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Y4 Farm Animal > state vet med > Flashcards

state vet med Flashcards

VM01-10

1
Q

name the SRUC service

timely detection, investigation and communication of undefined or unexpected threats;
protects access to trade, reduces risk of disease outbreak and environmental impact of animal production, safeguards public health and animal welfare

A

animal health surveillance

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2
Q

name the two types of animal health surveillance

A
  1. scanning/passive
  2. active/targeted
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3
Q

name the type of animal health surveillance

collation and reporting of data generated from routine clinical diagnostic work

A

scanning/passive

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4
Q

name the type of animal health surveillanc

pro-active data collection and collation to more accurately describe patterns of disease

A

active/targeted

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5
Q

name 2 limitations of active surveillance

A
  1. must be designed with specific disease threats in mind
  2. cannot detect new/emerging conditions
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6
Q

name 2 instances where eradication is beneficial

A
  1. disease caused by single, identifiable, infectious agent
  2. agent is teh sole cause of severe animal welfare, production or human health risk
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7
Q

name the programme for preventing foot and mouth disease

  • ban rustics and ban trade in cattle
  • stable oxen & close all markets
  • prohibit treatment & slaughter sick (poleaxe)
  • forbid carcase skinning & sale of hides
  • forbid sale of diseased meat
  • bury whole carcases deeply in lime
  • pour milk into deep holes
A

Lancisi’s Programme

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8
Q

who must be notified by a vet surgeon or farmer if dealing with suspected foot and mouth disease?

A

APHA or police

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9
Q

what is the temporary control zone for stock standstill around the FMD suspect premises

A

< 10km

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10
Q

where are samples for suspected FMD cases sent?
inital ELISA result in 4h!

A

FMD World Reference Laboratory,
Pirbright, Surrey

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11
Q

who was the cause of the primary case of FMD for the 2001 epidemic?

A

Waugh (pigs)

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12
Q

what market were the 16 infected sheep sold to in 2001, contributing to the 2001 FMD epidemic
mixed with 175 other sheep for 24h

A

Hexham Market

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13
Q

name 5 reasons we were so far behind in the 2001 FMD epidemic

A
  1. delayed notification by primary farm
  2. 90% pigs affected
  3. windborne spread
  4. inapparently affected sheep sold at market
  5. often few signs of FMD in sheep
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14
Q

what was the average oldest lesion age at report during the 2001 FMD epidemic?

A

2 days

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15
Q

what was the average incubation period FMD O during the 2001 FMD epidemic?

A

5 days

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16
Q
A
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17
Q

name 5 flawed veterinary assumptions that were made for the automatic contiguous cull models during the 2001 FMD epidemic

A
  1. ALL animals infected simultaneously
  2. ALL complete a standard incubation period
  3. ALL excrete MAXIMALLY 4 days pre-clinically
  4. ALL animals remain infectious until dead
  5. radial spread of virus from a farm
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18
Q

name 5 vector-borne transboundary notifiable animal diseases

A
  1. Bluetongue
  2. Lumpy skin disease
  3. Rift Valley Fever
  4. African Horse Sickness
  5. Schmallenberg virus
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19
Q

name the vector-borne transboundary notifiable animal disease

Orbivirus from the Reoviridae family;
27 serotypes;
Hosts: domestic and wild ruminants;
clinical cases in sheep, rest reservoir;
closely related to Epizootic haemorrhagic disease virus

A

Bluetongue Virus (BTV)

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20
Q

what is the most important way bluetongue virus (BTV) transmitted?

A

midges genus Culicoides

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21
Q

where does the first replication of bluetongue virus (BTV) take place in the vector?

A

in midgut cells

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22
Q

where does the second replication of bluetongue virus (BTV) take place in the vector?

A

salivary glands

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23
Q

where does the first replication of bluetongue virus (BTV) take place in the vertebrate?

A

regional lymph nodes

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24
Q

where does the second replication of bluetongue virus (BTV) take place in the vertebrate ?

A

vascular endothelial cells of secondary organs

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25
Q

what 2 things must be done immediately if you have a bluetongue virus (BTV) suspicion?

A
  1. isolate the animal
  2. contact APHA

& don’t leave the farm!!

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26
Q

what is the preferred type of vaccination for bluetongue virus (BTV)?

A

inactivated vaccines

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27
Q

is there a vaccine for bluetongue virus (BTV)?

A

YES!!

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28
Q

name the vector-borne transboundary notifiable animal disease?

genus Capripoxivirus, family Poxiviridae;
related to sheep pox and goat pox viruses;
very stable virus;
cattle host, also in buffalo;
survives in environment for long periods

A

Lumpy Skin Disease Virus (LSDV)

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29
Q

name the 4 arthropod vectors of Lumpy Skin Disease Virus (LSDV)

A
  1. mosquitoes
  2. biting flies: Stomoxys
  3. Culicoides midges
  4. Hard ticks
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30
Q

what type of vaccine is available for Lumpy Skin Disease Virus (LSDV)?

A

live vaccines

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31
Q

can preventative vaccination of Lumpy Skin Disease Virus (LSDV) be used in the UK?

A

no, prohibited

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32
Q

where can Lumpy Skin Disease Virus (LSDV) vaccination be used?

A

where disease is endemic

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33
Q

name the vector-borne transboundary notifiable animal disease

Phl;ebovirus, family Phenuiviridae;
ruminants and camels;
high mortality in young animals and abortion storms in adults;
ZOONOTIC - flu-like illness

A

Rift Valley Fever (RVF) Virus

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34
Q

mosquitoes are a vector for Rift Valley Fever (RVF) Virus and cause what kind of transmission?

A

transovarian transmission

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35
Q

what post-mortem lesions can be seen with Rift Valley Fever (RVF) Virus?

A

hepatic necrosis
(and jaundice)

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36
Q

is there a vaccination for Rift Valley Fever (RVF) Virus?

A

yes

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37
Q

name the vector-borne transboundary animal disease

Orthobunavirus, family Bunyaviridae;
ruminants;
Culicoides;
NOT a notifiable disease - an EMERGING disease

A

Schmallemberg virus (SBV)

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38
Q

is there a vaccine for Schmallemberg virus (SBV)

A

yes, not commercially available in UK

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39
Q

name the vector-borne transboundary notifiable animal disease

Orbivirus, family Reoviridae;
9 serotypes;
affects equids (natural reservoir is zebra);
not zoonotic

A

African Horse Sickness (AHS) virus

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40
Q

what vector is responsible for the transmission of African Horse Sickness (AHS) virus

A

Culicoides

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41
Q

name the 4 different forms of African Horse Sickness (AHS) virus

A
  1. Peracute (pulmonary)
  2. Subacute oedematous (cardiac)
  3. acute (mixed)
  4. horse sickness fever
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42
Q

is vaccination against African Horse Sickness (AHS) virus allowed in the UK?

A

NO

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43
Q

how long after last African Horse Sickness (AHS) virus vaccination before horses can be moved?

A

60 days

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44
Q

name the form of African Horse Sickness (AHS) virus

Clinical Signs: acute fever, respiratory distress, forelegs
spread, head extended, and nostrils fully dilated;
Animal often dies within few hours;
Lesions: Interlobular oedema, hydrothorax, fluid present in the trachea and pulmonary airways, haemorrhages

A

peracute (pulmonary)

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45
Q

name the form of African Horse Sickness (AHS) virus

Clinical Signs: fever, oedematous swellings;
Death from cardiac failure;
Lesions: Hydropericardium, haemorrhages in the epicardium, endocardium and gastrointestinal tract

A

subacute oedematous (cardiac)

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46
Q

name the form of African Horse Sickness (AHS) virus

Clinical Signs: Mix of pulmonary and cardiac forms;
In most cases, the cardiac form is subclinical and it is
followed by severe respiratory distress;
may be followed by oedema and death from cardiac failure;
Lesions: Interlobular oedema, hydrothorax, fluid present in the trachea and pulmonary airways, haemorrhages

A

acute (mixed)

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47
Q

name the form of African Horse Sickness (AHS) virus

In resistant species, donkeys and zebras):
Clinical Signs: Fever, morning remissions and afternoon
exacerbations;
Death is unusual.

A

Horse sickness fever

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48
Q

this is an executive agency working on behalf of Defra, Scottish Government and Welsh Government;
single agency response for animal, plant and bee health;
purpose is to identify, manage and eradicate outbreaks of exotic animal, plant and bee diseases and pests

A

Animal & Plant Health Agency (APHA)

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49
Q

name the 3 organisations that control notifiable diseases

A
  1. WOAH (World Organisation for ANimal Health)
  2. European Union
  3. UK Government (APHA)
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50
Q

what 2 things must any person having in his possession/under his charge an animal affected with a notifiable disease do?

A
  1. isolate the animal
  2. report to police force / APHA
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51
Q

these are diseases that are of:
- significant economic, trade and/or food security importance
- easily spread
- control requires cooperation from several countries

A

transboundary animal diseases (TADs)

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52
Q

name the 4 criteria for the inclusion of a disease in the WOAH list of transboundary animal diseases

A
  1. international spread of the pathogenic agent proven
  2. at least 1 country has demonstrated freedom from disease
  3. reliable means of detection & diagnosis exist
  4. natural transmission to humans has been proven OR disease has significant impact on health of domestic or wild animals
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53
Q

name the type of disease

legal obligation to notify the SUSPICION of a notifiable disease to APHA asap;
exotic or endemic;
controlled with legal powers

A

Notifiable Disease (ND)

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54
Q

name the type of disease

diseases communicated to APHA on POSITIVE ANALYSIS DETECTION asap/monthly

A

reportable disease

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55
Q

name the notifiable disease

RNA Aphtovirus, family Picornaviridae;
seven different serotypes;
no cross immunity;
stable at low temp and medium pH;
100% morbidity in naive cattle;
all cloven-hoofed animals affected;
does NOT affect humans;
mainly characterised by VESICLES

A

foot and mouth disease (FMD)

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56
Q

where does the 1st replication of FMD virus take place

A

pharyngeal and tonsillar region

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57
Q

where does the 2nd replication of FMD virus take place (3 places)

A

epithelium, mucosa, and myocardium

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58
Q

what is the incubation period of FMD?

A

2-14d

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59
Q

this species excretes large amounts of the virus causing FMD
(PRODUCE)

A

pigs

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60
Q

this species shows clinical signs of FMD
(INDICATE)

A

cattle

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61
Q

this species are generally asymptomatic when infected with FMD
(MAINTAIN)

A

sheep

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62
Q

name 5 initial clinical signs of FMD in cattle

A
  1. fever
  2. depression
  3. loss of appetite
  4. marked drop in milk yield
  5. salivation
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63
Q

name 5 complications that ocur as a result of FMD in cattle

A
  1. erosions (rupture of vesicles)
  2. infection of lesions
  3. myocarditis
  4. starvation
  5. abortion
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64
Q

what is the ideal sample to send to the National Reference Laboratory for FMD for diagnosis?

A

epithelium or vesicular fluid

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65
Q

name the 4 parts of the stamping out policy for FMD in infected premises

A
  1. susceptible animals humanely killed
  2. carcases disposed (hierarchy for disposal)
  3. C&D (prelim by APHA, secondary by farmer before restocking)
  4. compensation for animals culled
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66
Q

what type of vaccine is available for FMD

A

inactivated

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67
Q

where can FMD vaccination be used?

A

in areas where disease is endemic

(preventative use banned in UK)

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68
Q

name the transboundary notifiable animal disease

Morbillivirus;
fragile, inactivated w/in 12h;
led to creation in 1924 of the WOAH;
last GB outbreak in 1877;
first animal disease globally eradicated;
cloven-hoofed animals: mostly cattle

A

Rinderpest - cattle plague

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69
Q

name 4 clinical signs of Rinderpest

A
  1. sores in mouth/foul breath
  2. discharge from eyes, nose & mouth
  3. fever & dehydration
  4. diarrhoea or dysentery
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70
Q

name 3 samples to send to the National Reference Lab for diagnosis of Rinderpest

A
  1. serum
  2. swabs of lacrimal fluid
  3. tissues from oral lesions
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71
Q

what type of vaccine exists against Rinderpest

A

attenuated cell culture

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72
Q

name the transboundary notifiable animal disease

goat plague;
Morbillivirus, family Paramyxoviridae;
closely related to Rinderpest virus;
sheep & goats, wild small ruminants;
cattle, buffalo and pigs are dead-end hosts and do not show clinical signs

A

Peste des Petits Ruminants (PPR)

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73
Q

has Peste des Petits Ruminants (PPR) ever been reported in GB?

A

no

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74
Q

name 5 clinical signs of Peste des Petits Ruminants (PPR)

A
  1. conjunctivitis
  2. oral erosions
  3. oculo-nasal discharges
  4. diarrhoea
  5. sudden death (goats)
75
Q

what is the morbidity and mortality of Peste des Petits Ruminants (PPR)

76
Q

name 3 samples that should be sent to the National Reference Lab for diagnosis of Peste des Petits Ruminants (PPR)

A
  1. serum
  2. swabs of lacrima and nasal secretions
  3. buccal and rectal mucosa
77
Q

name the transboundary notifiable animal disease

Mycoplasma mycoides subsp. mycoides;
primary host: cattle and african buffalo;
transmission through close repeated contact and respiratory aerosols

A

Contagious Bovine Pleuropneumonia (CBPP)

78
Q

name 2 clinical signs of peracute Contagious Bovine Pleuropneumonia (CBPP)

A
  1. fever
  2. death
79
Q

name 2 clinical signs of acute Contagious Bovine Pleuropneumonia (CBPP)

A
  1. nonspecific respiratory signs
  2. polyarthritis in calves
80
Q

name 2 clinical signs of chronic Contagious Bovine Pleuropneumonia (CBPP)

A
  1. ill thrift
  2. low-grade fever
81
Q

name 5 sample options to send to the National Reference Lab for diagnosis of Contagious Bovine Pleuropneumonia (CBPP)

A
  1. nasal swabs
  2. broncho-alveolar washings
  3. pleura fluid
  4. blood
  5. serum
82
Q

name the transboundary notifiable animal disease

Capripoxiviruses;
antigenically and physiochemically closely related;
also related to the virus of lump skin disease;
airborne transmission & direct contact with lesions;
transmitted mechanically by biting insects

A

Sheep & Goat Pox

83
Q

name 5 clinical signs of Sheep & Goat Pox

A
  1. fever
  2. swollen eyelids
  3. mucopurulent discharges
  4. skin lesions
  5. pneumonia
84
Q

name 4 samples to send to the National Reference Lab for diagnosis of sheep & goat pox

A
  1. skin lesions
  2. oral
  3. nasal
  4. ocular secretions
85
Q

name the transboundary notifiable animal disease

aka hog cholera;
Pestivirus, family Flaviviridae;
domestic and feral pigs;
acute, subacute or chronic infections;
endemic in asia, south/central america, some Caribbean islands;
spread by inhalation/ingestion/mucus membranes/skin abrasions, direct contact, aerosols, fomites, waste feeding, & transplacental

A

Classical Swine Fever (CSF)

86
Q

name the 3 forms of Classical Swine Fever (CSF)

A
  1. acute
  2. subacute
  3. chronic
87
Q

name the form of Classical Swine Fever (CSF)

highly virulent strains;
high mortality;
high fever, huddling, weakness, anorexia, conjunctivitis, constipation followed by intermittent watery diarrhoea; incoordination, vomiting, resp signs;
hyperaemic skin, haemorrhages on the abdomen, inner thighs and ears, purple cyanotic discoloration on the snout, ears and tail;
abortion

A

acute form

88
Q

name the form of Classical Swine Fever (CSF)

clinical signs less severe, lower mortality rate

A

subacute form

89
Q

name the form of Classical Swine Fever (CSF)

less virulent strains;
prolonged outbreaks;
constipation/diarrhoea, wasting, skin lesions;
immunosuppression: current infections;
abortion/still births

A

chronic form

90
Q

what samples for live animals should be sent to the lab for diagnosis of Classical Swine Fever (CSF)

A

blood or tonsil swabs

91
Q

name the transboundary notifiable animal disease

Asfivirus;
domestic pigs, wild boars, wild African suids;
more than 20 genotypes (only 1 and 2 outside of Africa);
spread by direct contact, fomites, waste feeding, and VECTORS (soft ticks);
NO transplacental transmission

A

African Swine Fever (ASF)

92
Q

which African Swine Fever (ASF) genotype is responsible for current outbreaks in Europe?
highly virulent

A

genotype 2

93
Q

name the 4 different forms of African Swine Fever (ASF)

A
  1. peracute
  2. acute
  3. subacute
  4. chronic
94
Q

name the form of African Swine Fever (ASF)

sudden death < 4 days, no clinical signs

95
Q

name the form of African Swine Fever (ASF)

mortality 100% in 4-20d;
fever, reddening of skin, anorexia, listlessness, cyanosis and incoordination w/in 24-48h before death, vomiting, diarrhoea, eye discharge, conjunctivitis, abortions, incr. pulse & resp rate;
lesions: haemorrhages!!

96
Q

name the form of African Swine Fever (ASF)

mortality rate 30-70%;
fever, depression, reduced appetite, abortion

97
Q

name the form of African Swine Fever (ASF)

low mortality (survivors become carriers);
loss of weight, irregular peaks of temp, resp signs, necrosis in areas of skin, chronic skin ulcers;
arthritis, pericarditis, adhesions of lungs, swelling over joints

98
Q

clinical signs of African Swine Fever (ASF) are indistinguishable from what other disease?

A

Classical Swine Fever (CSF)

99
Q

what is the treatment for African Swine Fever (ASF)?

A

NONE AVAILABLE

(BIOEXCLUSION!!)

100
Q

name the transboundary notifiable animal disease

aka ‘pseudo rabies’;
suid herpesvirus 1, genus Varicellovirus;
suids maintain the disease;
cattle, sheep, cat, dogs, etc are the dead-end hosts;
NOT zoonotic;
present in many parts of Europ, Africa, Asia and Latin America;
transmission: direct contact, inhalation, aerosols, venereal, in utero, fomites, carcass ingestion, carriers

A

Aujeszky’s Disease (AD)

101
Q

name the age of the animal based on Aujeszky’s Disease (AD) clinical signs:
* 100% mortality
* sudden deaths
* fever
* anorexia
* CNS signs

A

piglets < 1wk

102
Q

name the age of the animal based on Aujeszky’s Disease (AD) clinical signs:
* respiratory signs
* fever
* anorexia
* conjunctivitis
* CNS occassionally
* 50% mortality

A

weaned pigs

103
Q

name the age of the animal based on Aujeszky’s Disease (AD) clinical signs:
* mild infection
* abortion
* stillborn piglets if late gestation

104
Q

name 4 lesions caused by Aujeszky’s Disease (AD) - can be difficult to find

A
  1. serous or fibrinonecrotic rhinitis
  2. pulmonary oedema, congestion or consolidation
  3. necrotic tonsillitis or pharyngitis
  4. meningioencephalitis
105
Q

where is the serum sample taken from in the GB abattoir to be sent to the ref. nat. lab to demonstrate freedom from Aujeszky’s Disease (AD)

(every breeding boar)

106
Q

name the transboundary notifiable animal disease

domestic and wild pigs;
often subclinical (discovered through serology);
vesicular disease (identical to FMD!!);
enterovirus, family Picornaviridae;
1 serotype;
tansmission: ingestion, inhalation, broken skin, mucosa, direct contact/excretions, fomites, meat scraps

A

Swine Vesicular Disease (SVD)

107
Q

where will vesicles be found in an animal with Swine Vesicular Disease (SVD)

A

on the coronary band

108
Q

name the transbounary notifiable animal disease

notifiable in Scotland & England only;
suspicion should be reported to Scottish Pig Control Centre (SPDCC) who then alerts APHA;
high mortality (up to 100% in pre-weaned piglets);
no mandatory restrictions or culling if suspected or confirmed

A

Porcine Epidemic Diarrhoea (PED)

109
Q

name the transboundary notifiable animal disease

an infection of poultry and certain other birds caused by avian influenza A viruses with an IVPI > 1.2
OR any H5 or H7 subtype with multiple amino acids at the cleavage site;
present in UK;
one of the biggest challenges of GB poultry industry

A

Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza (HPAI)

110
Q

name the transboundary notifiable animal disease

infection of poultry by an Avian Paramyxovirus serotype 1 (APMV-1) with an ICPA>0.7 in day old chicks;
same approach taken for disease control wherever possible;
vaccines are commercially available and optional for bird owners

A

Newcastle Disease (ND)

111
Q

name the transboundary notifiable animal disease

similar to Newcastle disease but with some antigenic differences;
affects Columbiformes (pigeons and doves);
transmission by direct contact and fomites;
clinical signs: nervous signs: trembling, twisting of neck, partial paralysis of wings and neck, greenish diarrhoea, loss of appetite

A

Pigeon Paramyxovirus

112
Q

name the UK endemic notifiable disease

spore-forming bacteria Bacillus anthracis;
mammals & some birds;
present on all continents;
last outbreak in GB in 2015;
ZOONOTIC

113
Q

how long can Bacillus anthracis survive in soil?

114
Q

name 2 clinical signs of Anthrax in horses

A
  1. swelling in throat region
  2. acute colic
115
Q

what is the main symptom of anthrax in humans

A

95% cutaneous;
raised boil-like lesion on skin with black centre

116
Q

what is the clinical sign of Anthrax in ruminants

A

commonly found dead with no clinical signs;
unclotted blood may exude from body orifices

117
Q

name 3 circumstances when we have Anthrax suspicion

A
  1. sudden deaths
  2. history of outbreaks
  3. soil disturbance: organism exposure
118
Q

name the 6 steps you should take on a farm if you suspect anthrax

A
  1. isolate (alive) / do not open body (dead)
  2. no carcass/animal leaves farm
  3. block drainage
  4. C&D with approved DEFRA disinfectant
  5. sterilise milk & milk utensils
  6. contact APHA
119
Q

what sample should be collected/prepared for confirming anthrax as cause of death?

A

blood sample from superficial vein for blood smear

(stain with McFadyean’s methylene blue)

120
Q

name the UK Endemic Notifiable Disease

cattle, sheep, goats, horses, dogs;
official free status in UK since 1985;
last case in cattle in 2004;
ZOONOSIS;
spread through contact with vaginal discharges and birth products from infecteed animals OR milk, urine, semen from recovered animals OR fomites which survive in environment for months;
calves can be infected in utero

A

Brucellosis

(B. abortus, B. mellitensis, B. ovis, B. canis)

121
Q

what is the main clinical sign of Brucellosis

A

abortion storms

122
Q

name 3 clinical signs of Brucellosis in males

A
  1. orchitis
  2. epididymitis
  3. swollen testicles
123
Q

name 3 signs of Brucellosis on the placenta

A
  1. inflammation
  2. necrosis
  3. haemorrhages
124
Q

name 4 parts of the Brucellosis Surveillance Strategy which allows UK to maintain Free Status

A
  1. post import checks/tests done post calving
  2. regular bulk milk testing of dairy herds
  3. annual check blood testing for eligible herds
  4. all cattle abortions/premature births reported to APHA w/in 24h
125
Q

name the 3 types of samples taken from a cow by an authorised official vet for the Brucellosis surveillance strategy

A
  1. blood sample
  2. milk sample from all 4 quarters
  3. vaginal swab
126
Q

name the UK endemic notifiable disease

cattle, water buffalo, capybaras;
most infections subclinical, but a small proportion of cattle over 3y/o have lymphocytosis or lymphosarcoma in internal organs;
las case in GB in 1996;
official free status in 1999;
vertical transmission in milk & in utero;
horizontal transmission through direct close contact with infected blood

A

Enzootic Bovine Leukosis (EBL)

(Bovine Leukaemia Virus, family Retroviridae)

127
Q

name 5 clinical signs of Enzootic Bovine Leukosis (EBL) in cattle

A
  1. loss of condition
  2. weakness
  3. anaemia
  4. anorexia
  5. lymphocytosis
128
Q

how often do purchasers of milk send for testing to an approved lab for Enzootic Bovine Leukosis (EBL. Surveillance Strategy?

A

every 5 years
(2 samples of milk minimum of 4mo apart from all dairy cows)

129
Q

name the UK endemic notifiable disease

Hypoderma bovis & Hypoderma lineatum;
mainly cattle, but also deer, horse, sheep, & HUMANS;
notifiable disease in cattle in Scotland ONLY;
reduce growth & milk production, larvae put pressure on spinal cord, skin swellings up to 3mm, damage to the hide

A

Warble Fly (WF)

130
Q

when was warble fly (WF) eradicated?

131
Q

name the UK endemic notifiable disease

transmissible spongiform encephalopathy;
fatal neurological disease of cattle: prions;
classical and atypical forms;
linked to Creutzfeld-Jakob disease in humans;
clinical signs seen in cattle older than 5y: change in behaviour, aggressive, abnormalities of posture, movement or sensation

A

Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE)

132
Q

name the 2 circumstances where brainstem testing must be carried out in cattle as part of Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE) surveillance

A
  1. emergency slaughter of cattle born in UK >48mo
  2. all fallen cattle >48mo born in UK that died or killed on farm/transport (not for human consumption)
133
Q

name the UK endemic notifiable disease

Psoroptes ovis: severe pruritis;
notifiable in scotland only!
reported on suspicion, isolation + movement restrictions + treatment of all sheep / movement to slaughter

A

sheep scab

134
Q

this is the acitivity of buying and selling or exchangign goods and/or services between people or countries

135
Q

this organisation has 164 member (representing 98% of world trade);
it is based in Geneva, Switzerland;
primary purpose: open trade for the benefit of all;
decision are taken by consensus of the entire membership

A

World Trade Organisation (WTO)

136
Q

this World Trade Organisation (WTO) agreement allows WTO members to set their own standards on Food Safety and Animal & Plant Health standards;
based on science, applied only to extent necessary, non-discriminatory, transparent, proportional to risk

A

Sanitary & Photosanitary (SPS) Agreement

137
Q

what is the vet’s role in export trade policy?

A

negotiating market access

138
Q

what is the vet’s role in export trade delivery?

A

export certification

139
Q

what is the vet’s role in import trade policy?

A

import risk analysis

140
Q

what is the vet’s role in import trade delivery ?

A

BCP (border control post) checks

141
Q

this is a written statement made with authority;
the authority in this case coming from the veterinarian’s professional status

A

export certificate

142
Q

these have replaced Pet Passports, which are no longer issued in GB;
needed for movement of cats, dogs and ferrets from GB to the EU and NI;
an official veterinarian must complete & sign them

A

Animal Health Certificate (AHC)

143
Q

this is needed to export or move live animals and animal products from GB to the EU, non-EU countrie, and NI;
an official veterianrian must complete and sign them

A

Export Health Certificate (EHC)

144
Q

this is an act to prohibit the export of certain livestock from GB for slaughter;
certain livestock: cattle & other bovines, horses & other equines, sheep, goats, pigs, wild boars;
animals are slaughtered domestically in high welfare UK slaughterhouses

A

Animal Welfare (Livestock Exports) Act 2024

145
Q

this is included in the WOAH Terrestrial Animal Health Code;
aim: to provide importing countries with an objective and defensible method of assessing the disease risks associated with the importation of animals, animal products, animal genetic material, feedstuffs, biological products and pathological material

A

import risk analysis

146
Q

what is the GB import risk assessment for part 1 or part 2 listed countries regarding rabies?

A

wait 21 days from first vaccination

147
Q

what is the GB import risk assessment for non-listed countries regarding rabies?

A

vaccination + blood sample 30d after vax + wait 3mo before travel

148
Q

this is an inspection post designated and approved in line with GB legislation for carrying out checks on animals & animal products arriving at the GB border;
live animals, animal roducts, high-risk food and feed not of animal origin

A

Border control post (BCP)

149
Q

sets out to importers, the border industry and wider stakeholders the processes they will need to go through in order to import goods from 31 Jan 2024;
new approach to Safety & Security controls and Saitary and Phytosanitary controls;
minimise trader burdens and maintain border security while remaining aligned with international standards

A

Border Target Operating Model

150
Q

name the causative agent of bovine tuberculosis (bTB)

A

Mycobacterium bovis

151
Q

how can bovine tuberculosis (bTB) be zoonotically spread to humans?

A

unpasteurised milk

152
Q

name 3 ways infected animals shed Mycobacterium bovis bacteria (bovine tuberculosis (bTB))

A
  1. breathing
  2. secretions
  3. excretions
153
Q

how are cattle most often infected by Mycoplasm bovis causing bovine tuberculosis (bTB)

A

via aerosols in close contact

154
Q

which cells phagocytose M. bovis, allowing it to proliferate

A

macrophages

155
Q

where is the development of tubercles more likely if the animal is infected via inhalation

bovine tuberculosis (bTB)

A
  1. lungs
  2. cranial and thoracic lymph nodes
156
Q

where is teh development of tubercles more likely if the animal is infected via ingestion

bovine tuberculosis (bTB)

A
  1. abdominal organs
  2. mesenteric lymph nodes
157
Q

is bovine tuberculosis (bTB) a notifiable disease?

A

yes

(infection in animals is)

158
Q

approximately how many cattle are compulsory slaughtered in the UK each year due to bovine tuberculosis (bTB)

159
Q

approximately how much does bovine tuberculosis (bTB) eradication cost UK taxpayers per annum?

A

£150 million

160
Q

name the two tests approved to measure immune response of cattle for active bovine tuberculosis (bTB) surveillance

A
  1. primary screening test (SICCT)
  2. supplementary test (IFN-ɣ)
161
Q

name the active surveillance test for bovine tuberculosis (bTB)

detects a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction to the injection of tuberculin;
intradermal injection of 0.1mL avian and bovine tuberculin on border of anterior to middle part of the neck;
measure and record change in skin thickness of each site 72h later

A

single intradermal comparative cervical tuberculin test (SICCT)

(primary screening)

162
Q

name the 3 possible results for active bovine tuberculosis (bTB) surveillance SICCT test

A
  1. clear
  2. inconclusive reactor (IR)
  3. reactor (R)
163
Q

name the active surveillance test for bovine tuberculosis (bTB)

to be used in conjunction with SICCT test;
fresh blood sample from the tail vein/neck;
in lab: immune cells stimulated with avian & bovine tuberculin, levels of IFN-𝛾 measured

A

in vitro interferon-gamma test (IFN-𝛾)

164
Q

name 7 actions that must be taken for animals classed as reactors from bovine tuberculosis (bTB) surveillance

A
  1. isolation of reactor
  2. reactor tag applied
  3. movement under APHA license to approved abattoir
  4. statuatory slaughter & compensation paid
  5. confirmation by PMI & culture
  6. cattle movement & milk restrictions
  7. all animals: SICCT test
165
Q

name the 2 options a farmer can choose if an animal is classed as ‘inconclusive reactor’ from bovine tuberculosis (bTB) surveillance

A
  1. isolation + retest in 60d
  2. isolation + voluntary slaughter in approved abattoir
166
Q

what 3 things must a reactor/inconclusive reactor/direct contact animal have when sent to a slaughterhouse approved by APHA for bovine tuberculosis (bTB)

A
  1. passport
  2. FCI
  3. APHA movement license
167
Q

what should the carcass jusgment be for R/IR/DC/slaughterhouse cases of bovine tuberculosis (bTB) in the abattoir for these findings:
1. generalised TB
2. TB lesion + emaciation

A

total rejection;
ABP category 2

168
Q

what should the carcass jusgment be for R/IR/DC/slaughterhouse cases of bovine tuberculosis (bTB) in the abattoir for these findings:
1. one TB lesion only

A

local rejection;
ABP category 2

169
Q

name 3 reasons Official TB Free (OTF) herd status might be suspended

A
  1. skin reactor
  2. TB testing becomes overdue
  3. passive surveillance records visible lesion & PCR results are awaited
170
Q

name 3 reasons Official TB Free (OTF) herd status might be withdrawan

A
  1. visible lesion found in 1 or more reactors
  2. positive culture
  3. positive PCR of slaughterhouse case
171
Q

how can a herd with suspended OTF (official TB free) status regain it?

A

clear short interval skin test

172
Q

name 3 steps for an OTFW (official TB free withdrawan) herd to regain OTF status

A
  1. 2 clear short interval skin test (2st with SEVERE interpretation applied)
  2. interferon-gamma test
  3. contiguous test in neighboring herds where nose to nose contact between cattle
173
Q

how often is default TB testing done in Scotland?

174
Q

name 2 types of herds in scotland exempt from default TB testing

A
  1. herds <50 animals which have has <2 movements from HRA in last 4 years
  2. high % of herd slaughtered each year in previous 4y
175
Q

how often are bovines tested for TB in Wales in all areas?

176
Q

how often are bovines in high risk areas & edge areas tested for TB in England?

A

twelve/six-monthly

177
Q

how often are bovines in low risk areas tested fro TB in England?

A

every 4 years

178
Q

what is the main reservoir of TB in the UK?

179
Q

what vaccine can be used in badgers to help control bovine TB?

A

Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG)

180
Q

is the BCG vaccine against bTB authorised for cattle?

181
Q

where are bTB lesions in badgers mainly?

A

mostly in lungs

182
Q

what do bTB lesions in wild deer look like

A

white/yellow/cream liquid purulent material poorly encapsulated

183
Q

what pathogen is TB in pigs predominantly caused by?

A

Mycobacterium avium

(no further action necessary if confirmed)

Y4 Farm Animal (19 decks)

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