SCD - haematology Flashcards

1
Q

What should you ask for if a px is on warfarin

A

INR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does INR stand for

A

international normalised ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does INR test

A

prothrombin time aka time taken to clot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does INR need to be before tx begins

A

<4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What guidance do you refer to if unsure how to tx a patient on warfarin

A

SDCE management of patients taking anticoagulants or anti platelet drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When should a patient have their last INR done before commencing tx

A

ideally within 24h
can be up to 72 if px is stable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What drugs potentiate warfarin

A
  1. Amiodarone
  2. Antibiotics
  3. Alcohol (if px has liver disease)
  4. NSAIDs
  5. flucanzole/miconazole
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What drugs inhibit warfarin

A
  1. Carbamazepine
  2. Cholestyramine
  3. Griseofulvin
  4. Alcohol (without liver disease)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What antibiotic is high risk for warfarin interaction

A

metronidazole!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What antibiotics are low risk for warfarin

A

clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are dental procedures that are unlikely to cause bleeding

A
  • LA by infiltration, intraligamentary or mental nerve block
  • LA by inferior dental block or other regional nerve block
  • basic BPE
  • supragingival removal of plaque, calculus and stain
  • direct or indirect restorations with supragingival margins
  • orthograde endo
  • impressions and other prosthetic procedures
  • fitting and adjustment of ortho appliances
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are dental procedures that are low risk of post-op bleeding complications

A
  • simple extractions
  • incision and draininage of intra oral swellings
  • detailed 6PPC
  • root surface instrumentation and subgingival scaling
  • direct or indirect restorations with subgingival margins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What procedures are high risk for post-op bleeding complications

A
  • complex extractions, extractions that will cause a large wound of extracting more than 3 teeth
  • flap raising procedure
  • gingival recountering
  • biopsies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When should you change the dosing schedule for dental procedures?

A

only if the procedure is high risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If a patient is on apixiban, and you are performing a high risk procedure, what changes should the px make to their dosing schedule

A

miss the morning dose pre treatment

take their usual dose in the evening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If a patient is on dabigatran, and you are performing a high risk procedure, what changes should the px make to their dosing schedule

A

same as apixiban

Miss morning dose pre treatment

Usual dose in evening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If a patient is on rivaroxaban, and you are performing a high risk procedure, what changes should the px make to their dosing schedule

A

if takes it in the morning → delay morning dose and take it 4 hours after treatment

Otherwise take it as normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Patient has been booked in for a simple extraction of 25, she is on apixiban and she asks you if she should still take her medication leading up to it

A

she should take her medication as normal

this is not a high risk procedure because it is a simple extraction

it is classed as low risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Patient is coming in to get her 26 restored. It is quite a difficult restoration as it extends subgingivally. She is on dabigatran.

She tells you that last time she came in to get some teeth out, the dentist told her to skip her morning dose and move it to the evening.

She asks you if she should do this again

A

No, there is no need

Restorations with subgingival margins are low risk

She should stick to her usual dosing schedule

20
Q

New patient comes in, on taking a medical history and she tells you she previously had a heart attack and is now on aspirin, clopidogrel & rivaroxaban. She takes all her medications in the morning

You examine this patient and see this lesion. What will you do next in regard to this lesion and what will you tell the patient in regards to their medications

A

A biopsy will need to be taken

Biopsies are high risk procedures for post-operative bleeding

She should delay her morning dose and wait until 4 hours after the biopsy has been taken

21
Q

A patient with stage 3 grade B generalised periodontitis comes in for their second re-evaluation post having done PMPR (professional mechanical plaque removal) twice.

The pockets are >4mm and there is bleeding on probing however the patient’s oral hygiene is good.

You decide the next step is surgical access.

The patient is on dabigatran, what should you tell her regarding her dosing schedule

A

surgical access would require a flap to be raised

flap raising procedures are high risk

therefore she should miss her morning dose pre treatment and take her usual evening dose

22
Q

What is the advantages of new oral anti coagulants

A
  • Predictable
  • Short half life
  • Less interactions than warfarin
  • Generally, less need for lab monitoring
23
Q

What are the disadvantages of new oral anticoagulants

A
  • No standardised test for monitoring
  • The short half life can be a bad thing
  • Lack of antidote
  • Quite new
24
Q

What is haemophilia A

A
  • factor 8 deficiency
25
Q

What is haemophilia B

A
  • factor 9 deficiency
26
Q

What is von willebrand disease

A
  • von willebrand factor deficiency
27
Q

What can mild cases of haemophilia A/VWB take

A

DDAVP

28
Q

What does DDAVP do

A

help releases factor 8 from endothelial cells

29
Q

What is tranexamic acid

A

antifibrinolytic agent

30
Q

What is it that determines if a treatment is safe bleeding wise (haemophilics)

A

Examination/treatment that do not require manipulation of mucosa are safe in GDP setting

31
Q

What is it that determines if a treatment is safe bleeding wise

A

Examination/treatment that do not require manipulation of mucosa are safe in GDP setting

32
Q

What are risks of factor replacement

A
  • BBV if plasma derived factor
  • Risk of local site infection
  • Risk of inhibitor/antibodies developing
  • Cost
33
Q

What are medical conditions that increase bleeding risk

A
  • chronic renal failure
  • liver disease
  • haematological malignancy or myelodysplastic disorder
  • recent chemotherapy
  • advanced heart failure
  • mild forms of inherited bleeding disorders including all types of haemophilia/VWB
  • idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
34
Q

How does chronic renal failure increase bleeding risk

A

Associated platelet dysfunction

35
Q

How does liver disease increase bleeding risk

A

Reduced production of coagulation factors.

Reduction in platelet number and function due to splenomegaly.

Alcohol excess can also result in direct bone marrow toxicity and reduced platelet numbers.

36
Q

How does haematological malignancy/myelodysplastic disorder increase bleeding risk

A

Impaired coagulation or platelet function (even in remission).

37
Q

How does recent/current chemotherapy increase bleeding risk

A

Pancytopenia including reduced platelet numbers.

38
Q

How does advanced heart failure increase bleeding risk

A

Resulting liver failure.

39
Q

How do inherited bleeding disorders increase bleeding risk

A

Defective or reduced levels of coagulation factors.

40
Q

How does idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura increase bleeding risk

A

Reduced platelet numbers.

41
Q

What drug groups increase bleeding risk

A
  • anticoagulants
  • antiplatelets
  • cytotoxic
  • NSAID
  • drugs effecting nervous system i.e SSRI
  • carbamazepine
42
Q

How can anticoagulants/antiplatelets increase bleeding risk

A

Patients can be on dual, multiple or combined antiplatelet or anticoagulant therapies. These patients are likely to have a higher risk of bleeding complications than those on single drug regimes.

43
Q

How do cytotoxic drugs effect bleeding

A

These can reduce platelet numbers and/or impair liver function affecting production of coagulation factors.

44
Q

How do NSAIDs effect bleeding

A

Impair platelet function to various extents

45
Q

How do SSRIs effect bleeding

A

SSRIs have the potential to impair platelet aggregation and, although unlikely to be clinically significant in isolation, may in combination with other antiplatelet drugs increase the bleeding time.

46
Q

How does carbamazepine effect bleeding

A

Carbamazepine can affect both liver function and bone marrow production of platelets. Patients most at risk are those recently started on this medication or following dose adjustment.

47
Q

Is topical miconazole safe for warfarin takers

A

no!