2S [LAB]: Intro to Serology Flashcards

1
Q

Branch of immunology which is concerned with Ag-Ab reactions in vitro

A

Serology

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2
Q

Used to detect presence of antigen/s or antibody/ies in serum for detection of diseases

A

Serology

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3
Q

States that free reactants are in equilibrium with bound reactants

A

Law of Mass of Action

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4
Q

The initial force of attraction that exist between a single Fab site and a single epitope

A

Affinity

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5
Q

Sum of all the attractive forces between an antigen and an antibody

A

Avidity

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6
Q

Type of antigen-antibody reaction:

The noncovalent, reversible intermolecular interactions between antigen and Fab region of an Ab

A

Primary reaction

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7
Q

Type of antigen-antibody reaction:

Reactions that occur following antigen-antibody binding

A

Secondary reaction

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8
Q

Type of antigen-antibody reaction:

Include in vivo biological expressions of antibody reactivity resulting from either their primary or secondary interactions with the antigen

A

Tertiary reaction

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9
Q

Assays that use labels for quantification of antigen-antibody reaction

A

Labeled immunoassays

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10
Q

Main advantage of labeled immunoassay

A

Quantification of antigen-antibody reaction

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11
Q

Serologic principle involving the aggregation of soluble antigens in the presence of specific antibodies

A

Precipitation

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12
Q

Required number of binding sites in precipitation reaction

A

at least two

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13
Q

A measure of the turbidity or cloudiness of a solution

A

Turbidimetry

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14
Q

Measures the light that is scattered at a particular angle from the incident beam as it passes through a suspension

A

Nephelometry

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15
Q

A type of immunoprecipitation that is a quick qualitative test for the presence of antigen-antibody complexes

A

Precipitin ring test

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16
Q

A type of immunoprecipitation that involves the simultaneous migration of antigens and antibodies toward each other through an agar gel matrix

A

Gel precipitation test

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17
Q

Almost similar to precipitation which involves the agitation of the suspension of non-cellular antigens and their antibodies thus producing a flocculent mass or precipitate

A

Flocculation

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18
Q

The number of multivalent sites of antigen and antibody are approximately equal

A

Zone of equivalence

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19
Q

Phenomenon that refers to the diffusion of antigen and/or antibodies until the antigen and antibodies meet in the correct proportion and then precipitate out of solution

A

Immunodiffusion

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20
Q

Earliest gel precipitation techniques

A

Single Linear Immunodiffusion

21
Q

Single Linear Immunodiffusion is developed by ___

A

James Oudin

22
Q

End point method of single radial immunodiffusion

A

Mancini method

23
Q

Kinetic method of single radial immunodiffusion

A

Fahey and McKelvey

24
Q

A precipitation technique where the antigen and antibody are placed parallel to each other and diffuse through a gel medium until they meet at an equivalence ratio

A

Double simple immunodiffusion

25
Q

AKA double diffusion, double immunodiffusion, or double angular immunodiffusion

A

Ouchterlony method

26
Q

Ouchterlony method is based on diffusion of how many reagents?

27
Q

Rocket immunoelectrophoresis is developed by ___

28
Q

AKA voltage facilitated double immunodiffusion

A

Counter immunoelectrophoresis

29
Q

Immunofixation electrophoresis was first described by ___

A

Alper and Johnson

30
Q

Sample used in immunofixation electrophoresis in multiple sclerosis diagnosis

31
Q

Sample used in immunofixation electrophoresis in multiple myeloma

32
Q

If an immunofixation electrophoresis has a faint band, this is indicative of ___

A

Hypogammaglobulinemia

33
Q

If an immunofixation electrophoresis has a dark band, this is indicative of ___

A

Polyclonal hypergammaglobulinemia

34
Q

If an immunofixation electrophoresis has a dark and narrow band, this is indicative of ___

A

Monoclonal bands (MM, WM)

35
Q

Serologic principle involving the aggregation of particulate antigens in the presence of a specific antibodies

A

Agglutination

36
Q

Agglutination reaction that uses known antigen intrinsic in clinical sample or from unknown samples of microorganisms

A

Direct agglutination

37
Q

Principle of widal test

A

Direct agglutination

38
Q

Principle of rheumatoid factor test

A

Indirect/ Passive agglutination

39
Q

Agglutination reaction that uses known antigen which has been coated with particles to detect unknown antibodies

A

Indirect/ Passive agglutination

40
Q

Indirect agglutination that utilizes a known antigen that coats on latex or other inert particles to identify antibodies on a patient’s serum

A

Classic passive agglutination

41
Q

Indirect agglutination wherein the antibody is covalently linked to the carrier particle and mixed with a patient’s serum in order to detect the presence of the unknown antigen or other immune factors

A

Reverse passive agglutination

42
Q

An agglutination reaction based on competitive binding assay

A

Agglutination-inhibition reaction

43
Q

An agglutination reaction wherein a known antibody is made to react with serum to detect presence of antigens then antigen-coated latex particle is added to check for sensitization

A

Agglutination-inhibition reaction

44
Q

A type of serologic reaction wherein specific antibodies as they bind to their corresponding antigens are able to block the chemical activity of biologic effects of the antigen

A

Neutralization

45
Q

First phase of complement fixation test

A

Bacteriolytic phase

46
Q

In the bacteriolytic phase of complement fixation test, the reagent is ___

A

Bacteria coated with antigen

47
Q

In the bacteriolytic phase of complement fixation test, the complement is sourced from ___

A

Guinea pig serum

48
Q

In the indicator phase of complement fixation test, the reagent is ___

A

Sheep RBC with anti-sheep RBC

49
Q

Electrophoretic counterpart of Oudin test

A

Rocket immunoelectrophoresis