baaa

Question 1

this is the number of lambs born and surviving until a defined event (e.g. marking or weaning);
optimising this is critical to profitability in any production system

Answer 1

lambing percentage

Question 2

name 3 factors that can determine lambing percentage

Answer 2

1. mating period
2. late pregnancy
3. lambing

Question 3

80-90% of lamb deaths occur during this period;
deaths within the first week of birth

Answer 3

perinatal lamb mortality

Question 4

name 3 muti-factorial reasons for perinatal lamb mortality

Answer 4

1. poor ewe nutrition
2. dystocia
3. poor lamb nutrition

Question 5

undernutrition of the ewe during mid-pregnancy will cause this
leading to poor oxygen, nutrient and electrolyte transfer & low birth weights

Answer 5

poor placental development

Question 6

poor nutrition for the ewe in the last 6 weeks of gestation can cause these 2 results

Answer 6

1. hypoglycaemic lambs
2. poor colostrum production

Question 7

birth weights of lamb outwith this range are at the highest risk of mortality

Answer 7

3-5.5 kg

Question 8

how much colostrum do lambs need within the first 4h of life?

Answer 8

50 mL/kg bodyweight

Question 9

name 7 maternal factors contributing to lamb starvation

Answer 9

1. genotype
2. inexperience
3. poor nutrition
4. dystocia
5. concurrent disease
6. mastitis
7. multiple lambs

Question 10

name 6 lamb factors contributing to starvation

Answer 10

1. genotype
2. multiple litter mates
3. birth stress/trauma
4. prenatal malnutrition
5. hypothermia
6. infectious disease

Question 11

name 4 management practices to ensure adequate nutrition to minimise perinatal lamb losses

Answer 11

1. ultrasound data
2. body condition scoring
3. ration analysis
4. metabolic profiles

Question 12

name 4 management practices to avoid dystocia to minimise perinatal lamb losses

Answer 12

1. ewe and ram selection
2. use of keel marks and scanning data
3. feed management
4. good stockmanship

Question 13

what percent of lamb growth occurs in the last 6 weeks of pregnancy?

Answer 13

75%

Question 14

name the type of forage

higher energy, good management during storage, problems with listeriosis

Answer 14

grass silage

Question 15

name the type of forage

quality variable, allow for high wastage rate when feeding straw, get an analysis done

Answer 15

hay and straw

Question 16

how much trough space per ewe is required if restricted access?

Answer 16

18 in (45cm)

Question 17

how much water do ewes in late pregnancy require daily?

Answer 17

5-10L

Question 18

name 2 ways to help increase intakes of poor quality silage in sheep

Answer 18

1. put molasses on top of forage
2. add SBP or draff to ration

Question 19

what is often the main limiting factor of colostrum production in sheep

Answer 19

protein

Question 20

when should body condition scoring be done on pregnant ewes

Answer 20

4-6 weeks before lambing

Question 21

when should blood sampling of pregnant ewes be done to see what they think of their diet?

Answer 21

3-4 weeks befpre the start of lambing

(at least 5 ewes in each group)

Question 23

name the 4 things pregnant ewes should be grouped according to

Answer 23

1. lambing date
2. condition score
3. scan results
4. age

Question 24

name the 5 metabolites that should be analysed in blood samples from pregnant ewes to assess nutrition

Answer 24

1. BHB
2. urea-N
3. albumin
4. magnesium
5. phosphate

Question 25

what is the target beta-hydroxybutyrate threshold for ewes not scanned

Answer 25

0.8 mmol/L

Question 26

what is the target beta-hydroxybutyrate threshold for ewes if scanned and fed according to lamb number

Answer 26

1.0 mmol/L

Question 27

what is the UK target for neonatal disease in lambs

Answer 27

< 7%

Question 28

name the neonatal lamb disease

seen in lambs 1-3d old;
lethargic, excess salivation and distension of the abdomen;
unwilling to suckle;
caused by E. coli, acquired from environment

Answer 28

watery mouth

Question 29

name the 5 parts of treatment for watery mouth in lambs

Answer 29

1. Flunixin or meloxicam IV
2. oral electrolytes
3. IV fluids
4. soapy enemas
5. systemic abx

Question 30

name the neonatal lamb disease

caused by Clostridium perfringens type B;
spradic cases;
lack of colostral Ab intake;
initially lambs up to 1 wk old, can get in older lambs too;
clinical signs: sudden death, lethargy, tenesmus, vocalisation

Answer 30

lamb dysentery

Question 31

what sign of lamb dysentery will be seen on PM

Answer 31

haemorrhagic enteritis

Question 32

name the cause of neonatal lamb enteritis

seen in lamb less than 4d old (rel. uncommon);
K99 adherence pili facilitates attachment to the intestinal mucosa;
toxin produced which interferes with water and electrolyte transport leading to severe watery, brown diarrhoea

Answer 32

enterotoxigenic E. coli

Question 33

name 4 bacteraemias seen in neonatal lambs

Answer 33

1. joint ill (polyarthritis)
2. navel ill (omphalophlebitis)
3. meningitis
4. endocarditis

Question 34

name the neonatal lamb disease

can be seen in lambs as young as 5d old;
sudden onset lameness;
pain, heat and swelling of several joints;
poor suckling and ill-thrift

Answer 34

joint ill

Question 35

name 3 PM signs of joint ill in neonatal lambs

Answer 35

1. pus in joints
2. thickened synovial membranes
3. erosion of the articular surfaces

Question 36

name the neonatal lamb disease

rel. common in young lambs;
more common in male lambs;
results from bacteraemia or infection of the umbilical vessels and urachus from a dirty environment;
can remained localised or spread leading to peritonitis, liver abscesses

Answer 36

navel ill

Question 37

how to prevent navel ill in neonatal lambs?

Answer 37

dip navel in strong iodine soon after birth

Question 38

name the neonatal lamb disease

navel infection with Fusobacterium necrophorum;
leads to white spots (abscesses) on the liver;
can spread to lungs and joints

Answer 38

hepatic necrobacillosis

Question 39

name the neonatal lamb disease

typically affects lambs 2-4 wks old;
lack of suckle reflex, weak, congestion of the sclera, opistotonus

Answer 39

meningitis

Question 40

name the neonatal lamb disease

most commonly seen in lambs 1-4mo old;
clinical signs will vary depending on location of the abscess;
can be treated with long course of penicillin

Answer 40

spinal abscess

Question 41

name the neonatal lamb disease

can result in still births or weak lambs;
reluctant to feed;
sudden onset semi-paralysis;
typically die from respiratory failure, starvation or heart failure;
vit E and selenium deficiencies

Answer 41

congenital white muscle disease

Question 42

name the neonatal lamb disease

sporadically seen in lambs 2-4wks old or 2-4mo old;
aetiology unknown;
lambs depressed, wont suck but appear thirsty;
empty abdomen, normal rectal temp;
soft faeces with perineal staining;
blood urea and creatinine parameters raised

Answer 42

nephrosis

Question 43

what is ill thrift?

Answer 43

low body condition

Question 44

what type of blood panel should be avoided in farm practice because it is an unnecessary test and cost?

Answer 44

biochemistry

Question 45

name the 5 main values in blood to use for screening tests in farm practice

Answer 45

1. total protein
2. albumin
3. globulin
4. GGT
5. GLDH

Question 46

what is the organism that causes Johne’s Disease in sheep?

Answer 46

Mycobacterium avium ssp. paratuberculosis (MAP)

Question 47

name 2 clinical signs of Johne’s disease in sheep

Answer 47

1. condition loss
2. bottle jaw in late stages

Question 48

name the cause of ill thrift in sheep

sporadic disease usually in older sheep;
may present like Johne’s disease;
usually a distinct mass sometimes with secondary spread;
may be assoc. with eating bracken

Answer 48

intestinal adenocarcinoma

Question 49

name the cause of ill thrift in sheep

contageous lung tumour caused by Jaagsiekte betaretrovirus (JSRV);
tumour of the type II pneumocyte cells of the lungs;
‘wheelbarrow test’, clear fluid leaking from nose

Answer 49

ovine pulmonary adenomatosis

Question 50

name 3 effects of ovine pulmonary adenomatosis (tumour of the type II pneumocyte cells of the lung)

Answer 50

1. loss of alveoli structure
2. excess fluid production
3. consolidation of lung tissue

Question 51

how can ovine pulonary adenomatosis be diagnosed?

Answer 51

ultrasound

(serology and nasal swab PCR not useful)

Question 52

what is the most important way to control ovine pulmonary adenomatosis

Answer 52

group sheep by age

Question 53

name the cause of ill thrift in sheep

cases pneumonia, encephalitis, paralysis, mastitis and wasting in sheep;
closely related to Caprine Arthritis and Encephalitis lentivirus (CAE) in goats;
long incubation period, spread through inhalation;
sheep are infected for life

Answer 53

Maedi visna

Question 54

name the pathogen causing Maedi Visna in sheep

Answer 54

Visna Maedi lentivirus

Question 55

what is the treatment/vaccination for maedi visna in sheep?

Answer 55

none available

Question 56

what is the most used test for diagnosing maedi visna in sheep?

Answer 56

serology - antibody ELISA

Question 57

name the cause of ill thrift in sheep

contagious skin disease caused by Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis;
spread through direct contact or fomites;
survices for around 2mo in evironment;
thick abscesses in the lymph nodes

Answer 57

caseous lymphadenitis (CLA)

Question 58

name the 3 forms of caseous lymphadenitis in sheep

Answer 58

1. superficial form
2. visceral form

Question 59

name the cause of ill thrift in sheep

notifiable neurological disease caused by prion protein (transmissible spongiform encephalopathy);
classical and atypical forms;
not thought to be zoonotic;
long incubation period;
pruritis/wool loss, excitability, ear droop, tremors, odd gait

Answer 59

scrapie

Question 60

what scheme must sheep flocks with confirmed cases of scrapie join?

Answer 60

Compulsory Scrapie Flock Scheme (CSFS)

Question 61

this is defined as a death that occurs since the last inspection;
often multiple animals;
can almost guarantee those those that die will be the ‘best’ in the group

Answer 61

sudden death

Question 62

name the 3 main causes of sudden death in sheep

Answer 62

1. Clostridial disease
2. Redgut
3. Systemic pasteurellosis

Question 63

name the cause of sudden death in sheep

anaerobic, spore forming, toxin producing bacteria;
toxin production follows opportunistic rapid multiplication in the host (botulism is the exception);
control by managing risk factors and vaccination

Answer 63

Clostridial disease

Question 64

name the Clostridial disease of sheep

a common, peracute and usually fatal disease of sheep - can affect any age;
caused by C. perfringens type D (epsilon toxin) and oedema in multiple tissues;
typically associated with a change in diet

Answer 64

pulpy kidney

Question 65

name 4 clinical signs of pulpy kidney in sheep

Answer 65

1. sudden death
2. hyperaesthesia
3. ataxia
4. convulsions

Question 66

how to definitively diagnose pulpy kidney at PM of a sheep

Answer 66

demonstration of epsilon toxin on ELISA

(in intestinal contents)

Question 67

name the Clostridial disease of sheep

rare, peracute disease of adult sheep;
C. perfringens type C;
enteritis, peritonitis, sudden death;
Hx of dietary change in unvaccinated sheep

Answer 67

struck

Question 68

how to definitively diagnose Struck during PM of a sheep

Answer 68

demonstration of Beta toxin by ELISA

(on intestinal contents or peritoneal fluid)

Question 69

name the Clostridial disease of sheep

Clostridium sordelii;
sudden death of sheep, can be vaccinated or not;
typically seen in creep-fed lambs 3-10wks old;
clinically seen as bloated depressed lambs

Answer 69

Abomasitis

Question 70

what is the vaccination for Abomasitis in sheep

Answer 70

Covexin 10

Question 71

name the Clostridial disease of sheep

rare disease of hoggs (lambs between 9-18mo);
causes severe abomasitis;
C. septicum;
associate with ingestion of frosted food

Answer 71

Braxy

Question 72

name 2 ways to diagnose blackleg in sheep

Answer 72

1. demonstration of bacteria on smears
2. fluorescent Ab tests on smears

Question 73

name the Clostridial disease of sheep

C. chauvoei;
spores survive in soil for years;
typically seen following docking, castration, shearing, dirty needs, poor lambing hygiene, wintering on root crops;
causes cellulitis, necrotising myositis, toxaemia and gas production

Answer 73

Blackleg

Question 74

name the Clostridial disease of sheep

fatal peracute disease affecting sheep of all ages;
alpha and beta toxins of C. novyi type B;
instigated by migrating liver fluke larvae

Answer 74

black disease

Question 75

how to definitively diagnose black disease in sheep

Answer 75

demonstration of bacteria in smears of cut liver tissue

Question 76

name the Clostridial disease of sheep

disease of sheep of any age;
massive facial swelling with pitting oedema and gas production;
most commonly seen in ram lambs;
C. septicm, C.novyi, C. chauvoei;
can respond to treatment if seen early

Answer 76

malignant oedema

Question 77

name the Clostridial disease of sheep

fatal, paralysing disease of all species;
neurotoxin;
ubiquitous organism in the soil;
spores enter deep wounds;
clinically causes sustained spasm and rigitidy of voluntary muscles;
unable to swallow or eructate

Answer 77

tetanus

(C. tetani neurotoxin)

Question 79

name 3 treatments for tetanus

Answer 79

1. tetanus antitoxin
2. antibiotics
3. analgesia

Question 80

name the Clostridial disease of sheep

rare disease which can affect all species;
flaccid paralysis and incoordination, pelvic limbs initially;
leads to recumbency and death;
no specific PM findings - diagnosis based on Hx and clinical signs

Answer 80

Botulism

(C. botulinum toxin - type B, C, and D)

Question 81

when should the annual booster of Clostridium vaccine be given?

Answer 81

6 weeks before lambing

Question 82

name the cause of sudden death in sheep

sporadic condition;
intestinal torsion in weaned lambs or adult sheep;
sudden death due to endotoxaemia and circulatory failure;
associated with legumes or lush forage

Answer 82

Redgut

Question 83

name 2 ways to prevent redgut in sheep

Answer 83

1. gradually introduce onto lush pastures
2. provide good quality fibre

Question 84

what is the gestation period for sheep?

Answer 84

142-152 days

Question 85

what is the oestrus cycle length for sheep?

Answer 85

16-17 days

Question 86

what is the normal length of the luteal phase for sheep

Answer 86

13-14 days

Question 87

what is the normal length of follicular phase in sheep?

Answer 87

3-4 days

Question 88

what should the scrotal measurement for a ram lamb be?

Answer 88

32 cm

Question 89

what should the scrotal measurement for a shearling ram be?

Answer 89

36 cm

Question 90

what percent of adult body weight must a ewe be at tupping?

Answer 90

70%

Question 91

low levels of this nutrient in the ewe can result in embryonic loss in first 3-4 weeks

Answer 91

selenium

Question 92

what nutritional profiling can be done to look at long-term selenium levels in ewes

Answer 92

GSHP-x

Question 93

name 3 nutritional profiling that should be done for ewes to prepare for tupping

Answer 93

1. GSHP-x
2. iodine
3. vitamin B12

Question 94

what is the ram to ewe ratio for adult rams

Answer 94

1:40-60

Question 95

what is the ram to ewe ratio for ram lambs

Answer 95

1:30

Question 96

what months are breeding season for sheep?

Answer 96

September - December

Question 97

name the method of manipulating breeding in sheep

can advance the breeding season by 2 wks;
helps to synchronise the ewes;
intro a vasectomised ram which induces ovulation, remove after 7d

Answer 97

ram or teaser effect

Question 98

name the method of manipulating breeding in sheep

synchronises ewes;
canadvance breeding season by 4-6 weeks, include PMSG;
insert at day 0, remove at day 12-14 +/- PMSG injection, intoduce fertile tup 36-40h later (1 ram per 10 ewes)

Answer 98

progestagen sponges

Question 99

what injection must be given at removal of the progestagen sponge for AI in sheep

Answer 99

PMSG

Question 100

name the method of manipulating breeding in sheep

launched in UK this year;
works same way as progestagen sponges;
claims of less irritation/vaginitis;
leave for 12 days, PMSG at removal, oestrus 1-2d later

Answer 100

CIDR ovis

Question 101

name the method of manipulating breeding in sheep

naturally increases with decr. daylength;
implant mimics this and can advance the breeding season by 2mo;
Regulin ear implant

Answer 101

melatonin implants

Question 102

how many days after melatonin implant should the rams be introduced

Answer 102

42 days

Question 103

how to perform AI in sheep?

Answer 103

laparascopic

Question 104

what conception rates can you get with laparascopic AI in sheep?
depends on perator skill and semen quality

Answer 104

65-70%

Question 105

what is the optimal time during gestation to identify foetal numbers in sheep

Answer 105

60-90 days gestation

Question 106

what can be used to terminate pregnancy in sheep?

Answer 106

PGF2⍺

Question 107

name 2 drugs that can be used to induce parturition in sheep

Answer 107

1. Corticosteroids
2. Dexamethasone

Question 108

name 3 causes of high barren rates in sheep

Answer 108

1. ewes not cycling
2. fertilisation failure
3. failure to conceive or maintain early pregnancy

Question 109

investigation is warranted if the ewe barren rate is higher than what percent?

Answer 109

5%

Question 110

name 4 common causes of ram infertility

Answer 110

1. epididymitis
2. inguinal hernia
3. testicular degeneration
4. scrotal mange

Question 111

name the common cause of ram infertility

common cause of permanent infertility,
often no clinical signs;
typically lesions are found in the tail of the epididymis;
testicular atrophy;
organisms enter the repro tract through the prepuce from the environment

Answer 111

epididymitis

Question 112

name the 3 main agents causing epididymitis in rams in the UK

Answer 112

1. Actinobacillus semnis
2. Haemophilus somnus
3. Histophilus ovis

Question 113

name the significant cause of epididymitis in rams overseas

Answer 113

Brucella ovis

Question 114

name the common cause of ram infertility

large swelling of the scrotum;
intestinal contents coming through the inguinal ring;
testicular atrophy;
usually unilateral;
diagnose by u/s;
permanently unsound

Answer 114

inguinal hernia

Question 115

name the common cause of ram infertility

bilateral small testes;
poor semen quality;
specific cause often unknown;
various factors: systemic disease, environmental temperature, inflammation, extreme fatness

Answer 115

testicular degeneration

Question 116

name the common cause of ram infertility

widespread in the UK;
causes pruritic lesions on the pull, coronary band, accessory digits and scrotum;
handling of scrotum often results in a nibbling reflex;
raises temp of the scrotum which impacts spermatogenesis

Answer 116

scrotal mang

Chorioptes bovis

Question 117

name the common cause of ram infertility

often rsults from shearing wounds;
if caught and treated early fertility can be preserved;
differentiate from inguinal hernia and epididymitis by position of swelling

Answer 117

scrotal abscess

Question 118

what is the target rate for abortion in sheep?

Answer 118

< 2%

Question 119

name 6 common causes of abortion in sheep

Answer 119

1. Chlamydophila abortus
2. Toxoplasma gondii
3. Salmonella spp.
4. Campylobacter fetus fetus (intestinalis)
5. Border disease
6. Listeriosis

Question 120

name the infectious cause of abortion

most common diagnosed cause;
late abortion, stillborn or weak lambs;
ZOONOSIS;
Chlamydophila abortus

Answer 120

Enzootic Abortion of the Ewe (EAE)

Question 121

what stain should be used to diagnose Enzootic Abortion of the Ewe (EAE)

Answer 121

ZN stain

(clusters of red bodies against blue background)

Question 122

what is the outcome if infection of Enzootic Abortion of the Ewe (EAE) occurs during first half of the pregnancy (>6wks off due date)

Answer 122

abort during last 3 wks of pregnancy

Question 123

what should all ewes be treated with during an Enzootic Abortion of the Ewe (EAE) outbreak

Answer 123

long acting oxytetracycline

(2-4wks before lambing)

Question 124

name the infectious cause of abortion in sheep

lifecycle involving rodents and cats;
barren ewes if infection in early pregnancy;
abortions/stillbirths late pregnancy;
normal if infected after 120d or when empty;
ZOONOTIC

Answer 124

Toxoplasmosis

(Toxoplasma gondii)

Question 125

what placental change is associated with Toxoplasmosis in sheep

Answer 125

necrotic cotyledons with white spots

(like strawberries)

Question 126

name the infectious cause of abortion in sheep

5% of diagnosed abortions;
gram neg bacteria;
abortion in final 6 weeks of pregnancy;
sporadic outbreaks in UK flocks, very common in NZ;
ZOONOTIC

Answer 126

Campylobacterosis

(C. fetus fetus)

Question 127

name 3 ways to diagnose Campylobacteriosis in sheep

Answer 127

1. gross signs
2. gram or ZN stained smears of foetal stomach contents
3. bacterial culture of foetal stomach contents

Question 128

name the infectious cause of abortion in sheep

ZOONOTIC;
gram neg aerobic bacteria;
poor hygiene;
sporadic;
enteric or generalised ill health in ewes;
septicaemia

Answer 128

Salmonellosis

Question 129

name the strain of Salmonella causing abortion in sheep

common in southeast scotland;
sheep and cattle - often no signs of impending abortion;
often rotten, autolysed lambs;
some ewes become sick with metritis afterwards

Answer 129

Salmonella enterica serotype Montevideo

Question 130

name the 2 strains of Salmonella causing abortion in sheep

sick and pyrexic ewes: may die of septicaemia before they abort;
profuse diarrhoea;
stinking lambings with emphysematous lambs

Answer 130

1. S. typhimurium
2. S. dublin

Question 131

what agar should be used for bacterial culture to diagnose Salmonellosis as cause of abortion in sheep

Answer 131

MacConkey agar

Question 132

name the infectious cause of abortion in sheep

related to BVD in cattle;
viraemia and necrotising placentitis - outcome depends on the foetal immunocompetence;
barren ewes, abortions, weak lambs (‘hairy shaker’ lambs, poor doing lambs)

Answer 132

Border disease

Question 133

name the time of Border Disease infection based on outcome

foetal death and resorption - barren ewes;
still births;
surviving lambs: PI animals, ‘hairy shakers’, ill thrifty

Answer 133

< day 60

Question 134

name the time of Border Disease infection based on outcome

some normal lambs;
some lambs with major CNS abnormalities

Answer 134

day 60-85

Question 135

name the time of Border Disease infection based on outcome

late abortions;
normal survivors

Answer 135

after day 85

Question 136

name the infectious cause of abortion in sheep

uncommon;
usually associated with feeding poor quality silage with pH >5;
losses usually third trimester;
foetuses very autolysed, examine liver and brain for micro-abscesses

Answer 136

Listeriosis

Question 137

name the 5 things to assess on a neuro exam from a distance

Answer 137

1. demeanour
2. posture
3. awareness
4. symmetry
5. gait

Question 138

name 4 things to assess on the head during a neuro exam

Answer 138

1. assess mentation
2. head carriage
3. facial symmetry
4. cranial nerves

Question 139

name 3 things to assess at the neck during a neuro exam

Answer 139

1. range of movement
2. pain
3. extend examination along the spine

Question 140

what reflexes should be assessed while the animal is standing

Answer 140

proprioceptive reflexes

Question 141

what 4 reflexes should be assessed with the animal in lateral recumbency

Answer 141

1. Patellar reflex
2. extensor carpi radialis reflex
3. withdrawal reflex
4. cutaneous trunci

Question 142

where would the spinal lesion be if the patellar reflex is affected

Answer 142

L4-L6

Question 143

where would the spinal lesion be if the extensor carpi radialis reflex is affected

Answer 143

C7-T2

Question 144

where should CSF be collected for diagnostic tests?

Answer 144

lumbosacral region

(between L6 and S2)

Question 145

name the location of the brain lesion based on the common signs

1. depression
2. apistotonus
3. circling
4. hyperaesthesia
5. head pressing
6. visual deficits

Answer 145

cerebral lesions

Question 146

name the common presentation of cerebral lesions

seen in weaned lambs, less commonly in growing cattle;
occassionally in adult sheep;
recent diet change ~2wks ago;
possibly recent anthelmintic treatment;
isolated from group, aimless wandering, blindness, star gazing stance, hyperaesthetic;
dosomedial strabismus and horizontal nystagmus

Answer 146

Polioencephalomalacia (PEM)
aka
Cerebral Cortical Necrosis (CCN)

Question 147

overgrowth of bacteria producing this product in the rumen precipitates Cerebral Cortical Necrosis (CCN);
destroys the vitamin essential to glucose metabolism

Answer 147

thiaminase

(destroys thiamine - vitamin B1)

Question 148

name 2 signs of Cerebral Cortical Necrosis (CCN) seen on post mortem

Answer 148

1. necrosis of grey matter of brain
2. cut surface fluoresces under Wood’s Lamp

Question 149

what is the treatment for Cerebral Cortical Necrosis (CCN) ?

Answer 149

vitamin B1 (thiamine)

(10 mg/kg, IV initially, followed by IM injections)

Question 150

name the neuro disease

rare in ruminants;
affects animals 3-6 months old;
progressive clinical disease;
blindness and proprioceptive deficits on the contralateral side (PLR normal);
depression, sometimes circling but more likely standing in a corner

Answer 150

brain abscesses

Question 151

name the common brainstem disease

affects sheep, cattle, goats, & pigs;
typically associated with big bale silage of poor quality;
can affect up to 10% of group;
typically seen in winter/spring;
absence of blink response, unilaterally;
progresses to death within 10-14d

Answer 151

Listeria

(Listeria monocytogenes)

Question 152

localise the lesion based on the common clinical signs:

1. difficulty eating
2. nystagmus
3. ptosis
4. ear drooping
5. drooling
6. head tilt
7. loss of menace

Answer 152

brainstem lesion

Question 153

what lesions does Listeria cause in the brain stem?

Answer 153

microabscesses

Question 154

how does Listeria bacteria reach the brainstem?

Answer 154

along Trigeminal nerve through abrasions in mouth

Question 155

name 4 differential diagnoses of Listeria in cattle

Answer 155

1. BSE
2. CCN
3. Lead poisoning
4. Rabies (where present)

Question 156

name 2 differential diagnoses for Listeria in sheep

Answer 156

1. brain abscess
2. nephrosis

Question 157

what is the drug of choice for treating Listeria?

Answer 157

penicillin

(high dose)

Question 158

what is the success rate of aggressive treatment (penicillin) for Listeria

Answer 158

30-50%

Question 159

name 4 ways to prevent Listeria

Answer 159

1. avoid mouldy silage
2. remove stale feed from feeders
3. feed hay to gimmers
4. treat silage to incr pH

Question 160

aside from encephalitis, name 3 other things Listeria monocytogenes can cause ;
unusual for multiple forms to occur at same time

Answer 160

1. abortion
2. silage eye (anterior uveitis)
3. neonatal septicaemia (visceral Listeriosis)

Question 161

name 3 typical clinical signs of vestibular lesions

Answer 161

1. head tilt (ipsilateral)
2. circling
3. nystagmus

Question 162

early treatment with what drug can result in good responses in animals with vestibular disease

Answer 162

penicillin

Question 163

name 4 common clinical signs of cerebellar lesions

Answer 163

1. wide-based stance
2. ataxia
3. hypermetria
4. intention tremors

Question 164

name the neuro disease

Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathy (TSE);
exact causative agent still unknown, referred to as prions;
progressive disease, initially ill-thrift;
commonly seen in 3-5 y/o;
no test in live animal for diagnosis, clinical signs often non-specific

Answer 164

Scrapie

Question 165

localise the spinal lesion

all 4 limbs affected - ataxia and weakness;
exaggerated reflexes in fore and hind limbs

Answer 165

cervical spine (C1-C6)

Question 166

localise the spinal lesion

ataxia and weakness more severe in forelimbs;
scuffing/abnormal wear of toes in forelimbs

Answer 166

brachial region (C6-T2)

Question 167

localise the spinal lesion

normal thoracic limb function;
weakness and ataxia of hindlimbs;
exaggerated pelvic limb reflexes;
panniculus is absent caudal to the lesion

Answer 167

T2-L3

Question 168

localise the spinal lesion

flaccid paralysis of hindlimbs

Answer 168

L4-S2

Question 169

localise the spinal lesion

bladder distension and loss of anal tone

Answer 169

S1-S3

Question 170

will lesions compressing the spinal cord cause increased or decreased CSF protein concentrations

Answer 170

increased

Question 171

name the neuro disease

sporozoan parasite with ruminant intermediate hosts, carnivores are the definitive host;
commonly found in heart and skeletal muscle of sheep in UK;
6-12mo old sheep;
neuro signs include tremors, recumbency, nibbling, fore or hindlimb paralysis;
can only be confirmed histologically

Answer 171

Sarcocystitis

Question 172

name the neuro disease

can affect the lateral ventricles of the brain or the thoracolumbar spinal cord;
slow onset head tilt and circling towards the affected side;
hypermetria and hindlimb ataxia;
euthanase on welfare grounds

Answer 172

visna

(manifestation of Maedi Visna Virus)

Question 173

name the neuro disease

aka Elso heel;
occurs in calves from birth to 12mo;
calves initially seen with excessively straight hocks;
gastrocnemius and superficial digital flexor tendon have excessive tone;
commonly bilateral;
unknown aetiology

Answer 173

spastic paresis

Question 175

name the 2 treatment options for spastic paresis in calves

Answer 175

1. tibial neurectomy
2. Gastrocnemius tenotomy

Question 176

name 4 common ectoparasites causing skin disease in sheep

Answer 176

1. sheep scap (Psoroptes ovis)
2. Blowfly strike (myiasis)
3. Lice (bovicola ovis & Linognathus spp)
4. ticks

Question 177

name 5 common non-parasitic causes of skin disease in sheep

Answer 177

1. orf
2. caseous lymphadenitis
3. dermatophilosis
4. photosensitisation
5. ringworm

Question 178

name the skin disease in sheep

host-specific mite, highly contagious;
welfare problem and economic losses;
mite lives in environment for up to 17 days;
up to 100% morbidity;
outbreaks usually in winter/spring;
immediate and delayed hypersensitivity reactions

Answer 178

Sheep scap
(Psoroptes ovis)

Question 179

name 4 clinical signs of sheep scab

Answer 179

1. intense pruritis
2. wool loss
3. scab formation
4. death

Question 180

name 2 ways to diagnose sheep scab

Answer 180

1. skin scrapes
2. ELISA antibody test (Psoo2)

Question 181

name 2 treatments for sheep scab

Answer 181

1. plunge dipping (diazinon - organophosphate)
2. systemic endectocide injections (macrocytic lactones)

Question 182

how long must sheep be immersed in organophosphate dip for it to be effective against sheep scab

Answer 182

1 min

Question 183

name 3 advantages of organophosphate dips as treatment for sheep scab

Answer 183

1. kills mites w/in 24h
2. washing effect removes dead mites
3. residual protection for several weeks

Question 184

name 4 disadvantages of organophosphate dips as treatment for sheep scab

Answer 184

1. human and environmental hazards
2. operator requires certificate of competence
3. stressful procedure for sheep
4. long meat withdrawal periods (70d)

Question 185

name 3 advantages of macrocytic lactone injections as treatment for sheep scab

Answer 185

1. less complex to administer
2. safer for operator, sheep and environment
3. residual protection for several weeks (Cydectin LA)

Question 186

name 3 disadvantages of macrocytic lactone injections as treatment for sheep scab

Answer 186

1. pruritis may persist for up to 30d
2. takes time to kill mites
3. promotes anthelmintic resistance

Question 187

name the skin disease in sheep

occurs during summer months (may-sept);
parasite attracted to soiled areas of fleece;
lay eggs which hatch w/in 12h;
larvae penetrate skin and secrete enzymes causing irritation, secondary bacterial infection and eventually toxaemia;
discoloured grey, moist wool and offensive smell;
wool loss and dermatitis

Answer 187

Blowfly strike (myiasis)

Question 188

name 3 ways to control Blowfly strike in sheep

Answer 188

1. plung dipping (OP dips) for 3wks after shearing
2. shower dipping & hand/automatic jetting
3. pour ons (synthetic pyrethroids, insect growth regulators)

Question 189

name the species of chewing lice affecting sheep

Answer 189

Bovicola ovis

Question 190

name the 2 (less common) species of sucking lice affecting sheep

Answer 190

1. Linognathus ovillus (face)
2. Linognathus pedalis (limbs)

Question 191

how long is the lifecycle of chewing lice (Bovicola ovis) under ideal conditions?

Answer 191

30 days

Question 192

name the skin disease in sheep

parasite found along dorsum and flanks feeding on skin debris;
cause irritation and intense pruritis;
rubbing/biting shoulders, flanks, back;
broken wool, matting and discolouration;
entire life cycle spent on host, requires close contact for transmission

Answer 192

chewing lice (Bovicola ovis)

Question 193

name 3 treatments for chewing lice (Bovicola ovis) in sheep

Answer 193

1. shearing
2. plunge dipping (OP)
3. synthetic pour-ons

(systemic endectocides NOT effective)

Question 194

name 5 tick-borne diseases affecting sheep

Answer 194

1. tick-borne fever
2. tick pyaemia
3. louping-ill
4. Q fever
5. Babesiosis

Question 195

name the skin disease in sheep

parapox virus;
ZOONOTIC;
immunity to infection short-lived;
NO colostral transfer of immunity;
proliferatice lesions on lips and nostrils of lambs;
lesions of teats of nursing ewes;
persistent proliferative lesions;
scabs contain live virus

Answer 195

Orf (contagious pustular dermatitis)

Question 196

how long does dry scab material remain infectious with Orf?

Answer 196

years

Question 197

how to diagnose Orf

Answer 197

PCR or electron microscopy on moist scabs

Question 198

what is the ‘treatment’ for orf

Answer 198

natural recover in 24-30 days;
prevent secondary infections

Question 199

is there a vaccine for orf?

Answer 199

yes;
Scabivax (live vaccine)

Question 200

name the skin disease of sheep

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis;
via skin abrasions;
abscesses in regional lymph nodes;
firm, palpable swellings involving lymph nodes of head and neck;
occasionally rupture and discharge pus

Answer 200

Caseous lymphadenitis

Question 201

2 ways to diagnose caseous lymphadenitis

Answer 201

1. bacterial culture from infected nodes
2. ELISA serology

Question 202

how long can the bacteria causing caseous lymphadenitis survive in sheep dip

Answer 202

up to 24h

Question 203

what is the treatment for caseous lymphadenitis

Answer 203

none;
isolate or cull animals with discharging lesions

Question 204

name the skin disease in sheep

primary: plants containing photodynamic agents (st. john’s wort);
secondary to hepatotoxic damage (Bog asphodal);
accumulation of chlorophyll metabolites, excretion blocked leads to reaction with sunlight

Answer 204

photosensitisation

Question 205

name the skin disease in sheep

usually associated with prolonged wet weather;
papule and crust formation on ears, nose and dorsum;
generally NOT pruritic;
self-cure or antibiotics (penicillin)

Answer 205

Dermatophilosis (lumpy wool)

(Dermatophilus congolensis)

Question 206

name 4 ways to classify ill-thrift in lambs

Answer 206

1. failure to meet growth target
2. failure to finish in time
3. lack of response to increased feed
4. poor body condition

Question 207

this is the conversion of feed into meat;
aka Feed Conversion Efficiency (FCE)

Answer 207

growth

Question 208

name the 2 wasy you can approach ill-thrift

Answer 208

1. make assumptions and treat
2. use rational, health plan-based approach

Question 209

name 3 causes of ill-thrift that can be ruled out by post mortem examination

Answer 209

1. pneumonia
2. nematodes
3. fluke

Question 210

name the trace element deficiency

ill thrift in cattle and sheep;
poor reproductive performance (ewes and lambs);
white muscle disease (all ruminant species)

Answer 210

selenium

Question 211

name the trace element deficiency

wool changes in sheep;
brittle bones
swayback in lambs, goats and deer;
ill thrift in cattle;
poor reproductive performance in cattle;
poor milk yields in cattle

Answer 211

copper

Question 212

name the trace element deficiency

neonatal lamb and calf mortality;
poor reproductive performance

Answer 212

iodine

Question 213

name the 4 main trace elements of interest in sheep

Answer 213

1. copper
2. cobalt
3. selenium
4. iodine

Question 214

what type of blood tube should be used for cobalt testing

Answer 214

serum or heparin plasma

Question 215

what vitamin is measured as a proxy of cobalt?

Answer 215

vitamin B12

Question 216

what type of blood tube should be used for selenium testing

Answer 216

heparin plasma only

Question 217

what enzyme can be measured as a proxy of selenium

Answer 217

GSHPx

Question 218

name the 3 most commonly diagnosed foot conditions in sheep

Answer 218

1. scald / interdigital dermatitis
2. foot rot
3. contagious ovine digital dermatitis (CODD)

Question 219

name the foot disease in sheep

Dichelobacter nodosus +/- Fusobacterium necrophorum;
moist conditions or trauma lead to damage of the interdigital skin;
indistinguishable from benign foot rot;
often seen in lambs at grass

Answer 219

Scald (interdigital dermatitis)

Question 220

what is the treatment for scald (interdigital dermatitis)?

Answer 220

antibiotic spray

(foot bathing in an outbreak)

Question 221

what is the antibiotic of choice for ewes if footrot is present in farm

Answer 221

oxytetracycline

Question 222

name the foot condition in sheep

Dichelobacter nodosus;
found on majority of farms and thrives in warm, wet conditions;
clinical cases of scald can incr. bacterial contamination and spread on farm;
foul smell and pus on the interdigital skin, underrunning of the horn starting from the interdigital space;
bacteria can survive 14d in environment

Answer 222

Footrot

Question 223

name 2 treatments for footrot in sheep

Answer 223

1. treat lame sheep as soon as noted
2. topical and parenteral abx (oxytetracycline)

Question 224

name 2 treatments that should NOT be done for sheep with footrot

Answer 224

1. do NOT trim
2. do NOT footbath

Question 225

name the foot condition in sheep

lesions start at coronary band, ulceration, hair loss, underrunning of the horn starting at the coronary band, whole hoof may slough, regrowth may result in misshapen claws;
Treponema, D. nodosus and F. necrophorum have been isolated from these lesions but role in pathogenesis is uncertain;
lambs and ewes can be affected;
NO involvement of interdigital skin

Answer 225

contagious ovine digital dermatitis (CODD)

Question 226

name the grade of contagious ovine digital dermatitis (CODD)

erosion/ulceration with or without hair loss can be seen at the level of the dorsal band

Answer 226

grade 1

Question 227

name the grade of contagious ovine digital dermatitis (CODD)

erosion/ulceration of the skin at the coronary band with partial (less than 50%) under-running of the hoof horn dorsally, abaxially and tending towards circumferential under-running

Answer 227

grade 2

Question 228

name the grade of contagious ovine digital dermatitis (CODD)

erosion/ulceration of the skin at the coronary band with 50-100% under-running of the hoof horn with possible hoof horn avulsion

Answer 228

grade 3

Question 229

healing foot with the horn beginning to regrow, but an active lesion still present

Answer 229

grade 4

Question 230

healed foot may have deformation of the regrown horn

Answer 230

grade 5

Question 231

are goats cows or sheep?

Answer 231

No! they’re different :)

Question 232

what is the current practice for treating contagious ovine digital dermatitis (CODD)

Answer 232

LA amoxycillin or macrolides

Question 233

name the foot condition in sheep

caused by hoof damage - excessive paring or foot bathing;
can be a sequalae to infectious conditions such as footrot or CODD

Answer 233

toe granuloma

Question 234

name 3 treatment options for toe granulomas in sheep

Answer 234

1. paring to relieve pressure
2. surgical removal
3. digit amputation

Question 235

name the foot condition of sheep

separation of the horn from the sole at the white line;
pain and lameness occurs if area becomes impacted;
damage from rough ground or poor hoof health due to nutritional issues are thought to predispose;
more prevalent in flocks with infectious lameness issues

Answer 235

Shelly hoof

Question 236

what is the treatment for shelly hoof in sheep

Answer 236

pare away loose horn

(assess nutrition)

Question 237

what is the target prevalence of lameness in sheep

Answer 237

< 2%

Question 238

name the 5 point plan for preventing infectious lameness in sheep

Answer 238

1. treat clinical cases promptly
2. avoid spread if infection on farm
3. quarantine incoming animals
4. cull badly or repeatedly affected animals
5. vaccinate against footrot biannual

Question 239

what is the only infectious foot disease in sheep that should be treated with a footbath

Answer 239

scald

Question 240

what is the vaccine that can be used at high risk periods (mainly spring and autumn) to help prevent infectious lameness in sheep

Answer 240

Footvax

(only licensed against footrot but also helps reduce risk of CODD)

Question 241

name 4 cases where digit amputation should be used as a salvage procedure to treat foot disease in sheep

Answer 241

1. septic pedal arthritis
2. intractable toe granuloma
3. swelling above coronary band unresponsive to Tx
4. evidence of bony involvement with pain

Question 242

why are goats so susceptible to poisoning?

Answer 242

they will eat anything

Question 243

name 3 clinical signs of rhododendron poisoning in goats

Answer 243

1. abdominal pain
2. depression
3. projectile vomiting

Question 244

name the 4 main causes of diarrhoea in young goat kids

Answer 244

1. dietary
2. viral
3. bacterial
4. Cryptosporidium

Question 245

name 3 main bacterial causes of diarrhoea in young goat kids

Answer 245

1. E. coli
2. Clostridium perfringens B, C
3. Salmonellosis

Question 246

name the 3 main causes of diarrhoea in older goat kids

Answer 246

1. GI parasitism
2. Coccidiosis
3. Enterotoxaemia

Question 247

what is the common presentation of coccidiosis in housed goat kids 3-7 weeks old?

Answer 247

watery, bloody scour with rapid dehydration

Question 248

name 4 clinical signs of enterotoxaemia (Clostridium perfringens type D) in goats

Answer 248

1. watery dysentery
2. recumbency
3. shock
4. death

Question 249

how often should goats be vaccinated against Clostridium with Lambivac?

Answer 249

every 6 months

Question 250

name 2 treatments for goats with parasitic gastroenteritis
(Teladorsagia/Trichostrongylus, Haemonchus)

Answer 250

1. fenbendazole
2. ivermectin (not milkers)

Question 251

which form of fascioliasis (Fasciola hepaticca) is more common in goats?

Answer 251

chronic form

Question 252

what is the treatment for chronic liver fluke in goats?

Answer 252

albendazole

Question 253

what is the treatment for acute liver fluke in goats?

Answer 253

triclabendazole

Question 254

what is the most important way to control Johne’s in goats?

Answer 254

test & cull

Question 255

what is the vaccine against Johne’s disease in goats and sheep?

Answer 255

Gudair

Question 256

name 2 common infectious causes of abortion in goats

Answer 256

1. Toxoplasmosis
2. Chlamydophila abortus

Question 257

what pathogen causes Pasteurellosis?

Answer 257

Mannheimia haemolytica

Question 258

how to treat pasteurellosis in goats?

Answer 258

Oxytetracycline LA +/- NSAIDs

Question 259

what medication for pasteurellosis is toxic to goats and canNOT be used?

Answer 259

Micotil

Question 260

name two types of lungworms that can infect goats

Answer 260

1. Dictyocaulus filaria
2. Muellerius capillaris

Question 261

which type of lungworm affects goat kids in late summer, esp SE England

Answer 261

Dictyocaulus filaria

Question 262

what type of lungworm affects adult goats?

Answer 262

Muellerius capillaris

Question 263

name the neonatal nervous disease of goats

epsilon toxin of Clostridium perfringens type D;
kids showing head pressing, tremors, ataxia and death;
control: vaccinate!
Tx: try Penicillin + steroid (avoid NSAIDs in kids)

Answer 263

Focal symmetrical encephalomalacia

Question 264

name the neonatal nervous disease of goats

bacterial, usually E. coli secondary to septicaemia;
Tx: florfenicol (abx), anti-inflammatories, fluids +/- anti-convulsants;
cause: thermal due to excessive use of disbudding iron

Answer 264

meningoencephalitis

Question 265

name the neonatal nervous disease of goats

togavirus transmitted by ticks;
sheep act as reservoirs

Answer 265

Louping Ill

Question 266

name the neonatal nervous disease of goats

Anglo Nubians;
autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease;
tremors, nystagmus, inability to stand, limb & joint defects

Answer 266

Beta mannosidosis

Question 267

what type of antibiotic could be used to treat a spinal abscess

Answer 267

amoxiclav

Question 268

name the nervous disease of goats aged 7mo-adult

usually over 2y old;
chronic weight loss/decreased milk yield;
then pruritis, hyperaesthesia and hind limb incoordination;
notifiable

Answer 268

Scrapie

Question 269

name the nervous disease of goats aged 7mo-adult

L. monocytogenes encephalitis;
can cause rapid death within 6h;
not always circling;
Tx: IV penicillin, anti-inflammatories, fluids;
ZOONOTIC (milk & cheese)

Answer 269

Listeriosis

Question 270

name the nervous disease of goats aged 7mo-adult

relative thiamine (vit B1) deficiency;
sietary change/prolonged scour/levamisole etc;
ruminal acidosis;
Tx: vit B1 (5-10 mg/kg) +/- anti-inflammatory + good roughage

Answer 270

CCN (cerebral cortical necrosis)

Question 271

what is the treatment for mastitis in goats?

Answer 271

cattle tubes (under cascade)

(none licensed in goats)

Question 273

what breed of goats commonly gets salivary cysts?
blockage of parotid/mandibular salivary;
painless fluid filled swelling

Answer 273

Anglo Nubians

Question 274

name the disease affecting goats and sheep

enlarged peripheral lymph nodes - hard swelling, rupture to release thick green/cream pus;
chronic weight loss;
visceral form - lungs/kidneys as result of haematogenous spread;
NO treatment

Answer 274

caseous lymphadenitis (CLA)

Question 275

what is the organism causing caseous lymphadenitis (CLA) in goats

Answer 275

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

Question 276

what event can be a big risk factor for transmitting caseous lymphadenitis (CLA) in sheep and goats?

Answer 276

shearing

Question 277

name the disease affecting goats

parapox virus;
more susceptible than sheep;
lesions around the mouth, teats and coronary band;
Abx in severe cases to control secondary bacterial infection;
Scabivax Forte vaccine is effective (vax in tail fold/inner thigh)

Answer 277

Orf

Question 278

name the species of biting lice affecting goats

Answer 278

Damalinia caprae

Question 279

name the species of sucking lice affecting goats

Answer 279

Linognathus stenopsis

Question 280

what is the treatment for lice in goats?

Answer 280

synthetic pyrethroid pour-ons

Question 281

what is the treatment for mange in goats?

Answer 281

endectocide (2 doses or long acting)

Question 282

name the disease affecting goats

lentivirus closely related to Maedi Visna Virus;
carriers infected for life;
transmission: mainly via milk/colostrum;
clinical sings:
1. arthritis is the most common presentation - gradual loss of condition leading to emaciation
2. encephalitis
3. pneumonia
4. mastitis

Answer 282

Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis (CAE)

Question 283

name the contagious cause of abortion in goats

not solid immunity - remain infected, may abort again;
infection via milk - ZOONOTIC!

Answer 283

Toxoplasmosis

Question 284

name the contagious cause of abortion in goats

abort any stage of gestation;
infection and abortion in same pregnancy possible;
carrier animals (kids born to infected does);
vaccination not licensed

Answer 284

Chlamydophila abortus

Question 285

name the disease of goats

fluid accumulation in uterus with presence of persistant CL;
following cycle with no pregnancy or after embryonic death and resorption;
“cloudburst” - release of fluid;
diagnosis: U/S scan, high progesterone and oestrone sulphate in milk or plasma

Answer 285

hydrometra

Question 286

what is the treatment for hydrometra in goats?

Answer 286

1mL Estrumate and oxytocin 2-3d later

Question 287

can you give xylazine IV to goats and sheep?

Answer 287

NO
do NOT give Alpha-2’s IV to small ruminants, they WILL die - give IM

Question 288

name 4 clinical signs that many respiratory diseases in sheep present with

Answer 288

1. incr resp rate and effort
2. depression
3. incr nasal discharge
4. fever

Question 289

name 5 significant signs of respiratory disease in sheep that can help with diagnosis

Answer 289

1. resp character
2. coughing
3. nasal discharge
4. dyspnoea
5. adventitious sounds

Question 290

name the 3 pathogens that can be the cause of Pasteurellosis in sheep?

Answer 290

1. Mannheimia haemolytica
2. Bibersteinia trehalosi
3. Pasteurella multocida

Question 291

name 3 diseases that can be caused in sheep by Mannheimia haemolytica

Answer 291

1. pneumonia in growing lambs/adults
2. septicaemia in young lambs
3. mastitis in ewes

Question 292

what sign is often seen first with M. haemolytica in sheep?

Answer 292

sudden deaths

Question 293

name 5 clinical signs of pneumonic acute pasteurellosis in sheep

Answer 293

1. sudden onset anorexia and dullness
2. pyrexia
3. hyperpnoea/dyspnoea
4. serous ocular/nasal discharges
5. frothy fluid at mouth terminally

Question 294

name 3 pathological lesions of pneumonic hyperacute pasteurellosis in sheep

Answer 294

1. ecchymotic haemorrhages over throat and ribs
2. lungs swollen, purple-red
3. pink stained froth in airways

Question 295

name 5 clinical signs of M. haemolytica septicaemic pasteurellosis in sheep

Answer 295

1. sudden death (lambs up to 12wks)
2. depressed
3. injected mucus membranes
4. marked dyspnoea
5. most pyrexic

Question 296

name 4 pathological lesions seen with septicaemic pasteurellosis in sheep

Answer 296

1. pleurisy and pericarditis
2. petechiae in myocardium, spleen, liver, kidney (any septicaemia)
3. enlarged LNs
4. hepatic fatty change

Question 297

how to diagnose M. haemolytica in sheep?

Answer 297

PM findings
(NOT swabs/serology in live animal - commensal)

Question 298

name 3 treatments for clinical cases of M. haemolytica in sheep

Answer 298

1. oxytetracycline
2. tilmicosin
3. NSAID

Question 299

name 3 pasteurella vaccines (Intervet)

Answer 299

1. heptavac P plus
2. ovivac P plus
3. ovipast plus

Question 300

name the most likely cause of systemic pasteurellosis

oct, nov, dec;
most commonly diagnosed cause of sudden death in lambs July-Dec;
movement onto rap, turnips or improved pastures;
outbreaks start with sudden deaths;
commensal bacteria;
GI erosions, septicaemic disease;
other conditions (cobalt deficiency) may predispose

Answer 300

Bibersteinia trehalosi

Question 301

name 5 pathological lesions seen with systemic pasteurellosis caused by Bibersteinia trehalosi in sheep

Answer 301

1. haemorrhages
2. swollen lungs with haemorrhages (no congestion)
3. necrotic erosions
4. liver congestion
5. necrotic infarcts

Question 302

acute respiratory diseases in sheep are dominated by what pathogen?

Answer 302

Mannheimia haemolytica

Question 303

name the acute viral infection in sheep

most infections subclinical or mild;
most infected by 12mo old;
maintained by transient or persistent infections;
predispose to infection with M. haemolytica;
diagnosis is rarely attempted;
can be given IN vaccine to control

Answer 303

PI3
(parainfluenza virus type 3)

Question 304

name the acute viral infection in sheep

infection common in young lambs;
transient or persistent inapparent infection;
enteritis;
vax in Hungary

Answer 304

adenovirus

Question 305

name the respiratory disease fo sheep

non-progressive chronic pneumonia of housed sheep under 1y old;
caused by Mycoplasma ovipneumoniae;
PI3 and M. haemolytica are predisposing factors;
growing lambs, chronic soft cough, growht rates affected

Answer 305

atypical pneumonia

Question 306

name 2 pathological/histological lesions associated with atypical pneumonia in sheep

Answer 306

1. red-brown or grey consolidation of apical and cardiac lobes
2. lymphocytic cuffing pneumonia

Question 307

what is the treatment for atypical pneumonia in sick lambs

Answer 307

oxytetracycline OR macrolide

Question 308

name 3 important ways to control atypical pneumonia in sheep

Answer 308

1. improve ventilation
2. reduce stocking densities
3. avoid sharing airspace with older sheep

Question 309

name the cause of parasitic bronchitis

most pathogenic;
deaths uncommon;
outbreaks of coughing and weight loss (late autumn/early winter);
may trigger secondary pasteurellosis;
L1 passed in faeces, develop to L3 on pasture, adult worms in bronchi

Answer 309

Dictyocaulus filaria

Question 310

name 3 causes of parasitic bronchitis in sheep

Answer 310

1. Dictyocaulus filaria
2. Protostrongylus rufescens
3. Muellerius capillaris

Question 311

name the pathology seen witrh Muellerius capillaris in sheep

Answer 311

green/grey sub-pleural nodules in dorsal/caudal lung lobes

Question 312

name the pathology seen with Protostrongylus rufescens in sheep

Answer 312

small yellow/grey granulomas in the caudal lobes

Question 313

name 2 clinical signs of chronic suppurative pneumonia in sheep

Answer 313

1. weight loss/ill thrift in individual animals
2. change in resp character

Question 314

what is the treatment for chronic suppurative pneumonia in valuable animals

Answer 314

4wks procaine penicillin

Question 315

name the repiratory disease of sheep

texels and suffolks;
often about 2y old;
lat summer/autumn (breeding season, feeding);
conformation/trauma/dust/infection;
oedema, respiratory distress;
mucosal ulceration leading to arytenoid abscessation

Answer 315

laryngeal chondritis

Question 316

name the 4 main clinical signs of laryngeal chondritis in sheep

Answer 316

1. acute onset severe respiratory distress
2. inspiratory stridor and effort
3. salivation
4. cyanosis

Question 317

what are the 2 treatments for laryngeal chondritis in sheep

Answer 317

1. 20mg dexamethasone IV
2. 7-10d abx (tulathromycin, synulox, micotil)

Question 318

name the respiratory disease in sheep

1-3d after bloom dips;
acute pneumonia;
severe dyspnoea;
high mortality rate;
severe red/purple consolidation;
diagnosis confirmed on histopathology;
symptomatic treatment, wash fleece

Answer 318

phenolic dip aspiration

Question 319

name the respiratory disease in sheep

signs: sneezing and gadding, rhinitis, head shaking, excitability;
+/- blindness, pneumonia, death;
adults deposit L1 in nasal cavity, moult to L3 in sinuses, sneezed out after 40d, pupate in soil for 17-70d;
2 generations during summer

Answer 319

oestrus ovis
(nasal bot fly)

Question 321

name the 5 main reasons camelids are kept in the UK

Answer 321

1. breeding for sale
2. companionship
3. fibre production
4. posh lawn mower
5. guard animals for sheep

Question 322

what are male alpacas/llamas called

Answer 322

machos

Question 323

what are femal alpacas/llamas called?

Answer 323

hembras

Question 324

what are young alpacas/llamas called?

Answer 324

cria

Question 325

what is the mature weight of an alpaca

Answer 325

55-90kg

Question 326

what is the mature weight of a llama

Answer 326

110-250kg

Question 327

what type of digestion do camelids have?

Answer 327

fore-gut fermenters

(ruminant analogues)

Question 328

how many compartments does a camelids stomach have?

Answer 328

3 compartments

Question 329

which ruminant stomach is compartment C1 of the camelid stomach analogous to?

Answer 329

rumen

Question 330

which ruminant stomach is compartment C2 of the camelid stomach analogous to?

Answer 330

reticulum

Question 331

starvation of this many days may cause death of bacteria and protozoa in compartments C1-C2 of the camelid stomach

Answer 331

3-5d

Question 332

what should camelid nutrition be made up of?

Answer 332

grass & hay sufficient

Question 333

what type of food should be avoided in camelids?

Answer 333

concentrates (esp those for monogastric animals)

Question 334

what is the normal rectal temperature for alpacas

Answer 334

37.5-28.9°C

Question 335

what is the nirmal heart rate for an alpaca

Answer 335

60-90 bpm

Question 336

what is the normal timing for gut contractions for alpacas

Answer 336

3-4 per min

Question 337

where to take a blood sample from an alpaca

Answer 337

right jugular vein in lower third of neck

(more ventral than in other species)

Question 338

at what age do alpacas become sexually mature

Answer 338

1 year of age

Question 339

what percent of mature body weight should camelids be at for breeding

Answer 339

60%

Question 340

when is the highest conception rate for alpacas

Answer 340

20-30d post parturition

Question 341

what type of ovulators are alpacas?

Answer 341

induced ovulators

Question 342

how long is alpaca gestation?

Answer 342

340d +/- 25d

Question 343

what do alpacas do 7 days post-mating which can help with pregnancy diagnosis

Answer 343

“spit off”

Question 344

how long is stage 1 of labour in alpacas

Answer 344

1.5-2h

Question 345

how long should stage 2 of labour in alpacas last?

Answer 345

no more than 30 min

Question 346

foetal membranes should be expelled within how long following parturition

Answer 346

6h

Question 347

how long should it take a healthy cria to sit up

Answer 347

within 10min

Question 348

how long should it take a healthy cria to stand

Answer 348

within 1h

Question 349

how long should it take a healthy cria to nurse

Answer 349

within 3-4h

Question 350

when should healthy cria be weaned

Answer 350

6mo

Question 351

what should be used to treat endoparasitism in alpacas

Answer 351

sheep anthelmintics

Question 352

name 2 biochemistry signs of liver fluke in alpacas

Answer 352

1. decr albumin
2. incr GGT

Question 353

what to treat liver fluke with in alpacas

Answer 353

1. clorsulon 7mg/kg PO twice every 60d
2. Albendazole 10-20mg/kg PO (NOT for crias due to potential toxicity)

Question 354

name the cause of coccidiosis in alpacas

Answer 354

Eimeria macusaniensis (‘I-mac’)

Question 355

what biochem sign will be seen in alpacas with coccidiosis

Answer 355

hypoalbuminaemia
(normal PCV)

Question 356

how to treat coccidiosis in alpacas

Answer 356

sulfadimethoxine for 5d

Question 357

what does a normal alpaca RBC look like?

Answer 357

flattened oval RBC

Question 358

how to diagnose Mycoplasma haemolamina in alpacas?

Answer 358

Wrights Geimsa stain on fresh blood smear

Question 359

how to treat Mycoplasma haemolamina in alpacas?

Answer 359

oxytetracycline 15d

(does not clear)

Question 360

what might induce Mycoplasma haemolamina in alpacas?

Answer 360

steroid treatment

Question 361

what is the most common pruritic skin condition in alpacas?

Answer 361

chorioptic mange

Question 362

how to treat mange in alpacas?

Answer 362

ivermectin injection every 10-15d for 4 doses

Question 363

how to treat biting lice in alpacas?

Answer 363

fipronal

Question 364

how to treat sucking lice in alpacas?

Answer 364

ivermectin

Question 365

how to diagnose chorioptic mange in alpacas?

Answer 365

tape strip in multiple areas

(live in colonies)

Question 366

what colour alpacas are more susceptible to hypovitaminosis D?

Answer 366

black animals

Question 367

what is the standard for preventing hypovitaminosis D in alpacas?

Answer 367

prophylactic vit D injections

(esp in winter)

Question 369

name 6 results of hypovitaminosis D in alpacas

Answer 369

1. ill thrift
2. poor coat
3. poor repro performance
4. osteoporosis
5. angular limb deformities
6. pathological fracture

Question 370

name the 3 main causes of anaemia in alpacas

Answer 370

1. GI parasitism (Haemonchus)
2. mycoplasma haemolamae
3. acute fluke

Question 371

how to treat gastric ulcers in alpacas?

Answer 371

injectable omeprazole

Question 372

how to diagnose tuberculosis in alpacas

Answer 372

enerflex test on blood (Ab ELISA + lateral flow Ab test)

(must request permission to test from APHA)

Question 373

name 5 common causes of hypoalbuminaemia in alpacas

Answer 373

1. GI nematodes
2. chronic fluke
3. coccidiosis
4. chronic liver disease
5. Johne’s disease

Question 374

name the pathogen causing alpaca fever

Answer 374

Streptococcus zooepidemicus

Question 375

name the 3 main clinical signs of alpaca fever

Answer 375

1. anorexia
2. recumbency
3. pyrexia (41°C)

(death in 4-8d)

Question 376

how to treat alpaca fever

Answer 376

penicillin

Question 377

what is the triple anaesthetic combo used in alpacas?
good sedation, recumbenxy & analgesia

Answer 377

xylazine, ketamine, butorphanol

Question 378

this is the effort to breed sheep who limit the survival of worm parasites;
positive effects only when animal is 4mo+

Answer 378

host resistance

Question 379

this is the ability of the host to tolerate a worm burden;
environment can be manipulated to support this

Answer 379

host resilience

Question 380

what factor influences host resistance?

Answer 380

genetics

Question 381

name 5 factors that influence host resilience

Answer 381

1. nutrition (CP)
2. health status
3. parasite load
4. genetics
5. grazing management

Question 382

name 6 common clinical signs of nematodes/worms

Answer 382

1. ill thrift
2. weight loss
3. scour
4. lethargy/dullness
5. pale MMs
6. sudden death

Question 383

name 3 differentials for parasitic gastroenteritis (PGE) in lambs at pasture (diarrhoea 3-6mo of age)

Answer 383

1. nutritional
2. coccidiosis
3. salmonella

Question 384

name the 3 broad categories of nematodes in sheep

Answer 384

1. haemonchus
2. nematodirus
3. lungworms

Question 385

name the neatode larvae stage

remain in faeces, feeding on bacteria

Answer 385

L1 & L2

Question 386

name the neatode larvae stage

remain sheath, can’t feed;
survives on lipid stores;
killed off by UK light;
survive unfavourable environments better;
infective stage

Answer 386

L3

Question 387

name the nematode

warmer temps (>20C);
>5000 eggs per day;
blood feeding adults;
can also hypobiose;
delayed immunity: 6mo old, adults can ‘self cure’

Answer 387

Haemonchus contortus
(Barber’s pole worm)

Question 388

this something done by Haemonchus nematodes;
interrupting larval development at L4 stage to survive the winter;
resume development and become egg-laying adults in spring

Answer 388

Hypobiosis

Question 389

what is the main clinical sign of Haemonchus contortus (Barber’s pole worm) in sheep?

Answer 389

anaemia

(usually NO diarrhoea)

Question 390

name the nematode

L3 is developed in the egg, hatching correlated to weather pattern: cold stap (<10C) followed by temperatures 10-17C (usually april-june);
severe outbreaks when lambs are 6-12wks;
transmission from lamb to lamb!

Answer 390

Nematodirus battus

(& N. filicollis)

Question 391

name 5 clinical signs of Nematodirus battus in lambs

Answer 391

1. acute scour
2. loss appetite
3. dehydration
4. painful abdomen
5. sudden death

Question 392

name the nematode affecting sheep

most common species in PGE;
hyperplastic gastritis leads to damaged gastric glands leading to hypoproteaemia and hypoalbuminaemia;
hypobiosis in abomasum over winter;
causes dehydration, permanent damage;
related to osertagia in cattle

Answer 392

Telodorsagia circumcincta
(Brown stomach worm)

Question 393

when do cattle acquire immunity to Cooperia?

Answer 393

within 1 year

Question 394

when do cattle acquire immunity to Ostertagia?

Answer 394

within 2 years

Question 395

name the type of Ostertagia disease in cattle

dairy calves 2mo after turn out, beef calves in autumn when weaned;
appetitie loss, rapid weight loss, watery scour, high morbidity, low mortality;
typical PGE

Answer 395

Type 1 Ostertagia

Question 396

name the type of Ostertagia disease in cattle

less common;
larvae can go into hypobiosis, L4 larvae become dormant ingastric glands;
damage to abomasum can be more severe;
ill-thrift, weight loss, watery scour, sub-mandibular oedema

Answer 396

Type 2 Ostertagiosis

Question 397

name 3 differential diagnoses for type 1 ostertagiosis in cattle

Answer 397

1. coccidiosis
2. Salmonellosis
3. BVDV

Question 398

name 2 differential diagnoses for type 2 Ostertagiosis in cattle

Answer 398

1. chronic liver fluke
2. metabolic acidosis

Question 399

name the nematode affecting cattle

older animals are carriers;
weather & pasture management have enormous impact on hatching of eggs and larval dispersal;
warm (20C), humid, wet weather is optimal;
L1-L3 in 1wk;
larvae is short-lived if weather is hot and dry;
causes tachypnoea and coughing

Answer 399

Lung worm - Dictyocaulus viviparus

Question 400

how long does immunity to lungworm larvae last in cattle?

Answer 400

4-6mo

Question 401

how long does immunity to adult lungworms last in cattle?

Answer 401

2 years

Question 402

what chart can be used to detect anaemia?

Answer 402

FAMACHA charts

Question 403

why might a FEC for suspected Type 2 ostertagiosis be a false negative?

Answer 403

encysted (hypobiosed) larvae

Question 404

levels of this in serum plasma can correlate to abomasal pathology

Answer 404

pepsinogen

Question 405

this is when the host limits parasite burden;
lower number of parasites = lower pasture contamination

Answer 405

parasite resistance

Question 406

this is when the host withstands parasite burden;
continue to grow, maintain condition, lactate etc in spite of worm burden;
so, no reduction in parasite burden/pasture contamination

Answer 406

parasite resilience

Question 407

which would lead to lower levels of egg excretion in the hosts faeces?
parasite resistance or resilience?

Answer 407

parasite resistance

Question 408

how many grazing seasons does it take for sheep to develop acquired immunity to nematode gut worms

Answer 408

1 grazing season
(only 3-4wks for Nematodirus)

Question 409

how many grazing seasons does it take for cattle to develop acquired immunity to nematode gut worms

Answer 409

two grazing seasons

Question 410

when does sheep immunity to nematodes wane?

Answer 410

during peri-parturient rise

Question 411

how long does cattle immunity to D. viviparous last?

Answer 411

6 months

Question 412

what type of nematode is the only currently successful vaccine for?

Answer 412

lungworm

(live, given orally, lasts 6mo)

Question 413

name 3 limitations around use of live lungworm vaccine

Answer 413

1. compliance with vaccine protol
2. can’t use at same time as wormer
3. protection limited in face of very high challenge

Question 414

what is the Lungworm vaccine protocol?

Answer 414

8wks old+, booster in 4wks
all while animal is NOT out at grass

(ongoing exposure at pasture then required for adequate immunity)

Question 415

what type of drugs are anthelmintics?

Answer 415

POM-VPS

(vet, pharmacist, SQP can prescribe)

Question 416

these are drugs which either paralyse or kill heminths without damaging the host;
often used to reduce the worm burden (prophylaxis rather than cure)

Answer 416

anthelmintics

Question 417

what anthelmintic drug colour group are Benzimadazoles (Fenbendazole) part of?

Answer 417

white

Question 418

what anthelmintic drug colour group is Levamisole part of?

Answer 418

yellow

Question 419

what anthelmintic drug colour group are Macrocytic Lactones (moxidectin) part of?

Answer 419

clear

Question 420

what anthelmintic drug colour group is Monopantel part of?

Answer 420

orange

Question 421

what anthelmintic drug colour group are ML & Derquantel part of?

Answer 421

purple

Question 422

which colour of anthelmintics are the only ones effective against tapeworms (and used to treat adult fluke)

Answer 422

white
(Benzimadazoles - fenbendazole)

Question 423

which two colours of anthelmintics can treat encysted nematodes?

Answer 423

1. white (benzimadazoles - fenbendazole)
2. clear (macrocytic lactones - moxidectin)

Question 424

name two flukicides (anthelmintics) that are active against Haemonchus bc they are bound to plasma albumin

Answer 424

1. Nitroxynil
2. Closantel

Question 425

this is the heritable reduction (by the parasite!) in the sensitivity of a parasite population to the action of an anthelmintic

Answer 425

anthelmintic resistance

Question 426

name 4 risk factors for anthelmintic resistance

Answer 426

1. over dose
2. under dosing
3. refugia
4. buying in worm resistant parasites

Question 427

historically, where is the biggest risk for liver fluke in the UK?

Answer 427

Western UK
(wet and humid)

Question 428

what is the definitive host of liverfluke

Answer 428

ruminants

Question 429

if the weather is below this temp, fluke eggs don’t hatch and snail development is halted

Answer 429

< 10°C

Question 430

how long does it take miracidia (liverfluke larval stage) in 10-15°C

Answer 430

6 weeks

Question 431

which liverfluke larval stage is released from the snail in moist, slightly acidic marshy soils?

Answer 431

cercaria

Question 432

which liverfluke larval stage can overwinter and infect ruminants 10-12wks post ingestion?

Answer 432

metacercaria

Question 433

what is the species of snail that is necessary for the lifecycle of Fasciola hepatica?

Answer 433

Galba truncatula

Question 434

what type of immune resposes do ruminants have for early acute fluke migration?

Answer 434

Th1

Question 435

what type of immune responses do ruminants have for acute-chronic stages of liverfluke?

Answer 435

Th2

Question 436

what co-infection can ruminants have due to migrating juvenile liverflukes?

Answer 436

Black’s disease
(Clostridium novyii)

Question 437

what is the only type of fascioliasis that cattle get?

Answer 437

chronic

(sheep get acute, sub-acute & chronic)

Question 438

name 4 clinical signs of acute fasciolosis

Answer 438

1. sudden death
2. lethargy
3. anaemia
4. submandibular oedema (bottle jaw)

Question 439

what months is acute faciolosis most commonly seen in sheep?

Answer 439

July-December

Question 440

what months is subacute fasciolosis most commonly seen in sheep?

Answer 440

October-January

Question 441

name 4 clinical signs of subacute fasciolosis in sheep?

Answer 441

1. rapid weight loss
2. anaemia
3. submandibular oedema
4. death

Question 442

what months is chronic fasciolosis most commonly seen in sheep?

Answer 442

December-April

Question 443

name 5 clinical signs of chronic liver fluke in sheep

Answer 443

1. ill-thrift
2. anaemia
3. submandibular oedema
4. ascites/scour
5. secondary photosensitisation

Question 444

name the 2 main clinical signs of chronic fasciolosis in cattle
(often sub-clinical)

Answer 444

1. progressive weight loss (“ill thrift”)
2. reduced production

Question 445

name the fluke species present in the Western Isles of Scotland;
disease with mass infection, liver condemns, photosensitisation;
affects sheep

Answer 445

Dicrocoelium dentriticum

Question 446

name the species causing Rumen fluke/paramphistomes ;
similar lifecycle to liver fluke;
adults in rumen likely harmless, but juveniles burden in duodenum causing ill-thrift and foetid black scour;
youngstock affected

Answer 446

Calicophoron daubneyi

Question 447

name the fluke diagnostic test

not specific for liver fluke, not recommended as a stand-alone test, requires supporting evidence;
can be used any time of year but requires careful interpretations;
for fluke ages 2-12+ wks

Answer 447

liver/bile duct enzymes

Question 448

name the fluke diagnostic test

earliest reliable indicator (2-4wks post-infection) specific for fluke;
can stay positive even after successful treatment;
best time to use from mid-summer onwards, best in young first season grazing animals (sentinel lambs) ;
for fluke age 2-12+wks

Answer 448

serum/blood ELISA

Question 449

name the fluke diagnostic test

second earliest indicator (6-7wks post-infection);
good indicator of treatment outcome;
best time from late summer onwards, depending on the weather, can be used in young & older animals;
for fluke ages 6-12+wks

Answer 449

Faecal or coproantigen (cELISA)

Question 450

name the fluke diagnostic test

latest indicator (10-12wks post-infection);
works well as composite test, good monitoring tool;
best used from autumn onwards, depending on the weather, can be used on young & older animals;
for fluke ages 10-12+wks

Answer 450

faecal sedimentation

Question 451

name the only anthelmintic that can treat early immature (2wks) Fasciola hepatica

Answer 451

Triclabendazole

Question 452

name the 4 anthelmintics that can treat immature (6-8wks) Fasciola hepatica

Answer 452

1. Triclabendazole
2. Rafoxanide
3. Closantel
4. Nitroxynil

Question 453

name the 7 anthelmintics that can be used to treat adult Fasciola hepatica

Answer 453

1. Triclabendazole
2. Rafoxanide
3. Closantel
4. Nitroxynil
5. Clorsulon
6. Oxclozanide
7. Albendazole

Question 454

name the only 3 anthelmintics that should be used to treat Fasciola hepatica in dairy cattle
(50 day milk WHP)

Answer 454

1. Albendazole
2. Oxyclozanide
3. Triclabendazole

Question 455

name 2 ways to diagnose triclabendazole resistance

Answer 455

1. Faecal Egg Count Reduction Test (FECRT)
2. Coproantigen reduction test

Question 456

when doing a coproantigen reduction test to look for triclabendazole resistance, how much should positivity drop by to show that triclabendazole is still effective?

Answer 456

at least 90%

Question 457

what is the definitive host for all significant species of cestodes?

(except Monezia expansa and Taenia saginata)

Answer 457

canids

Question 458

what is the intermediate host for Monezia expansa (cestode)

Answer 458

pasture mite

Question 458

name the 2 cestode species that do NOT have canids as the definitive host

Answer 458

1. Monezia expansa
2. Taenia saginata

Question 459

what is the definitive host for Monezia expansa (cestode)

Answer 459

sheep

Question 460

what is the intermediate host for Taenia saginata (cestode)

Answer 460

cattle

Question 461

what is the definitive host for Taenia saginata (cestode)

Answer 461

humans

Question 462

what should dogs be wormed with every 3 months to control cestodes in sheep

Answer 462

praziquantel

Question 463

how long post-ingestion are clinical signs of Taenia multiceps seen in sheep?

Answer 463

2-6mo

Question 464

name 3 clinical signs of Taenia multiceps in sheep

Answer 464

1. blindness, proprioceptive defects
2. depression, head pressing
3. localised softening of skull

Question 465

name 5 cestodes in sheep

Answer 465

1. Monezia expansa
2. Taenia hydatigena
3. Taenia multiceps
4. Taenia ovis
5. Echinococcus granulosus

Question 466

name 3 cestodes in cattle

Answer 466

1. Taenia saginata
2. Taenia hydatigena
3. Echinococcus granulosus

Question 467

name 3 factors that can be manipulated to have better outcomes in parasite control

Answer 467

1. host
2. environment
3. parasite

Question 468

rank the pasture risk for sheep nematodes

Spring:
ewes and lambs in the previous year
goats the previous year;
store/ewe lambs the previous autumn/winter ;
for Nematodirus carried ewes and lambs in the previous spring

Answer 468

High

Question 469

rank the pasture risk for sheep nematodes

Spring:
grazed only by adult non-lactating sheep the previous year;
grazed by ewes and lambs previous spring but then conserved and aftermath not grazed by sheep

Answer 469

Medium

Question 470

rank the pasture risk for sheep nematodes

Spring:
new lets/seeds or forage crops;
cattle or conservation only in the previous year

Answer 470

low

Question 471

rank the pasture risk for sheep nematodes

Summer:
ewes and lambs in the spring

Answer 471

High

Question 472

rank the pasture risk for sheep nematodes

Summer:
adult non-lactating sheep only in the spring;
cattle or conservation in the spring

Answer 472

medium

Question 473

rank the pasture risk for sheep nematodes

Summer:
cattle or conservation only in the first half of the grazing season;
forage crops or arable by-products

Answer 473

low

Question 474

rank the pasture risk for sheep nematodes

late season/autumn:
ewes and lambs all season

Answer 474

high

Question 475

rank the pasture risk for sheep nematodes

late season/autumn:
grazed by cattle since mid-season;
grazed by mature dry ewes since weaning mid-season

Answer 475

medium

Question 476

rank the pasture risk for sheep nematodes

late season/autumn:
cattle or conservation only in the first half of the grazing season;
forage crops or arable by-products

Answer 476

low

Question 477

rank the pasture risk for cattle lungworm

Spring:
grazed by first-grazing season calves in previous year;
grazed by lungworm-infected cattle in the previous year

Answer 477

high

Question 478

rank the pasture risk for cattle lungworm

spring:
grazed only by cows or yearling cattle with no history of hoose inthe previous year

Answer 478

medium

Question 479

rank the pasture risk for cattle lungworm

spring:
new pasure;
grazed by sheep or used for hay or silage only in the previous year

Answer 479

low

Question 480

rank the pasture risk for cattle lungworm

mid-summer:
grazed by first grazing season calves in the spring

Answer 480

high

Question 481

rank the pasture risk for cattle lungworm

mid-summer:
grazed by cows and yearling cattle with no history of hoose

Answer 481

medium

Question 482

rank the pasture risk for cattle lungworm

mid-summer:
grazed by sheep or after grass (used only for silage or hay in the first half of the season) i.e. never grazed in current grazing season

Answer 482

low

Question 483

this is an algorithm which calculates individual animals target weight every month;
animal treated if not reaching weight targets

Answer 483

targeted selective treatment (TST)