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Y4 Farm Animal > baaa > Flashcards

baaa Flashcards

SH01-16

1
Q

this is the number of lambs born and surviving until a defined event (e.g. marking or weaning);
optimising this is critical to profitability in any production system

A

lambing percentage

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2
Q

name 3 factors that can determine lambing percentage

A
  1. mating period
  2. late pregnancy
  3. lambing
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3
Q

80-90% of lamb deaths occur during this period;
deaths within the first week of birth

A

perinatal lamb mortality

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4
Q

name 3 muti-factorial reasons for perinatal lamb mortality

A
  1. poor ewe nutrition
  2. dystocia
  3. poor lamb nutrition
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5
Q

undernutrition of the ewe during mid-pregnancy will cause this
leading to poor oxygen, nutrient and electrolyte transfer & low birth weights

A

poor placental development

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6
Q

poor nutrition for the ewe in the last 6 weeks of gestation can cause these 2 results

A
  1. hypoglycaemic lambs
  2. poor colostrum production
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7
Q

birth weights of lamb outwith this range are at the highest risk of mortality

A

3-5.5 kg

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8
Q

how much colostrum do lambs need within the first 4h of life?

A

50 mL/kg bodyweight

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9
Q

name 7 maternal factors contributing to lamb starvation

A
  1. genotype
  2. inexperience
  3. poor nutrition
  4. dystocia
  5. concurrent disease
  6. mastitis
  7. multiple lambs
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10
Q

name 6 lamb factors contributing to starvation

A
  1. genotype
  2. multiple litter mates
  3. birth stress/trauma
  4. prenatal malnutrition
  5. hypothermia
  6. infectious disease
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11
Q

name 4 management practices to ensure adequate nutrition to minimise perinatal lamb losses

A
  1. ultrasound data
  2. body condition scoring
  3. ration analysis
  4. metabolic profiles
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12
Q

name 4 management practices to avoid dystocia to minimise perinatal lamb losses

A
  1. ewe and ram selection
  2. use of keel marks and scanning data
  3. feed management
  4. good stockmanship
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13
Q

what percent of lamb growth occurs in the last 6 weeks of pregnancy?

A

75%

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14
Q

name the type of forage

higher energy, good management during storage, problems with listeriosis

A

grass silage

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15
Q

name the type of forage

quality variable, allow for high wastage rate when feeding straw, get an analysis done

A

hay and straw

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16
Q

how much trough space per ewe is required if restricted access?

A

18 in (45cm)

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17
Q

how much water do ewes in late pregnancy require daily?

A

5-10L

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18
Q

name 2 ways to help increase intakes of poor quality silage in sheep

A
  1. put molasses on top of forage
  2. add SBP or draff to ration
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19
Q

what is often the main limiting factor of colostrum production in sheep

A

protein

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20
Q

when should body condition scoring be done on pregnant ewes

A

4-6 weeks before lambing

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21
Q

when should blood sampling of pregnant ewes be done to see what they think of their diet?

A

3-4 weeks befpre the start of lambing

(at least 5 ewes in each group)

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22
Q
A
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23
Q

name the 4 things pregnant ewes should be grouped according to

A
  1. lambing date
  2. condition score
  3. scan results
  4. age
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24
Q

name the 5 metabolites that should be analysed in blood samples from pregnant ewes to assess nutrition

A
  1. BHB
  2. urea-N
  3. albumin
  4. magnesium
  5. phosphate
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25
Q

what is the target beta-hydroxybutyrate threshold for ewes not scanned

A

0.8 mmol/L

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26
Q

what is the target beta-hydroxybutyrate threshold for ewes if scanned and fed according to lamb number

A

1.0 mmol/L

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27
Q

what is the UK target for neonatal disease in lambs

A

< 7%

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28
Q

name the neonatal lamb disease

seen in lambs 1-3d old;
lethargic, excess salivation and distension of the abdomen;
unwilling to suckle;
caused by E. coli, acquired from environment

A

watery mouth

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29
Q

name the 5 parts of treatment for watery mouth in lambs

A
  1. Flunixin or meloxicam IV
  2. oral electrolytes
  3. IV fluids
  4. soapy enemas
  5. systemic abx
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30
Q

name the neonatal lamb disease

caused by Clostridium perfringens type B;
spradic cases;
lack of colostral Ab intake;
initially lambs up to 1 wk old, can get in older lambs too;
clinical signs: sudden death, lethargy, tenesmus, vocalisation

A

lamb dysentery

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31
Q

what sign of lamb dysentery will be seen on PM

A

haemorrhagic enteritis

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32
Q

name the cause of neonatal lamb enteritis

seen in lamb less than 4d old (rel. uncommon);
K99 adherence pili facilitates attachment to the intestinal mucosa;
toxin produced which interferes with water and electrolyte transport leading to severe watery, brown diarrhoea

A

enterotoxigenic E. coli

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33
Q

name 4 bacteraemias seen in neonatal lambs

A
  1. joint ill (polyarthritis)
  2. navel ill (omphalophlebitis)
  3. meningitis
  4. endocarditis
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34
Q

name the neonatal lamb disease

can be seen in lambs as young as 5d old;
sudden onset lameness;
pain, heat and swelling of several joints;
poor suckling and ill-thrift

A

joint ill

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35
Q

name 3 PM signs of joint ill in neonatal lambs

A
  1. pus in joints
  2. thickened synovial membranes
  3. erosion of the articular surfaces
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36
Q

name the neonatal lamb disease

rel. common in young lambs;
more common in male lambs;
results from bacteraemia or infection of the umbilical vessels and urachus from a dirty environment;
can remained localised or spread leading to peritonitis, liver abscesses

A

navel ill

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37
Q

how to prevent navel ill in neonatal lambs?

A

dip navel in strong iodine soon after birth

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38
Q

name the neonatal lamb disease

navel infection with Fusobacterium necrophorum;
leads to white spots (abscesses) on the liver;
can spread to lungs and joints

A

hepatic necrobacillosis

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39
Q

name the neonatal lamb disease

typically affects lambs 2-4 wks old;
lack of suckle reflex, weak, congestion of the sclera, opistotonus

A

meningitis

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40
Q

name the neonatal lamb disease

most commonly seen in lambs 1-4mo old;
clinical signs will vary depending on location of the abscess;
can be treated with long course of penicillin

A

spinal abscess

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41
Q

name the neonatal lamb disease

can result in still births or weak lambs;
reluctant to feed;
sudden onset semi-paralysis;
typically die from respiratory failure, starvation or heart failure;
vit E and selenium deficiencies

A

congenital white muscle disease

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42
Q

name the neonatal lamb disease

sporadically seen in lambs 2-4wks old or 2-4mo old;
aetiology unknown;
lambs depressed, wont suck but appear thirsty;
empty abdomen, normal rectal temp;
soft faeces with perineal staining;
blood urea and creatinine parameters raised

A

nephrosis

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43
Q

what is ill thrift?

A

low body condition

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44
Q

what type of blood panel should be avoided in farm practice because it is an unnecessary test and cost?

A

biochemistry

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45
Q

name the 5 main values in blood to use for screening tests in farm practice

A
  1. total protein
  2. albumin
  3. globulin
  4. GGT
  5. GLDH
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46
Q

what is the organism that causes Johne’s Disease in sheep?

A

Mycobacterium avium ssp. paratuberculosis (MAP)

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47
Q

name 2 clinical signs of Johne’s disease in sheep

A
  1. condition loss
  2. bottle jaw in late stages
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48
Q

name the cause of ill thrift in sheep

sporadic disease usually in older sheep;
may present like Johne’s disease;
usually a distinct mass sometimes with secondary spread;
may be assoc. with eating bracken

A

intestinal adenocarcinoma

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49
Q

name the cause of ill thrift in sheep

contageous lung tumour caused by Jaagsiekte betaretrovirus (JSRV);
tumour of the type II pneumocyte cells of the lungs;
‘wheelbarrow test’, clear fluid leaking from nose

A

ovine pulmonary adenomatosis

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50
Q

name 3 effects of ovine pulmonary adenomatosis (tumour of the type II pneumocyte cells of the lung)

A
  1. loss of alveoli structure
  2. excess fluid production
  3. consolidation of lung tissue
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51
Q

how can ovine pulonary adenomatosis be diagnosed?

A

ultrasound

(serology and nasal swab PCR not useful)

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52
Q

what is the most important way to control ovine pulmonary adenomatosis

A

group sheep by age

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53
Q

name the cause of ill thrift in sheep

cases pneumonia, encephalitis, paralysis, mastitis and wasting in sheep;
closely related to Caprine Arthritis and Encephalitis lentivirus (CAE) in goats;
long incubation period, spread through inhalation;
sheep are infected for life

A

Maedi visna

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54
Q

name the pathogen causing Maedi Visna in sheep

A

Visna Maedi lentivirus

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55
Q

what is the treatment/vaccination for maedi visna in sheep?

A

none available

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56
Q

what is the most used test for diagnosing maedi visna in sheep?

A

serology - antibody ELISA

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57
Q

name the cause of ill thrift in sheep

contagious skin disease caused by Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis;
spread through direct contact or fomites;
survices for around 2mo in evironment;
thick abscesses in the lymph nodes

A

caseous lymphadenitis (CLA)

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58
Q

name the 3 forms of caseous lymphadenitis in sheep

A
  1. superficial form
  2. visceral form
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59
Q

name the cause of ill thrift in sheep

notifiable neurological disease caused by prion protein (transmissible spongiform encephalopathy);
classical and atypical forms;
not thought to be zoonotic;
long incubation period;
pruritis/wool loss, excitability, ear droop, tremors, odd gait

A

scrapie

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60
Q

what scheme must sheep flocks with confirmed cases of scrapie join?

A

Compulsory Scrapie Flock Scheme (CSFS)

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61
Q

this is defined as a death that occurs since the last inspection;
often multiple animals;
can almost guarantee those those that die will be the ‘best’ in the group

A

sudden death

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62
Q

name the 3 main causes of sudden death in sheep

A
  1. Clostridial disease
  2. Redgut
  3. Systemic pasteurellosis
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63
Q

name the cause of sudden death in sheep

anaerobic, spore forming, toxin producing bacteria;
toxin production follows opportunistic rapid multiplication in the host (botulism is the exception);
control by managing risk factors and vaccination

A

Clostridial disease

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64
Q

name the Clostridial disease of sheep

a common, peracute and usually fatal disease of sheep - can affect any age;
caused by C. perfringens type D (epsilon toxin) and oedema in multiple tissues;
typically associated with a change in diet

A

pulpy kidney

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65
Q

name 4 clinical signs of pulpy kidney in sheep

A
  1. sudden death
  2. hyperaesthesia
  3. ataxia
  4. convulsions
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66
Q

how to definitively diagnose pulpy kidney at PM of a sheep

A

demonstration of epsilon toxin on ELISA

(in intestinal contents)

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67
Q

name the Clostridial disease of sheep

rare, peracute disease of adult sheep;
C. perfringens type C;
enteritis, peritonitis, sudden death;
Hx of dietary change in unvaccinated sheep

A

struck

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68
Q

how to definitively diagnose Struck during PM of a sheep

A

demonstration of Beta toxin by ELISA

(on intestinal contents or peritoneal fluid)

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69
Q

name the Clostridial disease of sheep

Clostridium sordelii;
sudden death of sheep, can be vaccinated or not;
typically seen in creep-fed lambs 3-10wks old;
clinically seen as bloated depressed lambs

A

Abomasitis

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70
Q

what is the vaccination for Abomasitis in sheep

A

Covexin 10

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71
Q

name the Clostridial disease of sheep

rare disease of hoggs (lambs between 9-18mo);
causes severe abomasitis;
C. septicum;
associate with ingestion of frosted food

A

Braxy

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72
Q

name 2 ways to diagnose blackleg in sheep

A
  1. demonstration of bacteria on smears
  2. fluorescent Ab tests on smears
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73
Q

name the Clostridial disease of sheep

C. chauvoei;
spores survive in soil for years;
typically seen following docking, castration, shearing, dirty needs, poor lambing hygiene, wintering on root crops;
causes cellulitis, necrotising myositis, toxaemia and gas production

A

Blackleg

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74
Q

name the Clostridial disease of sheep

fatal peracute disease affecting sheep of all ages;
alpha and beta toxins of C. novyi type B;
instigated by migrating liver fluke larvae

A

black disease

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75
Q

how to definitively diagnose black disease in sheep

A

demonstration of bacteria in smears of cut liver tissue

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76
Q

name the Clostridial disease of sheep

disease of sheep of any age;
massive facial swelling with pitting oedema and gas production;
most commonly seen in ram lambs;
C. septicm, C.novyi, C. chauvoei;
can respond to treatment if seen early

A

malignant oedema

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77
Q

name the Clostridial disease of sheep

fatal, paralysing disease of all species;
neurotoxin;
ubiquitous organism in the soil;
spores enter deep wounds;
clinically causes sustained spasm and rigitidy of voluntary muscles;
unable to swallow or eructate

A

tetanus

(C. tetani neurotoxin)

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78
Q
A
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79
Q

name 3 treatments for tetanus

A
  1. tetanus antitoxin
  2. antibiotics
  3. analgesia
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80
Q

name the Clostridial disease of sheep

rare disease which can affect all species;
flaccid paralysis and incoordination, pelvic limbs initially;
leads to recumbency and death;
no specific PM findings - diagnosis based on Hx and clinical signs

A

Botulism

(C. botulinum toxin - type B, C, and D)

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81
Q

when should the annual booster of Clostridium vaccine be given?

A

6 weeks before lambing

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82
Q

name the cause of sudden death in sheep

sporadic condition;
intestinal torsion in weaned lambs or adult sheep;
sudden death due to endotoxaemia and circulatory failure;
associated with legumes or lush forage

A

Redgut

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83
Q

name 2 ways to prevent redgut in sheep

A
  1. gradually introduce onto lush pastures
  2. provide good quality fibre
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84
Q

what is the gestation period for sheep?

A

142-152 days

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85
Q

what is the oestrus cycle length for sheep?

A

16-17 days

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86
Q

what is the normal length of the luteal phase for sheep

A

13-14 days

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87
Q

what is the normal length of follicular phase in sheep?

A

3-4 days

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88
Q

what should the scrotal measurement for a ram lamb be?

A

32 cm

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89
Q

what should the scrotal measurement for a shearling ram be?

A

36 cm

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90
Q

what percent of adult body weight must a ewe be at tupping?

A

70%

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91
Q

low levels of this nutrient in the ewe can result in embryonic loss in first 3-4 weeks

A

selenium

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92
Q

what nutritional profiling can be done to look at long-term selenium levels in ewes

A

GSHP-x

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93
Q

name 3 nutritional profiling that should be done for ewes to prepare for yupping

A
  1. GSHP-x
  2. iodine
  3. vitamin B12
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94
Q

what is the ram to ewe ratio for adult rams

A

1:40-60

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95
Q

what is the ram to ewe ratio for ram lambs

A

1:30

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96
Q

what months are breeding season for sheep?

A

September - December

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97
Q

name the method of manipulating breeding in sheep

can advance the breeding season by 2 wks;
helps to synchronise the ewes;
intro a vasectomised ram which induces ovulation, remove after 7d

A

ram or teaser effect

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98
Q

name the method of manipulating breeding in sheep

synchronises ewes;
canadvance breeding season by 4-6 weeks, include PMSG;
insert at day 0, remove at day 12-14 +/- PMSG injection, intoduce fertile tup 36-40h later (1 ram per 10 ewes)

A

progestagen sponges

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99
Q

what injection must be given at removal of the progestagen sponge for AI in sheep

A

PMSG

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100
Q

name the method of manipulating breeding in sheep

launched in UK this year;
works same way as progestagen sponges;
claims of less irritation/vaginitis;
leave for 12 days, PMSG at removal, oestrus 1-2d later

A

CIDR ovis

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101
Q

name the method of manipulating breeding in sheep

naturally increases with decr. daylength;
implant mimics this and can advance the breeding season by 2mo;
Regulin ear implant

A

melatonin implants

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102
Q

how many days after melatonin implant should the rams be introduced

A

42 days

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103
Q

how to perform AI in sheep?

A

laparascopic

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104
Q

what conception rates can you get with laparascopic AI in sheep?
depends on perator skill and semen quality

A

65-70%

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105
Q

what is the optimal time during gestation to identify foetal numbers in sheep

A

60-90 days gestation

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106
Q

what can be used to terminate pregnancy in sheep?

A

PGF2⍺

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107
Q

name 2 drugs that can be used to induce parturition in sheep

A
  1. Corticosteroids
  2. Dexamethasone
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108
Q

name 3 causes of high barren rates in sheep

A
  1. ewes not cycling
  2. fertilisation failure
  3. failure to conceive or maintain early pregnancy
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109
Q

investigation is warranted if the ewe barren rate is higher than what percent?

A

5%

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110
Q

name 4 common causes of ram infertility

A
  1. epididymitis
  2. inguinal hernia
  3. testicular degeneration
  4. scrotal mange
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111
Q

name the common cause of ram infertility

common cause of permanent infertility,
often no clinical signs;
typically lesions are found in the tail of the epididymis;
testicular atrophy;
organisms enter the repro tract through the prepuce from the environment

A

epididymitis

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112
Q

name the 3 main agents causing epididymitis in rams in the UK

A
  1. Actinobacillus semnis
  2. Haemophilus somnus
  3. Histophilus ovis
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113
Q

name the significant cause of epididymitis in rams overseas

A

Brucella ovis

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114
Q

name the common cause of ram infertility

large swelling of the scrotum;
intestinal contents coming through the inguinal ring;
testicular atrophy;
usually unilateral;
diagnose by u/s;
permanently unsound

A

inguinal hernia

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115
Q

name the common cause of ram infertility

bilateral small testes;
poor semen quality;
specific cause often unknown;
various factors: systemic disease, environmental temperature, inflammation, extreme fatness

A

testicular degeneration

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116
Q

name the common cause of ram infertility

widespread in the UK;
causes pruritic lesions on the pull, coronary band, accessory digits and scrotum;
handling of scrotum often results in a nibbling reflex;
raises temp of the scrotum which impacts spermatogenesis

A

scrotal mang

Chorioptes bovis

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117
Q

name the common cause of ram infertility

often rsults from shearing wounds;
if caught and treated early fertility can be preserved;
differentiate from inguinal hernia and epididymitis by position of swelling

A

scrotal abscess

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118
Q

what is the target rate for abortion in sheep?

A

< 2%

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119
Q

name 6 common causes of abortion in sheep

A
  1. Chlamydophila abortus
  2. Toxoplasma gondii
  3. Salmonella spp.
  4. Campylobacter fetus fetus (intestinalis)
  5. Border disease
  6. Listeriosis
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120
Q

name the infectious cause of abortion

most common diagnosed cause;
late abortion, stillborn or weak lambs;
ZOONOSIS;
Chlamydophila abortus

A

Enzootic Abortion of the Ewe (EAE)

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121
Q

what stain should be used to diagnose Enzootic Abortion of the Ewe (EAE)

A

ZN stain

(clusters of red bodies against blue background)

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122
Q

what is the outcome if infection of Enzootic Abortion of the Ewe (EAE) occurs during first half of the pregnancy (>6wks off due date)

A

abort during last 3 wks of pregnancy

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123
Q

what should all ewes be treated with during an Enzootic Abortion of the Ewe (EAE) outbreak

A

long acting oxytetracycline

(2-4wks before lambing)

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124
Q

name the infectious cause of abortion in sheep

lifecycle involving rodents and cats;
barren ewes if infection in early pregnancy;
abortions/stillbirths late pregnancy;
normal if infected after 120d or when empty;
ZOONOTIC

A

Toxoplasmosis

(Toxoplasma gondii)

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125
Q

what placental change is associated with Toxoplasmosis in sheep

A

necrotic cotyledons with white spots

(like strawberries)

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126
Q

name the infectious cause of abortion in sheep

5% of diagnosed abortions;
gram neg bacteria;
abortion in final 6 weeks of pregnancy;
sporadic outbreaks in UK flocks, very common in NZ;
ZOONOTIC

A

Campylobacterosis

(C. fetus fetus)

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127
Q

name 3 ways to diagnose Campylobacteriosis in sheep

A
  1. gross signs
  2. gram or ZN stained smears of foetal stomach contents
  3. bacterial culture of foetal stomach contents
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128
Q

name the infectious cause of abortion in sheep

ZOONOTIC;
gram neg aerobic bacteria;
poor hygiene;
sporadic;
enteric or generalised ill health in ewes;
septicaemia

A

Salmonellosis

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129
Q

name the strain of Salmonella causing abortion in sheep

common in southeast scotland;
sheep and cattle - often no signs of impending abortion;
often rotten, autolysed lambs;
some ewes become sick with metritis afterwards

A

Salmonella enterica serotype Montevideo

130
Q

name the 2 strains of Salmonella causing abortion in sheep

sick and pyrexic ewes: may die of septicaemia before they abort;
profuse diarrhoea;
stinking lambings with emphysematous lambs

A
  1. S. typhimurium
  2. S. dublin
131
Q

what agar should be used for bacterial culture to diagnose Salmonellosis as cause of abortion in sheep

A

MacConkey agar

132
Q

name the infectious cause of abortion in sheep

related to BVD in cattle;
viraemia and necrotising placentitis - outcome depends on the foetal immunocompetence;
barren ewes, abortions, weak lambs (‘hairy shaker’ lambs, poor doing lambs)

A

Border disease

133
Q

name the time of Border Disease infection based on outcome

foetal death and resorption - barren ewes;
still births;
surviving lambs: PI animals, ‘hairy shakers’, ill thrifty

A

< day 60

134
Q

name the time of Border Disease infection based on outcome

some normal lambs;
some lambs with major CNS abnormalities

A

day 60-85

135
Q

name the time of Border Disease infection based on outcome

late abortions;
normal survivors

A

after day 85

136
Q

name the infectious cause of abortion in sheep

uncommon;
usually associated with feeding poor quality silage with pH >5;
losses usually third trimester;
foetuses very autolysed, examine liver and brain for micro-abscesses

A

Listeriosis

137
Q

name the 5 things to assess on a neuro exam from a distance

A
  1. demeanour
  2. posture
  3. awareness
  4. symmetry
  5. gait
138
Q

name 4 things to assess on the head during a neuro exam

A
  1. assess mentation
  2. head carriage
  3. facial symmetry
  4. cranial nerves
139
Q

name 4 things to assess at the neck during a neuro exam

A
  1. range of movement
  2. pain
  3. extend examination along the spine
140
Q

what reflexes should be assessed while the animal is standing

A

proprioceptive reflexes

141
Q

what 4 reflexes should be assessed with the animal in lateral recumbency

A
  1. Patellar reflex
  2. extensor carpi radialis reflex
  3. withdrawal reflex
  4. cutaneous trunci
142
Q

where would the spinal lesion be if the patellar reflex is affected

A

L4-L6

143
Q

where would the spinal lesion be if the extensor carpi radialis reflex is affected

A

C7-T2

144
Q

where should CSF be collected for diagnostic tests?

A

lumbosacral region

(between L6 and S2)

145
Q

name the location of the brain lesion based on the common signs

  1. depression
  2. apistotonus
  3. circling
  4. hyperaesthesia
  5. head pressing
  6. visual deficits
A

cerebral lesions

146
Q

name the common presentation of cerebral lesions

seen in weaned lambs, less commonly in growing cattle;
occassionally in adult sheep;
recent diet change ~2wks ago;
possibly recent anthelmintic treatment;
isolated from group, aimless wandering, blindness, star gazing stance, hyperaesthetic;
dosomedial strabismus and horizontal nystagmus

A

Polioencephalomalacia (PEM)
aka
Cerebral Cortical Necrosis (CCN)

147
Q

overgrowth of bacteria producing this product in the rumen precipitates Cerebral Cortical Necrosis (CCN);
destroys the vitamin essential to glucose metabolism

A

thiaminase

(destroys thiamine - vitamin B1)

148
Q

name 2 signs of Cerebral Cortical Necrosis (CCN) seen on post mortem

A
  1. necrosis of grey matter of brain
  2. cut surface fluoresces under Wood’s Lamp
149
Q

what is the treatment for Cerebral Cortical Necrosis (CCN) ?

A

vitamin B1 (thiamine)

(10 mg/kg, IV initially, followed by IM injections)

150
Q

name the neuro disease

rare in ruminants;
affects animals 3-6 months old;
progressive clinical disease;
blindness and proprioceptive deficits on the contralateral side (PLR normal);
depression, sometimes circling but more likely standing in a corner

A

brain abscesses

151
Q

name the common brainstem disease

affects sheep, cattle, goats, & pigs;
typically associated with big bale silage of poor quality;
can affect up to 10% of group;
typically seen in winter/spring;
absence of blink response, unilaterally;
progresses to death within 10-14d

A

Listeria

(Listeria monocytogenes)

152
Q

localise the lesion based on the common clinical signs:

  1. difficulty eating
  2. nystagmus
  3. ptosis
  4. ear drooping
  5. drooling
  6. head tilt
  7. loss of menace
A

brainstem lesion

153
Q

what lesions does Listeria cause in the brain stem?

A

microabscesses

154
Q

how does Listeria bacteria reach the brainstem?

A

along Trigeminal nerve through abrasions in mouth

155
Q

name 4 differential diagnoses of Listeria in cattle

A
  1. BSE
  2. CCN
  3. Lead poisoning
  4. Rabies (where present)
156
Q

name 2 differential diagnoses for Listeria in sheep

A
  1. brain abscess
  2. nephrosis
157
Q

what is the drug of choice for treating Listeria?

A

penicillin

(high dose)

158
Q

what is the success rate of aggressive treatment (penicillin) for Listeria

A

30-50%

159
Q

name 4 ways to prevent Listeria

A
  1. avoid mouldy silage
  2. remove stale feed from feeders
  3. feed hay to gimmers
  4. treat silage to incr pH
160
Q

aside from encephalitis, name 3 other things Listeria monocytogenes can cause ;
unusual for multiple forms to occur at same time

A
  1. abortion
  2. silage eye (anterior uveitis)
  3. neonatal septicaemia (visceral Listeriosis)
161
Q

name 3 typical clinical signs of vestibular lesions

A
  1. head tilt (ipsilateral)
  2. circling
  3. nystagmus
162
Q

early treatment with what drug can result in good responses in animals with vestibular disease

A

penicillin

163
Q

name 4 common clinical signs of cerebellar lesions

A
  1. wide-based stance
  2. ataxia
  3. hypermetria
  4. intention tremors
164
Q

name the neuro disease

Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathy (TSE);
exact causative agent still unknown, referred to as prions;
progressive disease, initially ill-thrift;
commonly seen in 3-5 y/o;
no test in live animal for diagnosis, clinical signs often non-specific

A

Scrapie

165
Q

localise the spinal lesion

all 4 limbs affected - ataxia and weakness;
exaggerated reflexes in fore and hind limbs

A

cervical spine (C1-C6)

166
Q

localise the spinal lesion

ataxia and weakness more severe in forelimbs;
scuffing/abnormal wear of toes in forelimbs

A

brachial region (C6-T2)

167
Q

localise the spinal lesion

normal thoracic limb function;
weakness and ataxia of hindlimbs;
exaggerated pelvic limb reflexes;
panniculus is absent caudal to the lesion

A

T2-L3

168
Q

localise the spinal lesion

flaccid paralysis of hindlimbs

A

L4-S2

169
Q

localise the spinal lesion

bladder distension and loss of anal tone

A

S1-S3

170
Q

will lesions compressing the spinal cord cause increased or decreased CSF protein concentrations

A

increased

171
Q

name the neuro disease

sporozoan parasite with ruminant intermediate hosts, carnivores are the definitive host;
commonly found in heart and skeletal muscle of sheep in UK;
6-12mo old sheep;
neuro signs include tremors, recumbency, nibbling, fore or hindlimb paralysis;
can only be confirmed histologically

A

Sarcocystitis

172
Q

name the neuro disease

can affect the lateral ventricles of the brain or the thoracolumbar spinal cord;
slow onset head tilt and circling towards the affected side;
hypermetria and hindlimb ataxia;
euthanase on welfare grounds

A

visna

(manifestation of Maedi Visna Virus)

173
Q

name the neuro disease

aka Elso heel;
occurs in calves from birth to 12mo;
calves initially seen with excessively straight hocks;
gastrocnemius and superficial digital flexor tendon have excessive tone;
commonly bilateral;
unknown aetiology

A

spastic paresis

174
Q
A
175
Q

name the 2 treatment options for spastic paresis in calves

A
  1. tibial neurectomy
  2. Gastrocnemius tenotomy
176
Q

name 4 common ectoparasites causing skin disease in sheep

A
  1. sheep scap (Psoroptes ovis)
  2. Blowfly strike (myiasis)
  3. Lice (bovicola ovis & Linognathus spp)
  4. ticks
177
Q

name 5 common non-parasitic causes of skin disease in sheep

A
  1. orf
  2. caseous lymphadenitis
  3. dermatophilosis
  4. photosensitisation
  5. ringworm
178
Q

name the skin disease in sheep

host-specific mite, highly contagious;
welfare problem and economic losses;
mite lives in environment for up to 17 days;
up to 100% morbidity;
outbreaks usually in winter/spring;
immediate and delayed hypersensitivity reactions

A

Sheep scap
(Psoroptes ovis)

179
Q

name 4 clinical signs of sheep scab

A
  1. intense pruritis
  2. wool loss
  3. scab formation
  4. death
180
Q

name 2 ways to diagnose sheep scab

A
  1. skin scrapes
  2. ELISA antibody test (Psoo2)
181
Q

name 2 treatments for sheep scab

A
  1. plunge dipping (diazinon - organophosphate)
  2. systemic endectocide injections (macrocytic lactones)
182
Q

how long must sheep be immersed in organophosphate dip for it to be effective against sheep scab

A

1 min

183
Q

name 3 advantages of organophosphate dips as treatment for sheep scab

A
  1. kills mites w/in 24h
  2. washing effect removes dead mites
  3. residual protection for several weeks
184
Q

name 4 disadvantages of organophosphate dips as treatment for sheep scab

A
  1. human and environmental hazards
  2. operator requires certificate of competence
  3. stressful procedure for sheep
  4. long meat withdrawal periods (70d)
185
Q

name 3 advantages of macrocytic lactone injections as treatment for sheep scab

A
  1. less complex to administer
  2. safer for operator, sheep and environment
  3. residual protection for several weeks (Cydectin LA)
186
Q

name 3 disadvantages of macrocytic lactone injections as treatment for sheep scab

A
  1. pruritis may persist for up to 30d
  2. takes time to kill mites
  3. promotes anthelmintic resistance
187
Q

name the skin disease in sheep

occurs during summer months (may-sept);
parasite attracted to soiled areas of fleece;
lay eggs which hatch w/in 12h;
larvae penetrate skin and secrete enzymes causing irritation, secondary bacterial infection and eventually toxaemia;
discoloured grey, moist wool and offensive smell;
wool loss and dermatitis

A

Blowfly strike (myiasis)

188
Q

name 3 ways to control Blowfly strike in sheep

A
  1. plung dipping (OP dips) for 3wks after shearing
  2. shower dipping & hand/automatic jetting
  3. pour ons (synthetic pyrethroids, insect growth regulators)
189
Q

name the species of chewing lice affecting sheep

A

Bovicola ovis

190
Q

name the 2 (less common) species of sucking lice affecting sheep

A
  1. Linognathus ovillus (face)
  2. Linognathus pedalis (limbs)
191
Q

how long is the lifecycle of chewing lice (Bovicola ovis) under ideal conditions?

A

30 days

192
Q

name the skin disease in sheep

parasite found along dorsum and flanks feeding on skin debris;
cause irritation and intense pruritis;
rubbing/biting shoulders, flanks, back;
broken wool, matting and discolouration;
entire life cycle spent on host, requires close contact for transmission

A

chewing lice (Bovicola ovis)

193
Q

name 3 treatments for chewing lice (Bovicola ovis) in sheep

A
  1. shearing
  2. plunge dipping (OP)
  3. synthetic pour-ons

(systemic endectocides NOT effective)

194
Q

name 5 tick-borne diseases affecting sheep

A
  1. tick-borne fever
  2. tick pyaemia
  3. louping-ill
  4. Q fever
  5. Babesiosis
195
Q

name the skin disease in sheep

parapox virus;
ZOONOTIC;
immunity to infection short-lived;
NO colostral transfer of immunity;
proliferatice lesions on lips and nostrils of lambs;
lesions of teats of nursing ewes;
persistent proliferative lesions;
scabs contain live virus

A

Orf (contagious pustular dermatitis)

196
Q

how long does dry scab material remain infectious with Orf?

A

years

197
Q

how to diagnose Orf

A

PCR or electron microscopy on moist scabs

198
Q

what is the ‘treatment’ for orf

A

natural recover in 24-30 days;
prevent secondary infections

199
Q

is there a vaccine for orf?

A

yes;
Scabivax (live vaccine)

200
Q

name the skin disease of sheep

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis;
via skin abrasions;
abscesses in regional lymph nodes;
firm, palpable swellings involving lymph nodes of head and neck;
occasionally rupture and discharge pus

A

Caseous lymphadenitis

201
Q

2 ways to diagnose caseous lymphadenitis

A
  1. bacterial culture from infected nodes
  2. ELISA serology
202
Q

how long can the bacteria causing caseous lymphadenitis survive in sheep dip

A

up to 24h

203
Q

what is the treatment for caseous lymphadenitis

A

none;
isolate or cull animals with discharging lesions

204
Q

name the skin disease in sheep

primary: plants containing photodynamic agents (st. john’s wort);
secondary to hepatotoxic damage (Bog asphodal);
accumulation of chlorophyll metabolites, excretion blocked leads to reaction with sunlight

A

photosensitisation

205
Q

name the skin disease in sheep

unusually associated with prolonged wet weather;
papule and crust formation on ears, nose and dorsum;
generally NOT pruritic;
self-cure or antibiotics (penicillin)

A

Dermatophilosis (lumpy wool)

(Dermatophilus congolensis)

206
Q

name 4 ways to classify ill-thrift in lambs

A
  1. failure to meet growth target
  2. failure to finish in time
  3. lack of response to increased feed
  4. poor body condition
207
Q

this is the conversion of feed into meat;
aka Feed Conversion Efficiency (FCE)

A

growth

208
Q

name the 2 wasy you can approach ill-thrift

A
  1. make assumptions and treat
  2. use rational, health plan-based approach
209
Q

name 3 causes of ill-thrift that can be ruled out by post mortem examination

A
  1. pneumonia
  2. nematodes
  3. fluke
210
Q

name the trace element deficiency

ill thrift in cattle and sheep;
poor reproductive performance (ewes and lambs);
white muscle disease (all ruminant species)

A

selenium

211
Q

name the trace element deficiency

wool changes in sheep;
brittle bones
swayback in lambs, goats and deer;
ill thrift in cattle;
poor reproductive performance in cattle;
poor milk yields in cattle

A

copper

212
Q

name the trace element deficiency

neonatal lamb and calf mortality;
poor reproductive performance

A

iodine

213
Q

name the 4 main trace elements of interest in sheep

A
  1. copper
  2. cobalt
  3. selenium
  4. iodine
214
Q

what type of blood tube should be used for cobalt testing

A

serum or heparin plasma

215
Q

what vitamin is measured as a proxy of cobalt?

A

vitamin B12

216
Q

what type of blood tube should be used for selenium testing

A

heparin plasma only

217
Q

what enzyme can be measured as a proxy of selenium

A

GSHPx

218
Q

name the 3 most commonly diagnosed foot conditions in sheep

A
  1. scald / interdigital dermatitis
  2. foot rot
  3. contagious ovine digital dermatitis (CODD)
219
Q

name the foot disease in sheep

Dichelobacter nodosus +/- Fusobacterium necrophorum;
moist conditions or trauma lead to damage of the interdigital skin;
indistinguishable from benign foot rot;
often seen in lambs at grass

A

Scald (interdigital dermatitis)

220
Q

what is the treatment for scald (interdigital dermatitis)?

A

antibiotic spray

(foot bathing in an outbreak)

221
Q

what is the antibiotic of choice for ewes if footrot is present in farm

A

oxytetracycline

222
Q

name the foot condition in sheep

Dichelobacter nodosus;
found on majority of farms and thrives in warm, wet conditions;
clinical cases of scald can incr. bacterial contamination and spread on farm;
foul smell and pus on the interdigital skin, underrunning of the horn starting from the interdigital space;
bacteria can survive 14d in environment

A

Footrot

223
Q

name 2 treatments for footrot in sheep

A
  1. treat lame sheep as soon as noted
  2. topical and parenteral abx (oxytetracycline)
224
Q

name 2 treatments that should NOT be done for sheep with footrot

A
  1. do NOT trim
  2. do NOT footbath
225
Q

name the foot condition in sheep

lesions start at coronary band, ulceration, hair loss, underrunning of the horn starting at the coronary band, whole hoof may slough, regrowth may result in misshapen claws;
Treponema, D. nodosus and F. necrophorum have been isolated from these lesions but role in pathogenesis is uncertain;
lambs and ewes can be affected;
NO involvement of interdigital skin

A

contagious ovine digital dermatitis (CODD)

226
Q

name the grade of contagious ovine digital dermatitis (CODD)

erosion/ulceration with or without hair loss can be seen at the level of the dorsal band

A

grade 1

227
Q

name the grade of contagious ovine digital dermatitis (CODD)

erosion/ulceration of the skin at the coronary band with partial (less than 50%) under-running of the hoof horn dorsally, abaxially and tending towards circumferential under-running

A

grade 2

228
Q

name the grade of contagious ovine digital dermatitis (CODD)

erosion/ulceration of the skin at the coronary band with 50-100% under-running of the hoof horn with possible hoof horn avulsion

A

grade 3

229
Q

healing foot with the horn beginning to regrow, but an active lesion still present

A

grade 4

230
Q

healed foot may have deformation of the regrown horn

A

grade 5

231
Q

are goats cows or sheep?

A

No! they’re different :)

232
Q

what is the current practice for treating contagious ovine digital dermatitis (CODD)

A

LA amoxycillin or macrolides

233
Q

name the foot condition in sheep

caused by hoof damage - excessive paring or foot bathing;
can be a sequalae to infectious conditions such as footrot or CODD

A

toe granuloma

234
Q

name 3 treatment options for toe granulomas in sheep

A
  1. paring to relieve pressure
  2. surgical removal
  3. digit amputation
235
Q

name the foot condition of sheep

separation of the horn from the sole at the white line;
pain and lameness occurs if area becomes impacted;
damage from rough ground or poor hoof health due to nutritional issues are thought to predispose;
more prevalent in flocks with infectious lameness issues

A

Shelly hoof

236
Q

what is the treatment for shelly hoof in sheep

A

pare away loose horn

(assess nutrition)

237
Q

what is the target prevalence of lameness in sheep

A

< 2%

238
Q

name the 5 point plan for preventing infectious lameness in sheep

A
  1. treat clinical cases promptly
  2. avoid spread if infection on farm
  3. quarantine incoming animals
  4. cull badly or repeatedly affected animals
  5. vaccinate against footrot biannual
239
Q

what is the only infectious foot disease in sheep that should be treated with a footbath

A

scald

240
Q

what is the vaccine that can be used at high risk periods (mainly spring and autumn) to help prevent infectious lameness in sheep

A

Footvax

(only licensed against footrot but also helps reduce risk of CODD)

241
Q

name 4 cases where digit amputation should be used as a salvage procedure to treat foot disease in sheep

A
  1. septic pedal arthritis
  2. intractable toe granuloma
  3. swelling above coronary band unresponsive to Tx
  4. evidence of bony involvement with pain
242
Q

why are goats so susceptible to poisoning?

A

they will eat anything

243
Q

name 3 clinical signs of rhododendron poisoning in goats

A
  1. abdominal pain
  2. depression
  3. projectile vomiting
244
Q

name the 4 main causes of diarrhoea in young goat kids

A
  1. dietary
  2. viral
  3. bacterial
  4. Cryptosporidium
245
Q

name 3 main bacterial causes of diarrhoea in young goat kids

A
  1. E. coli
  2. Clostridium perfringens B, C
  3. Salmonellosis
246
Q

name the 3 main causes of diarrhoea in older goat kids

A
  1. GI parasitism
  2. Coccidiosis
  3. Enterotoxaemia
247
Q

what is the common presentation of coccidiosis in housed goat kids 3-7 weeks old?

A

watery, bloody scour with rapid dehydration

248
Q

name 4 clinical signs of enterotoxaemia (Clostridium perfringens type D) in goats

A
  1. watery dysentery
  2. recumbency
  3. shock
  4. death
249
Q

how often should goats be vaccinated against Clostridium with Lambivac?

A

every 6 months

250
Q

name 2 treatments for goats with parasitic gastroenteritis
(Teladorsagia/Trichostrongylus, Haemonchus)

A
  1. fenbendazole
  2. ivermectin (not milkers)
251
Q

which form of fascioliasis (Fasciola hepaticca) is more common in goats?

A

chronic form

252
Q

what is the treatment for chronic liver fluke in goats?

A

albendazole

253
Q

what is the treatment for acute liver fluke in goats?

A

triclabendazole

254
Q

what is the most important way to control Johne’s in goats?

A

test & cull

255
Q

what is the vaccine against Johne’s disease in goats and sheep?

A

Gudair

256
Q

name 2 common infectious causes of abortion in goats

A
  1. Toxoplasmosis
  2. Chlamydophila abortus
257
Q

what pathogen causes Pasteurellosis?

A

Mannheimia haemolytica

258
Q

how to treat pasteurellosis in goats?

A

Oxytetracycline LA +/- NSAIDs

259
Q

what medication for pasteurellosis is toxic to goats and canNOT be used?

A

Micotil

260
Q

name two types of lungworms that can infect goats

A
  1. Dictyocaulus filaria
  2. Muellerius capillaris
261
Q

which type of lungworm affects goat kids in late summer, esp SE England

A

Dictyocaulus filaria

262
Q

what type of lungworm affects adult goats?

A

Muellerius capillaris

263
Q

name the neonatal nervous disease of goats

epsilon toxin of Clostridium perfringens type D;
kids showing head pressing, tremors, ataxia and death;
control: vaccinate!
Tx: try Penicillin + steroid (avoid NSAIDs in kids)

A

Focal symmetrical encephalomalacia

264
Q

name the neonatal nervous disease of goats

bacterial, usually E. coli secondary to septicaemia;
Tx: florfenicol (abx), anti-inflammatories, fluids +/- anti-convulsants;
cause: thermal due to excessive use of disbudding iron

A

meningoencephalitis

265
Q

name the neonatal nervous disease of goats

togavirus transmitted by ticks;
sheep act as reservoirs

A

Louping Ill

266
Q

name the neonatal nervous disease of goats

Anglo Nubians;
autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease;
tremors, nystagmus, inability to stand, limb & joint defects

A

Beta mannosidosis

267
Q

what type of antibiotic could be used to treat a spinal abscess

A

amoxiclav

268
Q

name the nervous disease of goats aged 7mo-adult

usually over 2y old;
chronic weight loss/decreased milk yield;
then pruritis, hyperaesthesia and hind limb incoordination;
notifiable

A

Scrapie

269
Q

name the nervous disease of goats aged 7mo-adult

L. monocytogenes encephalitis;
can cause rapid death within 6h;
not always circling;
Tx: IV penicillin, anti-inflammatories, fluids;
ZOONOTIC (milk & cheese)

A

Listeriosis

270
Q

name the nervous disease of goats aged 7mo-adult

relative thiamine (vit B1) deficiency;
sietary change/prolonged scour/levamisole etc;
ruminal acidosis;
Tx: vit B1 (5-10 mg/kg) +/- anti-inflammatory + good roughage

A

CCN (cerebral cortical necrosis)

271
Q

what is the treatment for mastitis in goats?

A

cattle tubes (under cascade)

(none licensed in goats)

272
Q
A
273
Q

what breed of goats commonly gets salivary cysts?
blockage of parotid/mandibular salivary;
painless fluid filled swelling

A

Anglo Nubians

274
Q

name the disease affecting goats and sheep

enlarged peripheral lymph nodes - hard swelling, rupture to release thick green/cream pus;
chronic weight loss;
visceral form - lungs/kidneys as result of haematogenous spread;
NO treatment

A

caseous lymphadenitis (CLA)

275
Q

what is the organism causing caseous lymphadenitis (CLA) in goats

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

276
Q

what event can be a big risk factor for transmitting caseous lymphadenitis (CLA) in sheep and goats?

A

shearing

277
Q

name the disease affecting goats

parapox virus;
more susceptible than sheep;
lesions around the mouth, teats and coronary band;
Abx in severe cases to control secondary bacterial infection;
Scabivax Forte vaccine is effective (vax in tail fold/inner thigh)

A

Orf

278
Q

name the species of biting lice affecting goats

A

Damalinia caprae

279
Q

name the species of sucking lice affecting goats

A

Linognathus stenopsis

280
Q

what is the treatment for lice in goats?

A

synthetic pyrethroid pour-ons

281
Q

what is the treatment for mange in goats?

A

endectocide (2 doses or long acting)

282
Q

name the disease affecting goats

lentivirus closely related to Maedi Visna Virus;
carriers infected for life;
transmission: mainly via milk/colostrum;
clinical sings:
1. arthritis is the most common presentation - gradual loss of condition leading to emaciation
2. encephalitis
3. pneumonia
4. mastitis

A

Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis (CAE)

283
Q

name the contagious cause of abortion in goats

not solid immunity - remain infected, may abort again;
infection via milk - ZOONOTIC!

A

Toxoplasmosis

284
Q

name the contagious cause of abortion in goats

abort any stage of gestation;
infection and abortion in same pregnancy possible;
carrier animals (kids born to infected does);
vaccination not licensed

A

Chlamydophila abortus

285
Q

name the disease of goats

fluid accumulation in uterus with presence of persistant CL;
following cycle with no pregnancy or after embryonic death and resorption;
“cloudburst” - release of fluid;
diagnosis: U/S scan, high progesterone and oestrone sulphate in milk or plasma

A

hydrometra

286
Q

what is the treatment for hydrometra in goats?

A

1mL Estrumate and oxytocin 2-3d later

287
Q

can you give xylazine IV to goats and sheep?

A

NO
do NOT give Alpha-2’s IV to small ruminants, they WILL die - give IM

288
Q

name 4 clinical signs that many respiratory diseases in sheep present with

A
  1. incr resp rate and effort
  2. depression
  3. incr nasal discharge
  4. fever
289
Q

name 5 significant signs of respiratory disease in sheep that can help with diagnosis

A
  1. resp character
  2. coughing
  3. nasal discharge
  4. dyspnoea
  5. adventitious sounds
290
Q

name the 3 pathogens that can be the cause of Pasteurellosis in sheep?

A
  1. Mannheimia haemolytica
  2. Bibersteinia trehalosi
  3. Pasteurella multocida
291
Q

name 3 diseases that can be caused in sheep by Mannheimia haemolytica

A
  1. pneumonia in growing lambs/adults
  2. septicaemia in young lambs
  3. mastitis in ewes
292
Q

what sign is often seen first with M. haemolytica in sheep?

A

sudden deaths

293
Q

name 5 clinical signs of pneumonic acute pasteurellosis in sheep

A
  1. sudden onset anorexia and dullness
  2. pyrexia
  3. hyperpnoea/dyspnoea
  4. serous ocular/nasal discharges
  5. frothy fluid at mouth terminally
294
Q

name 3 pathological lesions of pneumonic hyperacute pasteurellosis in sheep

A
  1. ecchymotic haemorrhages over throat and ribs
  2. lungs swollen, purple-red
  3. pink stained froth in airways
295
Q

name 5 clinical signs of M. haemolytica septicaemic pasteurellosis in sheep

A
  1. sudden death (lambs up to 12wks)
  2. depressed
  3. injected mucus membranes
  4. marked dyspnoea
  5. most pyrexic
296
Q

name 4 pathological lesions seen with septicaemic pasteurellosis in sheep

A
  1. pleurisy and pericarditis
  2. petechiae in myocardium, spleen, liver, kidney (any septicaemia)
  3. enlarged LNs
  4. hepatic fatty change
297
Q

how to diagnose M. haemolytica in sheep?

A

PM findings
(NOT swabs/serology in live animal - commensal)

298
Q

name 3 treatments for clinical cases of M. haemolytica in sheep

A
  1. oxytetracycline
  2. tilmicosin
  3. NSAID
299
Q

name 3 pasteurella vaccines (Intervet)

A
  1. heptavac P plus
  2. ovivac P plus
  3. ovipast plus
300
Q

name the most likely cause of systemic pasteurellosis

oct, nov, dec;
most commonly diagnosed cause of sudden death in lambs July-Dec;
movement onto rap, turnips or improved pastures;
outbreaks start with sudden deaths;
commensal bacteria;
GI erosions, septicaemic disease;
other conditions (cobalt deficiency) may predispose

A

Bibersteinia trehalosi

301
Q

name 5 pathological lesions seen with systemic pasteurellosis caused by Bibersteinia trehalosi in sheep

A
  1. haemorrhages
  2. swollen lungs with haemorrhages (no congestion)
  3. necrotic erosions
  4. liver congestion
  5. necrotic infarcts
302
Q

acute respiratory diseases in sheep are dominated by what pathogen?

A

Mannheimia haemolytica

303
Q

name the acute viral infection in sheep

most infections subclinical or mild;
most infected by 12mo old;
maintained by transient or persistent infections;
predispose to infection with M. haemolytica;
diagnosis is rarely attempted;
can be given IN vaccine to control

A

PI3
(parainfluenza virus type 3)

304
Q

name the acute viral infection in sheep

infection common in young lambs;
transient or persistent inapparent infection;
enteritis;
vax in Hungary

A

adenovirus

305
Q

name the respiratory disease fo sheep

non-progressive chronic pneumonia of housed sheep under 1y old;
caused by Mycoplasma ovipneumoniae;
PI3 and M. haemolytica are predisposing factors;
growing lambs, chronic soft cough, growht rates affected

A

atypical pneumonia

306
Q

name 2 pathological/histological lesions associated with atypical pneumonia in sheep

A
  1. red-brown or grey consolidation of apical and cardiac lobes
  2. lymphocytic cuffing pneumonia
307
Q

what is the treatment for atypical pneumonia in sick lambs

A

oxytetracycline OR macrolide

308
Q

name 3 important ways to control atypical pneumonia in sheep

A
  1. improve ventilation
  2. reduce stocking densities
  3. avoid sharing airspace with older sheep
309
Q

name the cause of parasitic bronchitis

most pathogenic;
deaths uncommon;
outbreaks of coughing and weight loss (late autumn/early winter);
may trigger secondary pasteurellosis;
L1 passed in faeces, develop to L3 on pasture, adult worms in bronchi

A

Dictyocaulus filaria

310
Q

name 3 causes of parasitic bronchitis in sheep

A
  1. Dictyocaulus filaria
  2. Protostrongylus rufescens
  3. Muellerius capillaris
311
Q

name the pathology seen witrh Muellerius capillaris in sheep

A

green/grey sub-pleural nodules in dorsal/caudal lung lobes

312
Q

name the pathology seen with Protostrongylus rufescens in sheep

A

small yellow/grey granulomas in the caudal lobes

313
Q

name 2 clinical signs of chronic suppurative pneumonia in sheep

A
  1. weight loss/ill thrift in individual animals
  2. change in resp character
314
Q

what is the treatment for chronic suppurative pneumonia in valuable animals

A

4wks procaine penicillin

315
Q

name the repiratory disease of sheep

texels and suffolks;
often about 2y old;
lat summer/autumn (breeding season, feeding);
conformation/trauma/dust/infection;
oedema, respiratory distress;
mucosal ulceration leading to arytenoid abscessation

A

laryngeal chondritis

316
Q

name the 4 main clinical signs of laryngeal chondritis in sheep

A
  1. acute onset severe respiratory distress
  2. inspiratory stridor and effort
  3. salivation
  4. cyanosis
317
Q

what are the 2 treatments for laryngeal chondritis in sheep

A
  1. 20mg dexamethasone IV
  2. 7-10d abx (tulathromycin, synulox, micotil)
318
Q

name the respiratory disease in sheep

1-3d after bloom dips;
acute pneumonia;
severe dyspnoea;
high mortality rate;
severe red/purple consolidation;
diagnosis confirmed on histopathology;
symptomatic treatment, wash fleece

A

phenolic dip aspiration

319
Q

name the respiratory disease in sheep

signs: sneezing and gadding, rhinitis, head shaking, excitability;
+/- blindness, pneumonia, death;
adults deposit L1 in nasal cavity, moult to L3 in sinuses, sneezed out after 40d, pupate in soil for 17-70d;
2 generations during summer

A

oestrus ovis
(nasal bot fly)

320
Q
A

Y4 Farm Animal (15 decks)

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