[S1] LEC: Overview of Immunity Flashcards

1
Q

Composed of cells, tissues, and organs that provides the body mechanisms to resist infection and disease

A

Lymphoid system

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2
Q

Classification of lymphoid organ where the acquisition of immunocompetency happens

A

Primary lymphoid organs (bone marrow & thymus)

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3
Q

Classification of lymphoid organ where the encounter of immune cells with antigens happen

A

Secondary lymphoid organs (lymph nodes, MALTs, GALTs, tonsils, etc.)

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4
Q

Cell of the immune system:

Mediators of humoral immunity

A

B lymphocytes

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5
Q

Cell of the immune system:

Mediators of cell-mediated immunity

A

T lymphocytes

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6
Q

APC:

Initiation of T cell responses

A

Dendritic cells

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7
Q

APC:

Effector phase of cell-mediated immunity

A

Macrophages

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8
Q

APC:

Display of antigens to B lymphocytes in humoral immune responses

A

Follicular dendritic cells

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9
Q

Effector cell:

Activation of phagocytes, killing infected cells

A

T lymphocytes

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10
Q

Effector cell:

Phagocytosis and killing of microbes

A

Macrophages

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11
Q

Effector cell:

Killing microbes

A

Granulocytes

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12
Q

Granulocytes fall under ___ immunity

A

Innate

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13
Q

The monocyte fall under ___ immunity

A

Innate and acquired

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14
Q

The lymphocyte fall under ___ immunity

A

Acquired

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15
Q

Monocytes in the tissue are called ___

A

Macrophages

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16
Q

One method to distinguish a lymphocyte is through its ___

A

CD marker

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17
Q

Surface immunoglobulins in B lymphocyte

A

IgM, IgD

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18
Q

CD marker of B cell

A

CD 19, CD20

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19
Q

Two common CD marker of both T helper cell and T cytotoxic cell

A

CD2, CD3

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20
Q

CD marker of the T cell that forms a rosette formation around the sheep RBC

A

CD2

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21
Q

CD marker of the T cell that is complexed with the T cell receptor

A

CD3

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22
Q

CD marker of T helper cell

A

CD4

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23
Q

CD marker of T cytotoxic cell

A

CD8

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24
Q

Subtypes of T helper cell

A

Th1, Th2, Th17, Treg

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25
Q

The primary function of this specific T cell is to secrete cytokines

A

T helper cell

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26
Q

T/F: Only immune cells are able to produce cytokines

A

False (Cytokines can also be produced by endothelial cells and fibroblasts aside from immune cells)

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27
Q

Aside from immune cells, cytokines can also be produced by ___ and ___

A

Endothelial cells and Fibroblasts

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28
Q

T cell involved in direct killing once it recognizes antigens

A

T cytotoxic cell (via apoptosis)

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29
Q

Able to capture or acquire antigen and process them to be presented to another cell

A

Antigen-presenting cells

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30
Q

The most efficient APC

A

Dendritic cells

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31
Q

Hallmark of AIDS

A

<200 CD4

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32
Q

MCH class that acts on antigen-presenting cells

A

Class II

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33
Q

Class II MHC will be presented to which specific T cell?

A

T helper cell

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34
Q

CD4 is recognized by which MCH class?

A

Class II

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35
Q

APC that has a humoral immune response

A

Follicular dendritic cell

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36
Q

Cell of the immune system that is capable of direct killing without prior exposure

A

Natural killer cell

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37
Q

CD marker of natural killer cell

A

CD16, CD56

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38
Q

Type of phagocytosis exhibited by neutrophils

A

Frustrated

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39
Q

Neutrophils are also known as ___

A

Kamikaze cells

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40
Q

Macrophage in the brain

A

Microglia

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41
Q

Macrophage in the liver

A

Kupffer cells

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42
Q

Macrophage in the skin

A

Langerhans cells

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43
Q

Fetal macrophages

A

Hofbauer cells

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44
Q

Also called “chemotaxin”, this complement peptide is a chemotactic factor of neutrophil

A

C’ peptide - c5a

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45
Q

A chemotactic factor of the neutrophil that is present in gram-positive bacteria

A

Bacterial lipotechoic acid

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46
Q

A chemotactic factor of the neutrophil that can release metachromatic granules

A

Mast cell derived chemotactic peptide

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47
Q

Interleukin chemotactic peptide of the neutrophil

A

Interleukin 8

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48
Q

A chemotactic factor of monocyte/macrophage that is able to activate leukocyte and is secreted by platelets and plays an important role in inflammation

A

RANTES (Regulated on Activation, Normal T Cell Expressed and Secreted)/ CCL5

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49
Q

Opsonin receptor present in neutrophils and monocytes/macrophages that can recognize the Fc portion of IgG

A

FcyR - IgG

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50
Q

Opsonin receptor present in neutrophils and monocytes/macrophages that recognizes complement

A

Complement receptor 1 (CR1) - C3b

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51
Q

Opsonin receptor present in neutrophils and monocytes/macrophages that recognizes C-reactive proteins

A

CRP Receptors

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52
Q

Well-studied pattern recognition receptors in the monocyte/macrophage

A

Toll like receptors

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53
Q

T/F: TLR are found in neutrophils

A

False (present in monocyte/macrophage)

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54
Q

Life span of neutrophils

A

Short lived

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55
Q

Life span of monocyte/ macrophage

A

Long lived

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56
Q

T/F: Receptors for tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and IFNy are present in neutrophils

A

False

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57
Q

T/F: Receptors for tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and IFNy are present in monocyte/macrophage

A

True

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58
Q

Cell of the innate immune system:

Has a major basic protein

A

Eosinophil

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59
Q

Cell of the innate immune system:

Contain the metachromatic granules mediating inflammation

A

Basophil

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60
Q

Tissue counterpart of the basophil that mediate inflammation

A

Mast cells

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61
Q

Cell of the innate immune system:

Has abundant FcE receptors and has a high affinity to IgE

A

Mast cells

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62
Q

Cell of the innate immune system:

First line of defense against helminthic infection

A

Eosinophil

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63
Q

Cell of the innate immune system:

Regulates the immune response

A

Eosinophil

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64
Q

Cell of the innate immune system:

Smallest granulocyte

A

Basophil

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65
Q

Cell of the innate immune system:

Can enhance and suppress the adaptive immune response

A

Mast cells

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66
Q

Has the most number of Class II MHC molecules

A

Dendritic cells

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67
Q

Most potent phagocytic cell

A

Dendritic cells

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68
Q

Types of dendritic cell

A

Classical/ Conventional
Plasmacytoid dendritic cell

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69
Q

Type of dendritic cell that can release type 1 interferon

A

Plasmacytoid dendritic cell

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70
Q

T/F: Dendritic cells can also coordinate with T cytotoxic cell

A

True

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71
Q

Process of dendritic cell wherein an antigen presentation pathway is bypassed

A

Cross priming/ Cross presentation

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72
Q

MHC class present in nucleated cells

A

Class I

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73
Q

APC capable of cross priming/ cross presentation

A

Dendritic cells

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74
Q

Organelle responsible for cross priming/ cross presentation

A

Proteasomes

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75
Q

Cytokines that activate NK cells that increases in viral infection and is also produced by macrophages

A

IL2, IL7, IL12, Interferon a, Interferon B

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76
Q

NK cells are also known as ___

A

Large granular lymphocytes

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77
Q

CD marker of NK cell that is involved in antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity

A

CD16

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78
Q

Coats the target cell to recognize the Fc receptors and destroys the antigen

A

Antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxity (ADCC)

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79
Q

CD marker of the NK cell that may play an important role in mediating cells

A

CD56

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80
Q

Cytokines that promote NK cells

A

IL2, IL7, IL12, Interferon a, Interferon B

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81
Q

T/F: In viral infections, NK cell is one of the first cells to be activated

A

True

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82
Q

Receptor of NK cell:

Bind to diseased and cancer cells

A

Killer activation receptors (CD16 & NKG2D)

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83
Q

Receptor of NK cell:

Prevent killing of self cells

A

Killer inhibitory receptors

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84
Q

Receptor of NK cell:

Binds to MHC Class I

A

CD94/ NKG2A

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85
Q

Stress molecules that release granzymes and porphyrins and removes Class I MHC molecules to kill the antigen

A

MICA, MICB

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86
Q

T/F: If the cells exhibit abundant Class I MHC molecules, the cell will be killed by the NK cell

A

False (it will be recognized as a normal cell)

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87
Q

An immune response that is stronger in the second exposure

A

Anamnestic response

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88
Q

The process of development of lymphocytes

A

Ontogeny

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89
Q

T-cell differentiation:

Precursor cell

A

Lymphoid stem cells

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90
Q

T-cell differentiation:

Chemokines responsible for cell migration of T-cell from bone marrow to thymus

A

CD34, Terminal Deoxynucleotidyl Transferase (TDT), CD7

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91
Q

T-cell differentiation:

Once the chemokines are activated, the precursor cells will enter the ___

A

Corticomedullary junction

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92
Q

T-cell differentiation:

Cells that will enter the corticomedullary junction

A

Prothymocytes/ T-lymphocyte precursor

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93
Q

T-cell differentiation:

How many percent prothymocytes will die in the process?

A

97%

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94
Q

T-cell differentiation:

After entering the corticomedullary junction, the prothymocyte will go to the ___

A

Cortex

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95
Q

T-cell differentiation:

The production of T-cell receptor happens in the ___

A

Cortex

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96
Q

T-cell differentiation:

In the cortex, after prothymocyte, it will turn into ___

A

Pro-T cells

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97
Q

T-cell differentiation:

Pro-T cells are also called ___

A

Double negative thymocytes

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98
Q

T-cell differentiation:

CD markers of thymocytes

A

CD44, CD25

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99
Q

T-cell differentiation:

Marker that promotes the development of cells

A

IL7

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100
Q

T-cell differentiation:

After being a pro-T cell, it will be ___

A

Pre-T cell

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101
Q

T-cell differentiation:

Pre-T cell is also known as ___

A

Double positive thymocyte

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102
Q

T-cell differentiation:

CD marker of Pro-T cell

A

CD2, CD5, CD7

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103
Q

T-cell differentiation:

There is a random rearrangement of the genes that code for the TCR and produces the gamma, delta, alpha, beta chain

A

Pro-T cells

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104
Q

T-cell differentiation:

Chromosome ___ plays an important role in the production of TCR

A

Chromosome 7

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105
Q

T-cell differentiation:

CD marker of Pre-T cell

A

CD2, CD3, CD4, CD5, CD7, CD8, TDT

106
Q

T-cell differentiation:

CD marker of Pre-T cell associated with TCR

107
Q

T-cell differentiation:

Survival of cells that do not recognize self antigens

A

Positive selection

108
Q

T-cell differentiation:

Death of cells that recognize self antigens

A

Negative selection

109
Q

T/F: Only T cells with a functional TCR will survive

110
Q

T/F: A mature T-cell will be positive for TDT

111
Q

T-cell differentiation:

CD marker in mature T cells

A

CD2, CD3, CD4 (T helper), CD8 (T cytotoxic)

112
Q

T-cell differentiation:

Cytokines secreted by Th1

A

Interferon-y, IL2, TNF-B

113
Q

T-cell differentiation:

Th responsible for the activation of macrophage for intracellular organisms

114
Q

T-cell differentiation:

Cytokines released by Th2

A

IL4, IL5, IL6, IL9, IL10, IL13

115
Q

T-cell differentiation:

Th responsible for activation of B lymphocyte; for antibody production

116
Q

T-cell differentiation:

Cytokine produced by Th17

117
Q

T-cell differentiation:

Th responsible for fungal response

118
Q

T-cell differentiation:

CD marker for T regulatory cell

119
Q

T-cell differentiation:

After being differentiated into either CD4 or CD8 positive cells, the T-cells will traverse into ___ as effector cells

A

Secondary lymphoid organs

120
Q

T-cell differentiation:

CD marker of memory T cells

121
Q

B-cell differentiation:

Precursor cell

A

Lymphoid stem cell

122
Q

B-cell differentiation:

Growth factors involved for the lymphoid stem cell to be pro-B cells

A

E2A, IFR8, EB8

123
Q

B-cell differentiation:

Stage where there is a rearrangement of genes to code for heavy and light chains

A

Pro-B cell

124
Q

B-cell differentiation:

Cytokine released by Pro-B cell

125
Q

B-cell differentiation:

The genes that code for heavy chain is found in chromosome ___

126
Q

B-cell differentiation:

The genes that code for light chain is found in chromosome ___

127
Q

B-cell differentiation:

In the Pro-B cell stage, this activates the gene rearrangement

A

C-KIT receptors

128
Q

B-cell differentiation:

CD marker of Pro-B cells

A

CD34, CD19, CD20, TDT

129
Q

B-cell differentiation:

Stage where the gene is used to form the heavy chain of antibody

A

Pre-B cell

130
Q

B-cell differentiation:

The first heavy chain to be formed in the Pre-B cell

131
Q

B-cell differentiation:

First type of light chain to be produced together with the heavy chain

A

Surrogate light chain

132
Q

B-cell differentiation:

Formed by heavy chain and surrogate light chain

A

B cell receptor

133
Q

B-cell differentiation:

CD marker of Pre-B cell

A

CD19, CD20, TDT

134
Q

B-cell differentiation:

Stage where the surface immunoglobulin (complete IgM) is formed

A

Immature B cell

135
Q

B-cell differentiation:

CD marker of immature B cell

136
Q

B-cell differentiation:

CD marker of immature B cell that is the CR2 receptor for complement activation

137
Q

B-cell differentiation:

Type of mature B cells that go to the secondary lymphoid organs

A

Follicular B cells

138
Q

B-cell differentiation:

CD marker of mature B cells

A

CD19, CD20, IgM, IgD

139
Q

B-cell differentiation:

Specific marker for mature B cell

140
Q

B-cell differentiation:

Stage where the B cell will be antigen dependent

A

Mature B cells (all the earlier stages are independent)

141
Q

B-cell differentiation:

B cell subset present in adults

142
Q

B-cell differentiation:

Marker of activated B cells

143
Q

Effector function of T helper cell

A

Cytokine production

144
Q

CD marker of plasma cells

A

CD38, CD78, CD126, CD138

145
Q

Effector cells of B-cells

A

Plasma cells

146
Q

T/F: The nucleus of a plasma cell is centric

A

False (eccentric)

147
Q

Appearance of plasma cell nucleus

A

Wagon wheel

148
Q

T/F: Plasma cells are CD19 and CD20 negative

149
Q

Region of plasma cell where the rough endoplasmic reticulum is found

150
Q

CD marker of plasma cell that mediates inflammation

A

CD126/ IL6

151
Q

CD marker of memory B cell

152
Q

Source and birthplace of all hematopoietic stem cells

A

Bone marrow/ Myeloid tissue

153
Q

Growth factors for hematopoietic cells

A

C-KIT, IL3, IL7, CSFs, Flt-3 ligand

154
Q

Areas where immune cells acquire immunocompetency

A

Primary lymphoid organs

155
Q

Site of antigen independent lymphopoiesis

A

Primary lymphoid organs

156
Q

In birds, the bone marrow of human is the ___

A

Bursa of Fabricius

157
Q

A bilobed lymphoid organ above the heart where the development of functional T-cells happen

158
Q

Thymic cortical epithelial cells of the thymus producing IL7

A

Hassall’s corpuscles

159
Q

Distinct feature of the thymus that secretes cytokines and regulate dendritic cells found in the medullary region

A

Hassall’s corpuscles

160
Q

Site of final maturation and differentiation where antigen dependent differentiation occur

A

Secondary lymphoid organ

161
Q

Encapsulated secondary organs

A

Spleen, lymph nodes

162
Q

Non-encapsulated secondary organs

A

MALTs, CALTs, GALTs, tonsils, etc.

163
Q

Central collecting points for lymph fluid from adjacent tissues

A

Lymph node

164
Q

Provides an environment where immune cells can interact with foreign agents from tissues

A

Lymph node

165
Q

Structure of lymph node:

B cell area

166
Q

Structure of lymph node:

T cell area, APCs, dendritic cells

A

Paracortex

167
Q

Structure of lymph node:

Abundant plasma cells, T cells, B cells, Macrophages

168
Q

The center of the secondary follicle of the lymph node is the ___

A

Germinal Center of Flemming

169
Q

APCs in the T cell area in the paracortex of the lymph node

A

Interdigitating cells

170
Q

Site in the lymph node where primed B cells are situated

A

Secondary follicle

171
Q

Site in the lymph node where resting B cells are situated

A

Primary follicle

172
Q

Where do naive T cells enter in the lymph nodes?

A

High endothelial venule (HEV)

173
Q

Where do lymphocytes, antigens, pathogens enter in the lymph nodes?

A

Afferent lymphatic vessels

174
Q

Filters blood of its impurities

175
Q

Largest secondary lymphoid organs

176
Q

Site in the spleen where the destruction of senescent RBCs happen

177
Q

Structure of the white pulp of the spleen where the T cells are found

A

Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath

178
Q

Structure of the white pulp of the spleen where the unstimulated B cells are found

A

Primary follicle

179
Q

Structure of the white pulp of the spleen where the dendritic cells are found

A

Marginal zone

180
Q

The process of the leukocytes moving from blood to tissue or site of injury

181
Q

Protein PAMP of bacteria

A

Pilin, Flagelin

182
Q

Nucleic acid PAMP of viruses

A

ssRNA, dsRNA, CpG

183
Q

Nucleic acid PAMP of bacteria

184
Q

Cell wall lipid PAMP of gram-negative bacteria

185
Q

Cell wall lipid PAMP of gram-positive bacteria

A

Lipoteichoic acid

186
Q

Carbohydrate PAMP of fungi

A

Mannan, Glucans

187
Q

Carbohydrate PAMP of bacteria

188
Q

Molecules that limit spread of viruses and viral replication that is part of secondary line of defense

A

Interferons

189
Q

Fever-inducing cytokine

190
Q

Produced by plasmacytoid dendritic cells and virus infected cells, fibroblasts

A

Type I interferon

191
Q

Collection of circulating and membrane associated proteins that mediate inflammatory responses

A

Complement system

192
Q

3 effector functions of complement system

A

Opsonization
Cell lysis
Inflammation

193
Q

Serum molecules that are sensitive indicators of inflammaion

A

Acute phase proteins or acute phase reactants

194
Q

A marker of inflammation

A

Acute phase proteins or acute phase reactants

195
Q

Antibody-like substance found in trace amount in serum

196
Q

Has cytokine-like activity; activates monocytes and macrophages to promote inflammation

A

Serum Amyloid A

197
Q

Among the complement system pathways, which one is part of adaptive immunity?

A

Classical pathway

198
Q

Among the complement system pathways, which is part of innate immunity?

A

Alternative pathway
Lectin pathway

199
Q

Surrogate marker of APR

200
Q

General plasma inhibitor of proteases

A

Alpha-1-antitrypsin

201
Q

“Mop up” effects of neutrophil invasion

A

Alpha-1-antitrypsin

202
Q

Antioxidant to provide protection against release of free hemoglobin

A

Haptoglobin

203
Q

Involved in coagulation/clotting

A

Fibrinogen

204
Q

For copper transport

A

Ceruloplasmin

205
Q

Target substance of TLR1

A

Lipopeptides

206
Q

Target substance of TLR2

A

Peptidoglycan, lipoproteins, zymosan

207
Q

Target substance of TLR4

A

Lipopolysaccharide, fusion proteins, mannan

208
Q

Target substance of TLR5

209
Q

Target substance of TLR6

A

Lipopeptides, lipoteichoic acid, zymosan

210
Q

Target endosomal compartment of TLR3

A

Double-stranded RNA

211
Q

Target endosomal compartment of TLR7

A

Single-stranded RNA

212
Q

Target endosomal compartment of TLR8

A

Single-stranded RNA

213
Q

Target endosomal compartment of TLR9

A

Double-stranded DNA

214
Q

Target endosomal compartment of TLR10

215
Q

Target microorganism of TLR1

A

Mycobacteria

216
Q

Target microorganism of TLR2

A

Gram-pos bacteria, mycobacteria, yeast

217
Q

Target microorganism of TLR4

A

Gram-neg bacteria, RSV fungi

218
Q

Target microorganism of TLR5

A

Bacteria with flagellae

219
Q

Target microorganism of TLR6

A

Mycobacteria, gram-positive bacteria, yeasts

220
Q

TLRs that target RNA viruses

A

TLR3, TLR7, TLR8

221
Q

TLRs that target mycobacteria

A

TLR1, TL2, TLR6

222
Q

Cytosolic receptors that detect PAMPs and DAMPs

A

NOD-Like receptors

223
Q

NOD-like receptors specific for bacterial peptidoglycans

A

NOD-1, NOD-2

224
Q

NOD-like receptors for unrelated microbial structures or pathologic changes

225
Q

Receptors that recognizes RNA produced by viruses

A

RIG-like receptors

226
Q

Receptors that recognize cytosolic viral DNA

A

Cytosolic DNA sensors

227
Q

Receptors that involved in phagocytosis of fungi and bacteria and inflammatory processes

A

Lectin receptor

228
Q

Lectin receptor for fungal glycans

229
Q

A complex reaction to various injurious agents

A

Inflammation

230
Q

T/F: The consistency of lymphatic tissues is similar to plasma

231
Q

T/F: The final maturation and differentiation of immune cells happen in the secondary lymphoid organs

232
Q

Predominant immune cell in acute inflammation

A

Neutrophil

233
Q

T/F: Macrophage is a less potent but more efficient phagocyte compared to monocyte

A

False: macrophage is MORE POTENT but LESS EFFICIENT due to slower movement

234
Q

Immune cell with a kidney-shaped nucleus and dust-like granules

235
Q

Cytokine that induces CRP secretion

236
Q

Cytokine that activates NK cell by interferon-gamma secretion

237
Q

Described as dust-laden macrophages

A

Alveolar macrophage

238
Q

CD marker of NK cell capable of binding to the antibody found in the surface of the antigen

239
Q

CD marker of NK cell where the Fc receptor is located

240
Q

Immune cell described as having a smooth surface

241
Q

Immune cell described as having a rough surface

242
Q

T/F: Lymphocyte capping occurs during the immature B cell phase

A

False: it happens only in the mature B cell

243
Q

Lymphocyte that is more abundant in the blood

244
Q

Immune cell that is present in the germinal centers of lymphoid follicles and presents antigen that stimulate B cell differentiation

A

Follicular dendritic cells

245
Q

Ligand that targets dendritic cells and B cells

246
Q

The first lymphoid organ to develop

247
Q

Concentric structures in the medulla of the thymus, composed of thymic epithelial cells

A

Hassall’s corpuscles

248
Q

T/F: Hassall’s corpuscles may also play an important role in removing apoptotic thymocytes

249
Q

Cells present in the germinal center of Fleming

A

Centroblast
Centrocyte

250
Q

Where does the lymph fluid enter in the lymph node?

A

Afferent lymphatic vessel

251
Q

Enumerate the flow of the lymph fluid in the sinuses of the lymph nodes after entering the afferent lymphatic vessel

A

Subcapsular sinus&raquo_space; Trabecular sinus&raquo_space; Medullary sinus

252
Q

Where will the lymph fluid go after flowing through the medullary sinus?

A

Efferent lymphatic vessel

253
Q

Cells that are responsible for mucosal immunity, which takes up pathogen to bring to other lymphoid organ and is commonly present in MALTs

A

M cells (Microfold cells)

254
Q

Spermine, as basic polypeptide that is a part of the 2nd line of defense, inhibits which group of bacteria?

255
Q

Also known as the leukocyte interferon

A

Alpha interferon

256
Q

Also known as the fibro-epithelial interferon

A

Beta interferon

257
Q

Interferons that are responsible in macrophage activation

A

Type II (gamma) interferon

258
Q

Identify the form of adaptive immunity:

Person participates in the production of immune factors

A

Active adaptive immunity

259
Q

Identify the form of adaptive immunity:

Person receives pre-formed immune factors or antibodies from another person

A

Passive adaptive immunity

260
Q

CD marker of B1 cell