartilaginous

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define synarthroidal (type of joint)

A

In fibrous joints (synarthrodial joint) the bones are joined by fibrous tissue, namely dense fibrous connective tissue, and no joint cavity is present. The amount of movement allowed depends on the length of the connective tissue fibers uniting the bones.
- a fibrous joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define Amphiarthroidal

A

An amphiarthrosis is a joint that has limited mobility. An example of this type of joint is the cartilaginous joint that unites the bodies of adjacent vertebrae. Filling the gap between the vertebrae is a thick pad of fibrocartilage called an intervertebral disc
A cartilaginous joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define Diarthrodial

A

A diarthrosis joint is a freely moving joint characterized by its mobility and joint cavity within a synovial membrane encased in the joint capsule.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

5) Why is the normal nucleus pulposus hyperintense on T2w images?
a) Because of the short T2 relaxation time of water in the nucleus
b) Because of the long T2 relaxation time of water in the nucleus
c) Because of the short TE and TR times
d) Rotation of water occurs near the Larmor frequency

A

b, fat is closer to the Larmor frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

6) What percentage of dachshunds have vertebral transitional anomalies?
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 20%
d) 30%

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

7) In chondrodystrophic dogs, acute disc herniation can lead to what CT appearance? (could be more than one)
a) Hypoattenuating material causing cord compression.
b) Diffuse less hyperattenuating (apx 60HU) less severe cord compression
c) Hyperattenuating (700HU) herniated disc material
d) A large focal amount of markedly hyperattenuating disc material (200HU) compressing the spinal cord

A

b,d (c is chronic due to further mineralization)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

8) Epidural haemorrhage associated with disc extrusion is more common in which region?
a) Caudal Cervical
b) Cranial Thoracic
c) Thoracolumbar junction
d) Caudal Lumbar

A

d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

9) Meningeal contrast adjacent to extruded extradural disc material occurs in what percentage of patients?
a) 40%
b) 25%
c) 60%
d) 15%

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

10) Which of the following is not a characteristic of lumbosacral stenosis
a) Intervertebral disc degeneration and protrusion
b) Hypertrophy of the articular process joint capsule and interarcuate ligament
c) Bone proliferation of the dorsal vertebral bodies
d) Vertebral subluxation

A

c- bone proliferation of the vertebral bodies is not correct, bone proliferation of the articular processes and vertebral end plates is correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

11) What type of disc disease is shown in the images below?
a) Acute compressive hydrated nucleus pulposus extrusion
b) Acute non-compressive nucleus pulposus extrusion
c) Hansen type II IVDD
d) Hansen type I IVDD

A

a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

12) Which of these is not a prognostic factor used to assess the likelihood of a successful outcome in dogs with ANNPE?
a) Severity of neurological signs at presentation
b) Intramedullary contrast enhancement over the affected site
c) Percentage cross-sectional area of the intramedullary lesion on T2W images
d) Presence of intramedullary haemorrhage

A

b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

13) From the paper by Bonelli et al, 2021 which of the following is incorrect regarding their findings in dogs with osseous associated cervical spondylomyelopathy?
a) Intervertebral disc degeneration was seen in 80% of dogs
b) Dogs with multiple sites of spinal cord compression were more likely to have severe spinal cord compression
c) There was a weak correlation between neurologic grade and severity of spinal cord compression and the number of affected sites
d) It more commonly affected female giant and large breed dogs.

A

d, males more affected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

14) In cats, what is the only reported cause of ischaemic myelopathy?
a) Thromboembolism
b) Fibrocartilaginous embolism
c) Neoplastic embolism
d) Septic embolism

A

B

17
Q

1) Which of the following is false regarding subarachnoid diverticulae?
a) Most commonly dorsal or dorsolaterally located
b) Rottweilers are likely predisposed to thoracolumbar diverticula
c) Pugs have a high incidence of subarachnoid diverticula
d) The most common locations are cranial cervical or caudal thoracic

A

1) B- cervical in rottweilers

18
Q

2) Which two categories of spinal dermoid sinuses are associated with neurological signs?
a) Type II: more superficial tract with deep fibrous strand connecting to the supraspinous or nuchal ligament
b) Type III: superficial tract with no connection to the supraspinous or nuchal ligament
c) Type IV: deep tract that extends to the supraspinous or nuchal ligament and continues deeper as a fibrous strand that connects to the dura mater
d) Type VI: deep tract that extends to the supraspinous or nuchal ligament and continues deeper as a fibrous strand that connects to the dura mater

A

C,D

19
Q

3) Intramedullary spinal tumours are usually what type (can be more than one)?
a) Nerve sheath tumours
b) Astrocytomas
c) Meningiomas
d) Ependymomas

A

3) B,D or lymphoma or mets

20
Q

4) In cats which is the most common intradural extramedullary neoplasia?
a) Lymphosarcoma
b) Meningioma
c) Peripheral nerve sheath tumour
d) Mast cell tumour

A

A

21
Q

5) Which is the most likely location of this mass?
a) Extradural
b) Intradural- extramedullary
c) Intramedullary

A

B

22
Q

6) According to cordle et al., 2023 which of the following is true?
a) MRI features can predict the onset of myelomalacia after acute intervertebral disc extrusion
b) MRI features can support a diagnosis of progressive myelomalacia in dogs with clinical evidence of the disease
c) Length of T2W hyperintense spinal cord change and HASTE signal loss were not significantly associated with clinically evident progressive myelomalacia

A

6) B. c is the opposite and it is statistically significant.

23
Q

7) In what percentage of patients with FCE are no changes seen on MRI?
a) 15%
b) 80%
c) 50%
d) 20%

A

D

24
Q

8) A lesion length to vertebral length ratio greater than XX has a sensitivity of 100% in predicting a poor clinical outcome for cases of ischaemic myelopathy?
a) 2
b) 2.5
c) 1.5
d) 1.8

A

A

Thrall (30 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions