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Y4 Farm Animal > oink > Flashcards

oink Flashcards

PG01-12

1
Q

name 5 reasons why disease surveillance is important

A
  1. detecting antimicrobial/anthelmintic resistance
  2. detecting and controlling zoonotic diseases
  3. food safety threats
  4. statuatory disease reporting
  5. threats to international trade
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2
Q

name 3 types of pig units in the UK pig industry

A
  1. breeding units
  2. breeder-finisher units
  3. grower/finisher units
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3
Q

name the type of pig unit in the UK

bred usuing boars or AI;
sell weaned piglets at ~4wks old;
may buy in replacement gilts

A

breeding units

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4
Q

name the type of pig unit in the UK

grow pigs through to slaughter weight

A

breeder-finisher unit

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5
Q

name the type of pig unit in the UK

buy weaned/grower pigs and grow to slaughter weight;
sometimes “bed and breakfast pigs”

A

grower/finisher units

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6
Q

at what age/weight are pigs weaned?

A

28d or >7kg

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7
Q

at what age/weight are pigs finished at?

A

5-6mo & between 100-120kg

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8
Q

at what age/weight are grower pigs moved to the finishing unit

A

12wks & 30kg

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9
Q

name the type of pig unit

commonplace to have pigs owned by a company;
farmer provides bedding, labour, machinery, water;
company provides pigs, feed, vet care, medicines, transport;
regular income stream for farmers and make use of empty sheds;
company may produce their own feed as well as the pigs

A

contract rearing
(bed and breakfast)

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10
Q

name 4 reasons for pig visits by vets

A
  1. farm assurance
  2. disease investigation
  3. export certification
  4. sick individual or routine procedures (smallholder)
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11
Q

how often do farm assurance schemes for pig farms require a vet visit?

A

4 times a year
(quarterly)

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12
Q

name 4 things that premises must have in order to keep pigs

A
  1. premises need to have a CPH
  2. must abide by transport regulations
  3. movements require license
  4. identification (ear tags fro breeding animals, slap mark for finishing pigs)
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13
Q

what type of identification must breeding pigs have?

A

ear tag

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14
Q

what type of identification must finishing pigs have?

A

slap mark

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15
Q

what must be done in order to be allowed to dock tails and reduce teeth in piglets

A

farmer must record incidence of tail biting;
vet must review and sign off the justification

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16
Q

list the five freedoms outlined in the Animal Welfare Act of 2006

A
  1. freedom from hunger and thirst
  2. freedom from discomfort
  3. freedom from pain, injury & disease
  4. expression of normal behaviours
  5. freedom from fear and distress
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17
Q

what type of diet are pigs usually fed?

A

complete dry pelleted ration

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18
Q

what is the daily water requirement for finishing pigs <100kg

A

5-6 L

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19
Q

what is the daily water requirement for sows and gilts in lactation?

A

15-30 L

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20
Q

name the type of indoor housing for pigs

concrete or plastic;
lower daily labour input;
generally higher stocking density;
high feed conversion efficiency;
slurry separated off;
allows more temp control;
requires pigs to move sheds as they grow - different width for diff ages

A

slatted yards

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21
Q

what type of toxicity is a risk with slatted yards due to the slurry being separated off

A

H2S + NH3 toxicity

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22
Q

name the type of indoor housing for pigs

generally more space per pig;
public perception better;
sheds can have multi-purpose use;
higher production cost - expensive;
higher labour input - requires daily bedding

A

straw yards

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23
Q

name the type of housing for pigs

lower incidence of resp disease;
good public perception;
lower running costs;
least efficient in terms of production;
stuggle in wet weather, separation from wildlife difficult

A

outdoor units

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24
Q

what is the target temp range for sows

A

15-20 °C

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25
Q

what is the target temperature for weaned pigs (3-4wks)

A

27-32°C

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26
Q

what type of ventilation do slatted yards for pigs generally have?

A

mechanical ventilation

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27
Q

what type of ventilation do straw yards for pigs generally have?

A

natural ventilation

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28
Q

name 3 reasons sows are kept in farrowing crates

A
  1. prevent sow lying on pigs
  2. ensure staff safety during handling
  3. reduce neonatal losses
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29
Q

name 6 parts of the environment that should be assessed during your farm walk at a pig unit

A
  1. ventilation
  2. temperature
  3. flooring
  4. feed/water
  5. enrichment
  6. stocking density
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30
Q

name 7 things that should be assessed in the farrowing house during your farm walk at a pig unit

A
  1. sow condition
  2. litter numbers and size variation
  3. neonatal scour
  4. lameness
  5. mastitis/agalactia
  6. neonatal mortality
  7. stillbirths/abortions
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31
Q

name 8 things that should be assessed in the weaner/grower housing during your farm walk at a pig unit

A
  1. resp disease
  2. scour
  3. lameness
  4. meningitis
  5. mortality
  6. vices
  7. size variation/poor growth
  8. physical defects
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32
Q

name 9 things that should be assessed in the finisher housing during your farm walk at a pig unit

A
  1. resp disease
  2. scour
  3. lameness
  4. meningitis
  5. mortality
  6. size variation/poor growth
  7. physical defects
  8. aggression
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33
Q

name 5 possible causes of tail biting in pigs (can be multifactorial)

A
  1. high stocking density
  2. thermal discomfort
  3. poor air quality
  4. lack of enrichment
  5. diet (vit E deficiency/high fat)
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34
Q

what is the most reliable way to reduce tail biting in pigs

A

tail docking

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35
Q

name 5 records that should be kept on a pig unit

A
  1. production records
  2. health records
  3. lab reports
  4. abattoir reports
  5. medicine book
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36
Q

name 4 possible methods for the euthanasia of pigs depending on the size

A
  1. percussive device/blow
  2. penetrating captive bolt
  3. firearm
  4. lethal injection
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37
Q

what size pig can euthanasia by percussive blow be used?

A

< 5kg

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38
Q

where should the penetrative captive bolt be aimed for pigs?

A

midline, 20mm above eye level, aim towards tail

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39
Q

what size pig is a shotgun a suitable method for euthanasia?

A

greater than 100kg

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40
Q

what size pigs is a .22 rifle a suitable method of euthanasia for?

A

only < 100kg

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41
Q

how should a pig <10kg be held for a lethal injection

A

upside down

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42
Q

what type of needls must be used for injections in pigs

A

detectable needles

(not standard plastic hub)

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43
Q

how to collect oral fluids from pigs?

A

leave rope kit with pigs for 30 min then squeeze fluid into sterile container

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44
Q

name 3 reasons for castrating a pig

A
  1. prevent “boar taint” of pork
  2. prevent breeding
  3. reduce aggressive behaviours
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45
Q

name 3 requirements when castrating pigs >7d old

A
  1. local anaesthetic
  2. prolonged analgesia
  3. only by a vet surgeon
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46
Q

name an alternative to surgery for castrating pigs

A

immunocastration vaccine (Improvac)

(GnRH vaccine)

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47
Q

what type of sedation can be given to older piglets for castration

A

ketamine + xylazine

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48
Q

what local anaesthetic should be given intratesticular for piglet castration

A

procaine

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49
Q

what type of anaesthesia should be given when performing a vasectomy on a pig

A

heavy sedation + epidural
(or full GA)

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50
Q

name 3 reasons for tusk trimming in pigs

A
  1. safety & reduce injury risk
  2. aberrant growth into face
  3. interference with eating
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51
Q

is analgesia required for tusk trimming in pigs?

A

no

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52
Q

what is the most common cause of dystocia in pigs
(though dystocia is uncommon)

A

uterine inertia

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53
Q

what percent of the cost of production is diet for pigs?

A

60%

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54
Q

this is the efficiency of convertin feet into body mass;
feed eaten / animal weight gain;
low figure is desirable - efficient;
requires good data recording

A

food conversion ratio (FCR)

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55
Q

name the disease of pigs

increased FCR - reduced breakdown and absorption of nutrients, immune response uses energy;
reduced performance and profitability;
is multifactorial - health and management;
may or may not be diarrhoea;
reduced growth, longer to finish

A

enteric disease

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56
Q

this is the largest immune structure in the body with both innae and acquired immunity

A

the mucosa

(skin, resp tract, intestine)

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57
Q

what 3 types of nutrients are digested in the healthy intestine

A
  1. starch
  2. protein
  3. fat
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58
Q

name 4 minerals that are absorbed in the intestine

A
  1. Na
  2. Cl
  3. K
  4. HCO3
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59
Q

name 3 effects of villi damage in the intestine

A
  1. reduced digestion and absorption of nutrients
  2. incr osmotic pressure in the lumen (water drawn into lumen)
  3. reduced performance, possibly diarrhoea, incr FCR
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60
Q

how much colostrum should the piglet get in the first 6h

A

200 mL/kg

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61
Q

what type of infection causing scour are pigs more prone to?

A

E. coli

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62
Q

name 6 ways to minimise weaning stress

A
  1. aim for even litters
  2. good farrowing room management
  3. all in/all out systems
  4. group piglets to size
  5. weaning room clean and warm and dry
  6. high quality weaning ration
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63
Q

name the cause of neonatal scour in piglets

adhere to mucosa via fimbrial adhesions (K88, K99, 987P, F41, F18);
colonise small intestine and produce enterotoxins - heat labile toxin (LT);
faecal-oral route of transmission;
profuse watery diarrhoea leading to acute dehydration and metabolic acidosis leading to depression and death

A

E. coli
(enterotoxigenic E. coli - ETEC)

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64
Q

how to definitely diagnose E.coli as cause of neonatal scour in piglets

A

histopath showin coliform attachment to SI villi

(PM non-specific)

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65
Q

name 3 ways to treat a piglet for neonatal scour caused by E. coli

A
  1. provide electrolytes
  2. oral abx
  3. biocontainment to avoid spread
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66
Q

how to prevent neonatal scour caused by E. coli infection?

A

sow vaccination (ColiClos)

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67
Q

name the cause of neonatal scour in piglets

serotypes A, B, C, D affect pigs;
replicate in the cytoplasm of differentiated SI epithelieal cells and destroy them;
SI villous atrophy leading to severe enteritis;
faecal-oral route of transmission;
mild diarrhoea and dehydration to severe acute diarrhoea and death;
pale pasty faeces;
5-14d, younger = more severe

A

rotavirus

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68
Q

name 2 ways to diagnose rotavirus as cause of neonatal scour in piglets

A
  1. PCR assay on faeces
  2. histopathology to demonstrate viral enteropathy
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69
Q

how to prevent rotavirus infection in piglets?

A

sow vaccination (Rokovac Neo)

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70
Q

name the cause of neonatal scour in piglets

Isospora suis - ubiquitous on pig farms;
affects ypung piglets from 5d old;
penetrate enterocytes, multiplies and damages enterocytes;
environmental contamination from sows;
oocysts very resistant to disinfection;
pasty scour - yellow/grey;
will see thin piglets and variation w/in litter;
high morbidity

A

coccidiosis

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71
Q

can coccidiosis be diagnosed when pigs are first infected?

A

no, coccidial stages still intracellular

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72
Q

how to treat coccidiosis in neonate pigs

A

oral dose with Toltrazuril

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73
Q

name the cause of neonatal scour in piglets

attaches to brush border of SI, multiplies and damages the enterocytes;
watery diarrhoea from 7d of age;
ZOONOSIS;
no treatment;
confirm oocysts post infection with histopathology

A

Cryptosporidium parvum

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74
Q

name the cause of neonatal scour in piglets

type C;
attaches to enterocytes of ileum and secretes beta-toxin;
causes intestinal damage and toxaemia;
piglets <7d old;
fatal necrotic enteritis;
high morbidity;
bloody diarrhoea

A

Clostridium perfringens

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75
Q

what is the conclusive way to diagnose Clostridium perfringens as cause of neonate diarrhoea

A

analysis of gut contents for beta-toxin

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76
Q

how to prevent Clostridium perfringens infections in piglets?

A

sow vaccination (ColiClos)

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77
Q

name the cause of post-weaning scour in piglets

adheres to enterocytes;
colonise small intestine and produce enterotoxins - heat labile toxin (LT) - act on mucosa - stimulate hypersecretion of mucus and electrolytes - diarrhoea and dehydration;
watery diarrhoea, severity varies, metabolic acidosis, sudden death

A

E. coli

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78
Q

what is the PM sign of E. coli in post-weaned pigs

A

congested SI with yellow/watery contents

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79
Q

how to prevent E. coli infections/scour in post-weaned piglets

A

add zinc oxide to weaner rations

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80
Q

name the disease of post-weaning piglets

Lawsonia Intracellularis - gram neg intracellular bacteria;
colonises epithelial cells in distal small and proximal large intestine;
impedes maturation of the epithelial cells, they proliferate and lead to hyperplastic crypts;
pigs develop local mucosal immunity and lesions resolve after 4-6wks;
infected pigs can shed for up to 10wks post-infection;
diarrhoea can be bloody

A

Porcine Proliferative Enteropathy (PPE)

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81
Q

what is the treatment for porcine proliferative enteropathy (PPE)?

A

oral antibiotic treatment

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82
Q

how to prevent porcine proliferative enteropathy (PPE) in post-weaning piglets?

A

oral live attenuated vaccine
or
intradermal inactivated vaccine

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83
Q

name the disease of post-weaning piglets

Brachyspira hyodysenteriae;
large intestine - multiplies in crypts, invades goblet cells, leads to goblet cell hyperplasia and disruption of enterocyte differentiation - Typhlocollitis;
can be brought to farm by visitors;
diarrhoea - mucus and blood - 5d post-infection

A

swine dysentery

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84
Q

what is the treatment for swine dysentery in post-weaning piglets

A

oral abx - Tiamulin, Linospectin

(no vaccine)

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85
Q

name the disease of post-weaning piglets

spirochaetal diarrhoea;
brachyspira pilosicoli;
similar to swine dysentery but less severe
common in UK herds;

A

porcine colonic spirochaetosis

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86
Q

name the disease of post-weaning piglets

fimbrae and flagella attach to enterocytes in SI;
replicates in SI - acute inflammation distal ileum and colon, can lead to necrotic enteritis;
most common from weaning to 4mo;
survives in environment and carrier animals;
usually subclinical, poor doing pigs;
watery and yellow diarrhoea;
mild enteritis to necrotic enteritis, mesenteric LNs enlarged

A

salmonellosis

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87
Q

how to prevent salmonellosis in post-weaning piglets?

A

Salmoporc vaccine (oral or inkection)

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88
Q

name the disease of post-weaning piglets

large roundworms in SI, 25-40cm long;
eggs - L3 - swallowed - cross to portal circulation - migrate to liver - circulation to lungs - coughed up and swallowed - develop to adults ;
7wk cycle

A

Ascaris suum

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89
Q

this is a respiratory disease in pigs caused by multiple infectious agents - bacterial, viral and parasitic

A

Porcine Respiratory Disease Complex (PRDC)

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90
Q

name 4 costs associated with Porcine Respiratory Disease Complex (PRDC)

A
  1. incr. FCR
  2. incr. mortality
  3. incr. medicine use
  4. incr. labour to manage
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91
Q

this is the physical barrier of the respiratory defence system;
first line of defence;
mucus layer and epithelial layer with cilia, microbiome (as per intestine and skin);
removes 90% of micro-organisms that penetrate the airways - mechanical action

A

muco-cilliary apparatus

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92
Q

affects air quality;
from slurry (NH3) or breathing (CO2)

A

gasses

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93
Q

name the gas

in most housed livestock systems from breakdown of faeces/urine;
ciliotoxic & breaks down mucus - hence disables the muco-ciliary apparatus - allows large particles to enter the lower resp tract;

when combined with water: corrosive and ittitating, toxic, supperesses cough reflex, paralyses cilia

A

NH3

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94
Q

name the affect on air quality

inherent in intensive systems;
can cause primary issues by clogging up the muco-ciliary apparatus and allowing smaller particles to penetrate deeper into airways;
can cause secondary issues as a pathogen carrier

A

dust

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95
Q

this is key in an indoor intensive system - usually fully closed, complicated with an integrated slurry system;
air exchange must deliver fresh air to all animals and remove gas/pathogens

A

ventilation

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96
Q

name the porcine respiratory pathogen

carrier sows;
colonises nasal passages of suckling pigs;
produces toxins causing mild turbinate atrophy;
can affect cranial lung - pneumonia;
CS: sneezing from 7d old, coughing, rhinitis makes suckling difficult so they drink less, epistaxis, reduced DLWG, poor weaning weights

A

Bordatella bronchiseptica

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97
Q

name 2 pathologies seen with pigs infected by Bordatella bronchiseptica

A
  1. catarrhal rhinitis
  2. bronchopneumonia
98
Q

what is the treatment/prevention for Bordatella bronchiseptica in pigs?

A
  1. antibiotics (sensitive to most)
  2. sow vaccine to boost MDA
99
Q

name the porcine respiratory disease

toxigenix pasturella multocida type D;
strains with ToxA gene - destroys osteoblasts and increases osteoclastic activity;
severe bacterial rhinitis with permanent turbinate atrophy;

CS: sneezing in piglets with epistaxis, blockage of lacrimal duct - tear staining, deviation and/or shortening of the snout, reduced growth rates and incr pneumonia

A

Progressive Atrophic Rhinitis (PAR)

100
Q

how to diagnose Progressive Atrophic Rhinitis (PAR)

A
  1. clinical signs
  2. PM and snout scoring
  3. PCR test for Tox A gene, or toxin ELISA test
101
Q

name the porcine respiratory disease

highly contagious, severe clinical signs and can be fatal;
aerosol spread from infected or carrier pigs;
14 known serotypes;
bacteria colonise resp tract (esp caudal lungs), toxins are produced (congestion, oedema, necrosis and vascular thrombosis), inflamm and fibrinexudate seen on pleural surface and interlobular septae

A

Actinobacillus Pleuropneumonia (APP)

102
Q

based on the clinical signs of Actinobacillus Pleuropneumonia (APP), what type of outbreak?

widespread depression, anorexia, high temps, lethargy, respiratory distress

A

acute outbreak

103
Q

based on the clinical signs of Actinobacillus Pleuropneumonia (APP), what type of outbreak?

poor performance, lethargy, respiratory signs

A

chronic outbreak

104
Q

name 2 PM signs of Actinobacillus Pleuropneumonia (APP) in pigs

A
  1. pleuropneumonia
  2. multifocal raised haemorrhagic lesions
105
Q

name the porcine respiratory disease

can cause lameness and/or pneumonia - but generally incidental;
very widespread;
MDA protection for piglets;
most infections subclinicals;
concurrent infection may exacerbate;
may be significant in EP-like lesions in the lung

A

Mycoplasma Hyorhinis (MHr)

106
Q

worldwide significant respiratory disease of pigs;
disease of growing pigs - coughing, uneven growth, poor FCR;
concurrent infection with viral diseases & Pasturella exacerbates clinical disease;
aerosol spread for up to 5km;
organism attaches to surface of resp tract and multiplies, damages cilia and thus interferes with MC Apparatus, inflammation results with clumping/loss of cilia - leads to bronchopneumonia

A

Mycoplasma Hypopneumoniae - EP (enzootic pneumonia)

107
Q

what is the prevention for Mycoplasma Hypopneumoniae - EP in pigs?

A

BIOSECURITY

108
Q

name the porcine respiratory disease

at least 14 serovars worldwide;
aerosol and direct contact from infected/carrier pigs;
small infective dose - generally very virulent;
septicaemia leading to polyserositis and pneumonia, sometimes meningitis;

CS: febrile, anorexic, pneumonia, lameness, recumbency, death - maybe red blotchy skin and cyanosis

A

Glassers disease

Glasseralla (Haemophilus) Parasuis

109
Q

acute, subacute, or chronic Glassers Disease?

fibrinous polyserositis, pneumonia, joint fluid fibrinous

A

acute

110
Q

acute, subacute, or chronic Glassers Disease?

marked fibrinous pleurisy, pericarditis, peritonitis

A

subacute

111
Q

acute, subacute, or chronic Glassers Disease?

fibrous adhesions in body cavities esp pericardium, cardiac insufficiency, chronic arthritis

A

chronic

112
Q

most important production disease in pigsw worldwide;
enveloped RNA virus that mutates frequently - many strains present;
wide variation seen in clinical disease in the field due to mutations and different virulence;
type 1- European genotype, type 2- US genotype;
virus replicates in macrophages, primary site is lungs;
major effect on immune system

A

Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome - PRRS (Blue Ear)

113
Q

how long can infected animals shed the virus for Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome - PRRS (Blue Ear) for?

A

over 100d

114
Q

name 3 ways to inactivate the virus causing Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome - PRRS (Blue Ear)

A
  1. heat
  2. drying
  3. low pH
115
Q

name 3 main causes of herd breakdown due to Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome - PRRS (Blue Ear)

A
  1. introduction of infected pigs
  2. contaminated semen
  3. contaminated fomites
116
Q

name 5 clinical signs of Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome - PRRS (Blue Ear) in suckling pigs

A
  1. severe dyspnoea
  2. febrile
  3. lethargy
  4. cyanosis
  5. high mortality
117
Q

name 4 clinical signs of Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome - PRRS (Blue Ear) in grow and finish pigs

A
  1. dyspnoea
  2. inappetence
  3. lethargy
  4. quickly lose weight
118
Q

this is a quick way of proving exposure and monitoring Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome - PRRS (Blue Ear) - antibodies present 2wks post-infection

A

PRRS ELISA

119
Q

enveloped RNA virus;
worldwide distribution;
can cross species;
virus multiplies in bronchial epithelium leading to focal necrosis whoch progresses to local lung collapse and hyperaemia over 72h;
high fever can cause abortion and infertility ;
depression, anorexia, febrile, coughing, dyspnoea, nasal and ocular discharge ;
high morbidity, low mortality

A

Swine Influenza Virus (SIV)

(Influenza A virus - IAV)

120
Q

how long is Swine Influenza Virus (SIV) present in acute phase?
collect tissue or nasal/ocular excretions for PCR

A

72h

121
Q

name 3 requirements for pigs to sustain gestation

A
  1. correct hormonal balance (high progesterone)
  2. strong immune suppression at implantation level
  3. local cytokine and growth factor cross-talk
122
Q

are the majority of factors affecting pig reproduction infectious or non-infectious?

A

non-infectious

123
Q

name 4 main categories of non-infectious factors affecting reproduction in pigs

A
  1. environmental
  2. management
  3. nutritional
  4. age
124
Q

what is the legal minimum duration of light per day for pigs?

A

8h

125
Q

how many hours of light should a pig have per day to maintain (early) pregnancy?

A

12-16h

126
Q

how much light should gilts have each day?
helps them reach puberty earlier, are a lighter body weight at puberty, more sexually active;
no difference in ovulation rate

A

14-18h

127
Q

how much backfat should the sow have at service and farrowing?

A

14-16mm

128
Q

what 4 things should pigs be fed for?

A
  1. growth and body condition
  2. follicle development
  3. placental development
  4. foetal growth
129
Q

what age of pig should have the best fertility?

A

maiden gilts

(sows are coming into heat after lactation)

130
Q

name 3 characteristics of gilts heat that make it challenging to service them

A
  1. shorter
  2. more irregular
  3. more difficult to spot
131
Q

name 6 causes of anoestrus in sows

A
  1. pregnancy
  2. ONO (oestrus not observed)
  3. unknown irregular oestrus cycles
  4. congenital abnormalities
  5. intersexuality
  6. management
132
Q

if no pregnancy, the uterus of the sow secretes what hormone?

A

prostaglandin (PGF2alpha)

133
Q

giving the sow nose-nose contact with a boar during AI will have what 2 effects?

A
  1. incr heat signs
  2. incr. uterine contractions
134
Q

name the type of still-birth

pre-partum deaths;
infectious diseases (eg PRRS, PPV)

A

type 1

135
Q

name the type of still-birth

intra-partum deaths (during parturition);
duration of farrowing/dystocia/anoxia;
early/late farrowing;
high parity sow;
high temp

A

type 2

136
Q

name the group of reproductive infections in pigs

ubiquitous microorganisms that occur as common commensals;
Arcanobacterium pyogenes, E. coli, Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae, Streptococcus spp, Salmonella spp, Staphylococcus aureus

A

group 1

137
Q

name the group of reproductive infections in pigs

contagious microorganisms which are present in a high proportion of pig herds;
PRRS, porcine parvovirus (PPV), Leptospira Bratislava, SIV PCV2, Enteroviruses

A

group 2

138
Q

name the group of reproductive infections in pigs

infections associated with severe reproductive disease which are uncommon or absent from the UK

A

group 3

139
Q

name 2 common clinical signs of group 1 reproductive infections in pigs

A
  1. vaginal discharge after service
  2. postpartum dysgalactia syndrome (PPDS)
140
Q

how many days post-service would vaginal discharge be a concern for infection

A

10-20 days post service

(<7 not significant)

141
Q

name the group 1 reproductive syndrome in pigs

formerly known as MMA, pluerperal or E. coli mastitis…
mastitis is often main sign;
numerous multifactorial aetiologies;
coliform mastitis

A

Postpartum dysgalactia syndrome (PPDS)

142
Q

name 3 treatments for Postpartum dysgalactia syndrome (PPDS) in sows

A
  1. antimicrobials
  2. NSAIDs
  3. oxytocin
143
Q

name 3 treatments for piglets who’s sow is affected by Postpartum dysgalactia syndrome (PPDS)

A
  1. care
  2. colostrum
  3. cross-fostering
144
Q

how to prevent Postpartum dysgalactia syndrome (PPDS)?

A

hygiene!

145
Q

what will the gross appearance of the foetus be if viral in utero infection at 6d gestation?

A

degenerated

146
Q

what will the gross appearance of the foetus be if viral in utero infection at 57d?

A

mummified

147
Q

what will the gross appearance of the foetus be if viral in utero infection at 75d?

A

stillborn/autolysed

148
Q

what will the gross appearance of the foetus be if viral in utero infection at 92d?

A

normal

149
Q

name the viral reproductive disease of pigs

globally most economic relevant production disease;
breeding herd: reproductive problems, growing-finishing herd: resp problems/immunesystem;
abortions, incr mummies, early farrowing, weak piglets, high pre-weaning mortality, poor performance after weaning

A

PRRS (porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome)

150
Q

name the 5 possible routes of PRRS (porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome) virus shedding

A
  1. nasal secretions
  2. mammary secretions
  3. urine
  4. semen
  5. faeces
151
Q

name the viral reproductive disease of pigs

everywhere, not major issue in UK due to vaccination;
SMEDI (stillbirth, mummification, embryonic death, infertility);
increased return to service;
small litters;
kills foetus up to 70d;
>70d: placentitis and endothelial damage

A

PPV (porcine parvo virus)

152
Q

name the bacterial reproductive disease in pigs

worldwide distribution;
sporadic problem in herds;
most common in outdoor herds (vectors);
abortion mainly in last trimester;
stillbirths, weak piglets born, reduced piglet viability;
infertility with returns to oestrus if infected in early gestation;
localisation in renal tubules (shed in urine)

A

porcine leptospirosis

153
Q

name 5 broad differential diagnoses for lameness in pigs

A
  1. trauma
  2. nutritional
  3. degenerative
  4. infectious causes
  5. spinal problems
154
Q

name the 3 minerals/substances which can cause metabolic bone disease in pigs if inadequate levels in diet

A
  1. Ca
  2. P
  3. vit D
155
Q

this is reduced bone mass (excess resporption of bone): fracture easily and lameness

A

osteoporosis

156
Q

name the type of defective mineralisation of bone

this is abnormal endochondral ossification in growing pigs;
growing bones: weak bones, bend and fracture easilty: lameness

A

rickets

157
Q

name the type of defective mineralisation of bone

abnormal bone remodelling in late finishing/adults;
mature bones: weak bones, bend and fracture easily: lameness

A

osteomalacia

158
Q

name the cause of lameness in pigs

lameness, leg weakness: high wastage of gilts (finisher diets);
cause unknown;
factors: genetic susceptibility, high growth rates, housing/flooring, lack of exercise;
growth plates that close last are most susceptible;
cartilage flaps, slough, ulcerated lesions;
synovial membranes inflamed and serosanguineous joint fluid

A

degenerative joint disease: osteochondrosis

159
Q

name the cause of lameness in pigs

young piglets;
opportunistic infection from the environment with: strep, staph, e. coli;
settling out in joints & other locations;
bacteria gain access through navel, abrasions, wounds, badly clipped teeth, castration wounds;
if severe: loss of body condition due to starvation

A

joint ill

160
Q

name the cause of lameness in pigs

commensal of the tonsils, nasal cavity, and conducting airway;
infection leads to septicaemia, goes to joints and causes arthritis;
growing-finishing age pigs;
acute lameness on one or more limbs;
Tx: lincomycin, chlortetracycline, tiamulin and enrofloxacin

A

Mycoplasma hyosynoviae

161
Q

name the cause of lameness in pigs

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae;
common in pig environments;
carried in tonsils (reservoirs), shed in secretions and excretions;
immunity develops (effective vaccines);
occupational ZOONOSIS: granulomatous swellings;
septicaemia, febrile, deaths, abortions, acute synovitis, skin lesions (typical diamond shaped haemorrhagic lesions!), petechial haemorrhages on kidney

A

Swine erysipelas

162
Q

what is the classical sign of acute swine erysipelas

A

diamond-shaped haemorrhagic skin lesions

163
Q

name 4 features of chronic swine erysipelas

A
  1. necrotic skin lesions
  2. ear tips slough
  3. arthritis
  4. vascular endocarditis
164
Q

how to treat swine erysipelas?

A

wide range abx (penicillin)

165
Q

ex: savaging, vulva biting, ear biting, tail biting, flank chewing bullying;
not JUST caused by boredom!
if animals are uncomfortable, they get irritated and display these behaviours

A

vices

166
Q

name the vices seen in pigs

sporadic gilt problem;
a harsh or alien environment/individual crate;
nutritional deficiencies? related to temperament/genetics? breed related? stockperson?

A

savaging

167
Q

name the vices seen in pigs

primary: takes place where the previously undamaged tail is injured by aggressive or frustrated pen mates;
secondary: because of the presence of necrosis is maybe even more prevalent than primary

A

tail biting

168
Q

another influence factor associated with tail biting;
swelling, reddening and exudation on the tail, sometimes with demarcation and tail tip loss;
appearance of necrotic tissue on ears and tails;
can be corrected by adjusting protein and fibre content in the grower and feeder rations;
systemic metabolism problem

A

swine inflammation and necrosis syndrome (SINS)

169
Q

name 6 factors that play a role in pigs expressing vices

A
  1. feeding
  2. environment
  3. climate
  4. health
  5. animal factors
  6. boredom
170
Q

name the systemic infection of pigs

many serotypes;
type 2: meningitis;
type 1, 9 and 14: polyserositis, joint ill, septicaemia, meningitis;
aerosol, contact spread, survives in environment/fomites for >2wks;
colonises tonsils, leads to bacteraemia, localises in susceptible tissues causing inflammation

A

Streptococcus suis

171
Q

name the clinical outcome of Streptococcus suis infection

piglets and weaners;
febrile, swollen joint(s), lameness, depressed…

A

joint ill

172
Q

name the clinical outcome of Streptococcus suis infection

sudden deaths, lethargy, pneumonia

A

speticaemia

173
Q

name the clinical outcome of Streptococcus suis infection

recumbency, stiff legs, paddling, febrile, distress

A

meningitis

174
Q

how to treat Strepticoccus suis infections?

A

penicillin (individual sick pigs)

175
Q

name the systemic infection of pigs

exudative epidermitis: Staph hyicus;
common, spreads rapidly;
can be very extensive, fatal;
contact infection, trauma, environmental irritation;
CS: inflammation, fibrin, scabs, ‘greasy’ feel - multifocal lesions, spread, coalesce - non-pruritic

A

greasy pig disease

176
Q

how to treat greasy pig disease?

A

penicillin
NSAIDs for severe cases

177
Q

what 3 things can move down the pig breeding company pyramid?

A
  1. pigs
  2. semen
  3. people
178
Q

what 2 things canNOT move up the pig breeding company pyramid?

A
  1. pigs
  2. people

(semen/embryo CAN)

179
Q

name the type of high health herd on the pig breeding pyramid

founder of the pyramid - genetics move down as semen and live pigs;
enormous potential for disease dissemination;
biosecurity is essential;
regular disease monitoring is essential

A

HH nucleus herd

180
Q

name the biosecurity feature of pig farms

once a farm is seen as this then it reinforces the importance of biosecurity;
immediately allows control of who and what enters and leaves the farm;
restricts casual access - footpaths;
restricts wildlife access

A

ring fenced

181
Q

name 3 important requirements for pig farm visitors on high biosecurity farms

A
  1. 72h pig clean
  2. shower in/shower out
  3. PPE provided
182
Q

what is the ideal day of the week for a high health pig farm visit for a specialist pig practice?

A

monday

183
Q

what is the difference in pigs/sow/year between the top and bottom pig farms

A

10 pigs/sow/year

184
Q

name the 5 positions making up the farm team for a pig farm

A
  1. farm owner
  2. farm manager and staff
  3. geneticist
  4. nutritionist
  5. vet
185
Q

name 3 major costs of chronic disease on a pig farm

A
  1. reduced DLWG, inr FCR, less output
  2. incr meds & vaccines for sows
  3. incr vaccines for piglets (extra labour & cost)
186
Q

this is the most effective way to medicate pigs - can quickly target a specific room/rooms;
requires a setup to allow delivery into the system;
requires cleansing of water lines to remove biofilm which can reduce abx effectiveness

A

water medication

187
Q

this is the system that can be used to add medication to water for treating pigs

A

Dosatron system

188
Q

this is required in order to use feed medication for pigs

A

script from farm vet

(stating condition being treated and concentration of meds to be used)

189
Q

how long is a room left empty to allow cleaning and disinfectant after moving a group a pigs?

A

a week

190
Q

name 4 uses of vaccines in pig production

A
  1. adult stock to protect against spec diseases
  2. sows to confer maternal immunity via colostrum
  3. weaners to protect against endemic diseases on farm
  4. HH gilts going to a commercial farm
191
Q

what temp should vaccines be kept at on a pig farm?

A

2-8°C

192
Q

name 3 diseases sows are vaccinated against in order to protect in-utero piglets

A
  1. parvovirus
  2. leptospirosis
  3. PRRS
193
Q

name 3 diseases sows are vaccinated against in order to prime colostrum and offer specific antibodies to piglets

A
  1. E coli
  2. rotavirus
  3. clostridium perfringens
194
Q

name 4 diseases adult pigs are vaccinated against in order to protect the sow/gilt/boar

A
  1. erysipelas
  2. PRRS
  3. Clostridium perfringens
  4. PCV2
195
Q

name 5 diseases piglets are commonly vaccinated against

A
  1. M Hyopneumoniae (EP)
  2. PCV2
  3. PRRS
  4. Lawsonia intracellularis (PPE)
  5. Glassers Disease (APP)
196
Q

these are vaccines that are farm specific;
derived from isolated pathogens on the farm;
produced specifically for that farm;
more expensive than commercial vaccines;
Haemophilus parasuis, Pasteurella multicida, Strep suis, Trueperella pyogenes

A

autogenous vaccines

197
Q

name the pig vaccine

currently a live vaccine - helps control clinical signs;
RNA enveloped virus that frequently mutates - can become more or less virulent;
NEVER use this live vaccine in a negative herd

A

PRRS vaccine

198
Q

this is a strategy of disease elimination on pig farms;
aim is to replace poor performance with high performance;
return farm to highly productive unit;
period of no income;
purchase of HH gilts, C&D of buildings, upgrade buildings, labour

A

depopulate and repopulate

199
Q

name the reproductive management for pigs

usually gilts;
improve farrowing rate and litter numbers;
gilts must be sexually mature;
guaranteed supply of pregnant gilts for each farrowing batch

A

synchronise breeding

200
Q

name the method for synchronising gilts

used in sexually mature gilts;
one dose of 5ml per gilt per day for 18 concescutive days given orally with feed for immediate consumption;
heat 5-6d later;
aim to serve on a monday with sows

A

Altrenogest

201
Q

name the reproductive management for pigs

wean on thurs, serve mon/tues;
good daylength - 16h;
boar exposure post weaning - once per day;
seasonal variation - late summer;
vasectomised boar

A

induce oestrus naturally

202
Q

name the reproductive management for pigs

less often used in UK;
eCG and hCG products can be used at weaning time to tighten return to this;
prostaglandin RARELY used for this purpose (can be used to abort sows)

A

induce oestrus with hormones

203
Q

name the reproductive management for pigs

allows batch management of farrowing;
supervision and cross fostering;
keeps batch tight - return to oestrus tight;
must know average gestation length for farm;
use prostaglandin in early am with oxytocin 24h later

A

induce farrowing

204
Q

term used to describe when stock grow at a slower growth rate than expected, given their feed allocation

A

ill thrift

205
Q

what does acute gastric ulceration cause in pigs?

A

death

206
Q

what does chronic gastric ulceration in pigs cause?

A

slow growth

207
Q

most of the risk factors associated with the development of ulcers in pigs are associasted with this

A

an increase in fluidity of the stomach contents

208
Q

name the mycotoxin causing these signs in pigs

hepatotoxic, carcinogenic, mutagenic, immunosuppression, reduced productivity (eg ADC)

A

aflatoxins

209
Q

name the mycotoxin causing these signs in pigs

reduced food intake (contaminated grains), vomiting, immunosuppression, kidney problems

A

Deoxynivalenol (DON or vomatoxin)

210
Q

name the mycotoxin causing these signs in pigs

leukoencephalomalacia (equine), lung oedema (swine), hepatotoxic, carcinogenic

A

fumonisins

211
Q

name the mycotoxin causing these signs in pigs

oestrogenic

A

zearalone (ZON)

212
Q

name the mycotoxin causing these signs in pigs

disruption of DNA and RNA synthesis, general protein synthesis disruption;
reduction in antibodies, cytokines, bloody diarrhoea, dermal and mucosal necrosis, reduced productivity, haemorrhage

A

T2 toxin

213
Q

name the mycotoxin causing these signs in pigs

nephrotoxic, hepatotoxic (high levels), carcinogenic (rats)

A

ochratoxin

214
Q

name the mycotoxin causing these signs in pigs

gangrene, ear and tail necrosis in swine, CNS and GI effects, agalctia (swine)

A

ergot

215
Q

name the infectious cause of ill-thrift in pigs

disease initially names postweaning multisystemic wasting syndrome (PMWS);
type 1: ubiquitous, non-pathogenic
type 2: worldwide, pathogenic;
small, non-enveloped, very stable in the environment, resistant to most disinfectants, ssDNA (stable genetics)

A

Porcine Circovirus Disease (PCVD)

216
Q

what is the clinical manifestation of PCV1-SD strain

A

systemic disease

217
Q

what is the clinical manifestation of PCV2-SI

A

subclinical infection

218
Q

what is the clinical manifestation of PCV2-RD

A

reproductive disease

219
Q

what is the clinical manifestation of PDNS

A

Porcine Dermatitis and Nephropathy Syndrome

220
Q

what is the clinical manifestation of PCV2-LD

A

lung disease

221
Q

what is the clinical manifestation of PCV2-ED

A

enteric disease

222
Q

name 6 things PCV2 is excreted in

A
  1. faeces
  2. urine
  3. salivia
  4. semen
  5. nasal secretions
  6. ocular secretions
223
Q

name 2 transmission routes of PCV2

A
  1. oronasal transmission
  2. transplacental
224
Q

name the 4 co-factors that must be present with pathogenic PCV2 strain in order to cause systemic disease

A
  1. host-dependent
  2. virus-dependent
  3. co-infections
  4. immune modulation

(one of the 4 must be present)

225
Q

progeny of certain lines of this pig breed seem more resistant to PCVD

A

Pietrain boars

226
Q

name 3 effects of PCV2-SD on the pig’s immune system

A
  1. lymphoid depletion
  2. granulomatous inflammation & histiocytic infiltration of lymphoid tissues
  3. lymphopaenia
227
Q

what age of pigs are most affected by PCV2-SD

A

6-16wks

228
Q

name 4 clinical signs of PCV2-SD

A
  1. wasting
  2. poor growth
  3. emaciation
  4. hairy
229
Q

name 5 pathological lesions of PCV2-SD

A
  1. enlarged LNs (esp inguinal, mesenteric, bronchia)
  2. interstitial pneumonia
  3. interlobular oedema
  4. enlarged and/or multiple white foci in kidneys
  5. enlarged spleen (with infarcts)
230
Q

this plan was designed to reduce infection pressure (PCV2 & any other infection),
improve hygiene,
& reduce stress at different production stages

A

Madec’s 20 point plan

231
Q

name the cause of ill-thrift in pigs

affects growing pigs;
high case fatality rate;
death due to renal failure;
Ddx: CSF and ASF;
type 3 hypersensitivity reaction

A

PDNS (Porcine Dermatitis and Nephropathy Syndrome)

232
Q

name 3 pathologies of PDNS (Porcine Dermatitis and Nephropathy Syndrome)

A
  1. vasculitis
  2. glomerulonephritis
  3. haemorrhagic dermatitis
233
Q

what will a kidney with golmerulonephritis caused by PDNS (Porcine Dermatitis and Nephropathy Syndrome) look like?

A

large & pale, speckled with small haemorrhages (turkey egg)

234
Q

how to prevent PCV2 in pigs?

A

PCV2 vaccination!!

235
Q

name the pig parasite causing ill-thrift

worldwide, present in the UK;
severe infectations are generally only associated with the poorest levels of hygiene;
modest presence in herds can have a significant effect in growth and feed efficiency;
severe liver damage/intestine block: vomiting, constipation, jaundice

A

Ascaris suum

236
Q

name 2 PM signs to diagnose Ascaris suum in pigs

A
  1. milk spots in liver
  2. adult worms in sm intestine
237
Q

how to diagnose Ascaris suum in the live pig

A

eggs: standard flotation

238
Q

name the pig parasite causing ill-thrift

multiply on the pig;
eggs laid in burrows,
lifecycle 14-15d;
spread by contact, survives in environment for 3wks;
very pruritic, scratching & rubbing;
skin exudation and crusting;
head shaking and sural haematomas

A

Sarcoptes scabei var suis

239
Q

how to treat mange in pigs

A

Avermectins (inj/feed)

240
Q

how often should boars be treated with avermectins for mange (if necessary)?

A

every 2-3mo

241
Q

how often should gilts be treated with avermectins for mange (if necessary)?

A

1-2wks before first service

Y4 Farm Animal (19 decks)

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