QUIZ Flashcards

1
Q

The inability to encode or retain new knowledge after a traumatic brain injury is known as

A

anterograde amnesia

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2
Q

The episodic buffer in Baddley’s model of memory serves as

A

To bring information from and store information in reference memory

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3
Q

Shanta has frontal lobe damage. She is doing a problem solving task in which she has to choose the red object out of many choices. She can easily complete this repeatedly, but when the experimenter asks her to choose the blue object on a new trial of the task, she continues to choose the red one, even when the experimenter gives her feedback that she is incorrect. Shanta is displaying

A

Preservation

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4
Q

In Slameka and Graf’s (1978) study, some participants read word pairs, while other participants had to fill in the blank letters of the second word in a pair with a word related to the first word. The later group performed better on a later memory task, illustrating the

a.spacing effect
b. generation effect
c. cued recall effect
d. multiple trace hypothesis

A

b. generation effect

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5
Q

According to the typicality effect

a. items that are high in prototypicality are judged more rapidly as being in a group.
b. objects in a category have a family resemblance to one another
c. we remember typical objects better than non-typical objects
d. objects that are not typical stand out and so are more easily remembered

A

items that are high in prototypicality are judged more rapidly as being in a group

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5
Q

In evaluating retrieval rates for category information for a concept, Collins and Quillian’s semantic hierarchy model would predict the slowest reaction times for which of the following statements using a sentence verification technique?

a. a field sparrow is a field sparrow
b. a field sparrow is a bird
c. a field sparrow is an animal
d. a field sparrow is a sparrow

A

A field sparrow is an animal

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6
Q

The semantic hierarchy model predicts that the time it takes for a person to retrieve information about a concept should be determined by

a. the amount of information contained in each concept.
b. the distance that must be traveled through the network.
c. the typicality of the information contained in each concept.
d. the representativeness of the information contained in each concept.

A

the distance that must be traveled through the network

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7
Q

Rosch found that participants respond more rapidly in a same-difference task when presented with “good” examples of colors such as “red” and “green” than when they are presented with “poor” examples such as “pink” or “light green” The result of this experiment was interpreted as supporting the _________ approach to categorization

a. exemplar
b. network
c. prototype
d. parallel processing

A

prototype

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8
Q

________ is an average representation of a category based on one’s experiences

A. Icons
B. Prototypes
C. Units
D. Exemplars

A

An exemplar

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9
Q

The idea of a grandmother cell is consistent with

A

specificity coding

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10
Q

The main difference between early and late selection models of attention is that in late selection models, selection of stimuli for final processing doesn’t occur until the information is analyzed for

A

meaning

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11
Q

When Sam listens to his girlfriend Susan in the restaurant and ignores other people’s conversations, he is engaged in the process of ____ attention.

A

selective

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12
Q

The Stroop effect demonstrates

A. how automatic processing can interfere with controlled processing.
B. a failure of divided attention.
C. the ease of performing a low-load task.
D. support for object-based attention.

A

A

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13
Q

Suppose two teenagers are vying for their mother’s attention. The mother is trying to pay attention to one of her daughters, though both girls are talking (one about her boyfriend, one about a school project). According to the operating characteristics of Treisman’s attenuator, it is most likely the attenuator is analyzing the incoming messages in terms of the

a. physical characteristics.
b. language.
c. meaning.
d. direction.

A

physical characteristics and meaning of the message.

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14
Q

A high threshold in Treisman’s model of attention implies that

A

it takes a strong signal to cause activation.

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15
Q

One reason that most people do not easily solve the original (abstract) version of the Wason four-card problem is that they

A. ignore the falsification principle.
B. are influenced by the atmosphere effect.
C. confuse the ideas of validity and truth.
D. incorrectly apply the permission schema.

A

ignore the falsification principle

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16
Q

Ali works for Citrus Squeeze, a company that makes orange juice. Sales of their calcium-enhanced OJ have been poor, and the product was canceled. His factory still had three cases of cartons, and Ali was told he could take them if he wanted them. With the cartons, Ali made several birdfeeders for his backyard and also planted tree seedlings in some of them; he used the remaining ones to build a “fort” for his four-year-old son. Ali’s use of the cartons represents

A

divergent thinking

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17
Q

Mia has lived in New York City all her life. She has noticed that people from upper Manhattan walk really fast, but people from lower Manhattan tend to walk slowly. Mia’s observations are likely influenced from a judgment error based on her using

a. the law of large numbers.
b. an atmosphere effect.
c. an illusory correlation.
d. the falsification principle.

A

an illusory correlation

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18
Q

Boxing champion George Foreman recently described his family vacations with the statement, “At our ranch in Marshall, Texas, there are lots of ponds and I take the kids out and we fish. And then of course, we grill them.” That a reader understands “them” appropriately (George grills fish, not his kids!) is the result of a(n) _____ inference.

analogic
instrument
anaphoric
narrative

A

anaphoric

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19
Q

Tanenhaus and coworkers’ eye movement study presented participants with different pictures for interpreting the sentence, “Put the apple on the towel in the box.” Their results showed the importance of _____ in how we understand sentences in real-life situations.

A) the cooperative principle
B) environmental context
C) instrumental inferences
D) local connections

A

environmental context

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20
Q

f the following is the best example of a garden path sentence?

A) The Eskimos were frightened by the walrus.

B) The cats won’t bake.

C) Before the police stopped the Toyota disappeared into the night.

D)The man was not surprised when he found several spiders, roaches, and other bugs in the corner of the room.

A

Before the police stopped the Toyota disappeared into the night.

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21
Q

Your text describes an “Italian woman” who, after an attack of encephalitis, had difficulty remembering people or facts she knew before. She could, however, remember her life events and daily tasks. Her memory behavior reflects

A) intact semantic memory but defective episodic memory.

B) intact procedural memory but defective episodic memory.

C) intact episodic memory but defective semantic memory.

D) intact episodic memory but defective procedural memory

A

C) intact episodic memory but defective semantic memory.

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22
Q

An advantage of the exemplar approach over the prototype approach is that the exemplar approach provides a better explanation of the ________ effect.

resemblance
priming
reaction-time
typicality

A

typicality

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23
Q

When investigating the serial position curve, delaying the memory test for 30 seconds

A) increases the primacy effect.

B) increases both the primacy and the recency effects.

C) decreases the recency effect.

D) has no effect on the curve.

A

C) decreases the recency effect.

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24
Q

Which of the following is most closely associated with implicit memory?

The self-reference effect

The propaganda effect

Release from proactive inhibition

Encoding specificity

A

The propaganda effect

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25
Q

Which task below would most likely be used to test for implicit memory?

Recognizing words that had been presented in an earlier list

Recalling the names of popular fairy tales

Matching Spanish vocabulary words with their English translations

Completing a word for which the first and last letter have been supplied

A

Completing a word for which the first and last letter have been supplied

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26
Q

Research on monkeys has shown that the part of the brain most closely associated with working memory is the
A. hippocampus.
B. amygdala.
C. occipital cortex.
D. prefrontal cortex.

A

D

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27
Q

Which of the following would most likely be a detailed long-term memory?
A. I just sat down.
B. I was talking to that girl just before class.
C. I was talking to that boy three months ago.
D. I talked to my cousin Amelia on the phone six months ago.

A

B

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28
Q

Which term below is most closely associated with semantic networks?
A. Distributed processing
B. Cognitive economy
C. Prototype formation
D. Family resemblance

A

B

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29
Q

Kieran found that studying for his Spanish exam made it more difficult to remember some of the vocabulary words he had just studied for his French exam earlier in the day. This is an example of

A) memory-trace replacement.
B) a simultaneous presentation effect
C) retroactive interference.
D) a life-narrative confusion.

A

C) retroactive interference.

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30
Q

According to the multiple trace hypothesis, the hippocampus is involved in retrieval of

A) remote, episodic memories.
B) remote, semantic memories.
C) remote procedural memories.
D) state-dependent memories.

A

A) remote, episodic memories.

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31
Q

The standard model of consolidation proposes that the hippocampus is

A) strongly active for both new memories as they are being consolidated and memories for events that occurred long ago and are already consolidated.
B) uninvolved in memory consolidation.
C) strongly active for long-ago memories that are already consolidated but becomes less active when memories are first formed and being consolidated.
D) strongly active when memories are first formed and being consolidated but becomes less active when retrieving older memories that are already consolidated.

A

strongly active when memories are first formed and being consolidated but becomes less active when retrieving older memories that are already consolidated.

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32
Q

A task for determining how prototypical an object is would be:
a. a fill-in-the-blank task where participants generate the category classification for a list of members.
b. a task where participants rate the extent to which each member represents the category title.
c. a task where participants rate the extent to which category members resemble one another.
d. a fill-in-the-blank task where participants generate paired members within a category

A

b. a task where participants rate the extent to which each member represents the category title.

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33
Q

Kosslyn’s island experiment used the ________ procedure.
a. categorization
b. mental scanning
c. priming
d. mental walk

A

b. mental scanning

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34
Q
  1. The conjunction rule states that
    a. the probability of two events co-occurring is the sum of the probabilities of each event occurring.
    b. the probability of two events co-occurring is equal to or less than the probability of either event occurring alone.
    c. people make decisions based upon both the costs and benefits of the choices.
    d. people make decisions based upon possible benefits when the choices are framed positively and based upon possible costs when the choices are framed negatively.
A

b. the probability of two events co-occurring is equal to or less than the probability of either event occurring alone.

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35
Q

As described in your text, the pegword technique relies on all of the following EXCEPT:
a. rhymes.
b. associations.
c. visualizations.
d. propositions.

A

d. propositions.

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36
Q

The mental simulation approach for solving mechanical problems is analogous to the idea that visual imagery involves ________ representations.
a. symbolic
b. propositional
c. verbal
d. spatial

A

d. spatial

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37
Q

Perky’s experiment, in which participants were asked to “project” visual images of common objects onto a screen, showed that:
a. imagery and perception are two different phenomena.
b. creating a visual image can interfere with a perceptual judgment task.
c. imagery and perception can interact with one another.
d. there are large individual differences in people’s ability to create visual images

A

c. imagery and perception can interact with one another.

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38
Q

Shepard and Metzler’s “image rotation” experiment was so influential and important to the study of cognition because it demonstrated:
a. that humans can only perform mental rotation on “real-world” objects.
b. that imagery and perception may share the same mechanisms.
c. how easy mental rotation is for humans.
d. that humans cannot successfully rotate mental images beyond 90 degrees.

A

b. that imagery and perception may share the same mechanisms.

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39
Q

“Early” researchers of imagery (beginning with Aristotle until just prior to the dominance of behaviorism) proposed all of the following ideas EXCEPT:
a. imagery requires a special mechanism.
b. thought is impossible without an image.
c. images are one of the three basic elements of consciousness.
d. imagery is not required for thinking.

A

a. imagery requires a special mechanism.

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40
Q

Which of the following is most closely modeled on the way the nervous system operates?
a. The prototype approach
b. Parallel distributed processing theory
c. Enhancement due to priming
d. Semantic network theory

A

b. Parallel distributed processing theory

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41
Q

Which of the following is an example of the sentence verification technique?

A) Fill in the blank in the following sentence:

An apple is a(n) ______.

B) Indicate whether the following statement was previously presented:

An apple is a fruit. YES NO

C) Indicate whether the following statement is true:

An apple is a fruit. YES NO

D) Fill in the blank in the following sentence:

A(n) ______ is a fruit.

A

Indicate whether the following statement is true:

An apple is a fruit. YES NO

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42
Q

The _____ model includes associations between concepts and the property of spreading activation.

A semantic network

B) connectionist network

C) parallel distributed

D) processing
neural network

A

semantic network

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43
Q

______ is a “typical” member of a category.

A unit
A prototype
An exemplar
A component

A

A prototype

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44
Q

Based on the information your textbook provided about different category types, jumping from _______ categories results in the largest gain in information.

A) basic level to subordinate level

B) subordinate level to basic level

C) superordinate level to basic level

D)basic level to superordinate level

A

superordinate level to basic level

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45
Q

Which of the following is a connectionist model proposing that concepts are represented by activity that is spread across a network?

Semantic network theory
Parallel distributed processing theory
The prototype approach
Enhancement due to priming

A

Parallel distributed processing theory

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46
Q

Warmth judgments on nearness to a solution ____ prior to the solution of an insight problem and ____ prior to the solution of a non-insight problem.

A) vary unpredictably; vary unpredictably

B) rise suddenly just; gradually rise

C) gradually rise; gradually rise

D) gradually rise; rise suddenly just

A

rise suddenly just; gradually rise

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47
Q

Amber lives in a housing development between two parallel streets that both connect to a freeway. She usually takes the street to the south when heading southbound on the freeway to work, but that street is closed for repairs for three months. Amber takes the street to the north during that time. After the street to the south is re-opened, she continues to take the street to the north, even though it is a slightly longer route. Continuing to take the street to the north represents

a single dissociation.
a mental set.
a source problem.
convergent thinking.

A

mental set

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48
Q

Paivio (1963) proposed the conceptual peg hypothesis. His work suggests which of the following would be most difficult to remember?

Baseball
America
Apple pie
Freedom

A

Freedom

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49
Q

From the behavior of H.M., who experienced memory problems after a brain operation, we can conclude that the hippocampus is important in
A. procedural memory.
B. long-term memory storage.
C. working memory.
D. long-term memory acquisition.

A

D. long-term memory acquisition.

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50
Q

Lexical ambiguity studies show that people access ambiguous words based on

a. a bottom-up progression of meaning comprehension.
b. the meaning dominance of each definition of the word.
c. the word that comes immediately before and the word that comes immediately after the ambiguous word in the sentence.
d. the identification of a single meaning for that word.

A

b. the meaning dominance of each definition of the word.

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51
Q

Chaz is listening to his grandma reminisce about the first time she danced with his grandpa 60 years ago. When his grandma says, “It seemed like the song would play forever,” Chaz understands that it is more likely his grandma was listening to a radio playing and not a CD. This understanding requires Chaz use a(n)

a.
given-new contract.

b.
age-appropriate principle.

c.
garden path model.

d.
instrument inference.

A

d.
instrument inference.

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52
Q

Consider the following sentences: “Captain Ahab wanted to kill the whale. He cursed at it.” These two sentences taken together provide an example of a(n)

a.
global connection.

b.
garden path sequence.

c.
instrument inference.

d.
anaphoric inference.

A

d.
anaphoric inference.

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53
Q

In the lexical decision task, participants are asked to

a.
decide whether a string of letters is a word or a non-word.

b.
identify words that are contained in sentences.

c.
separate a sentence into individual words.

d.
decide which meaning of an ambiguous sentence is correct in a specific situation.

A

a.
decide whether a string of letters is a word or a non-word.

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54
Q

Coherence refers to the

a.
mental process whereby ambiguity is resolved online during sentence reading.

b.
mental process by which readers create information during reading that is not explicitly stated in the text.

c.
representation of the text in a reader’s mind, so that information in one part of the text is related to information in another part of the text.

d.
principle that we process information in isolation before we link it to its context.

A

c.
representation of the text in a reader’s mind, so that information in one part of the text is related to information in another part of the text.

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55
Q

According to the situation model of text processing,

a.
people create a mental representation of what the text is about in terms of people, objects, locations, and events.

b.
people create a mental representation of what the text is about in terms of information about phrases, sentences, and paragraphs.

c.
people draw inferences about what is happening in a story by considering both local and global connections.

d.
it will take longer to understand a story that involves a complex series of situations.

A

a.
people create a mental representation of what the text is about in terms of people, objects, locations, and events.

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56
Q

The principle illustrated when most people are able to recognize a variety of examples of chairs even though no one category member may have all of the characteristic properties of “chairs” (e.g., most chairs have four legs but not all do) is

a.
prototypicality.

b.
graded membership.

c.
instance theory.

d.
family resemblance.

A

d.
family resemblance.

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57
Q

Which approach to categorization can more easily take into account atypical cases such as flightless birds?

a.
Prototype

b.
Definitional

c.
Network

d.
Exemplar

A

d.
Exemplar

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58
Q
  1. According to your text, the key to solving the Wason four-card problem is
    A. a mental model.
    B. a categorical syllogism.
    C. the law of large numbers.
    D. the falsification principle.
A

D. the falsification principle.

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59
Q

The permission schema is an example of a(n)
A. pragmatic reasoning schema.
B. subjective utility.
C. opt-in procedure.
D. illusory correlation.

A

A. pragmatic reasoning schema.

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59
Q
  1. The rule of the Wason four-card problem is, “If there is a vowel on one side, then there is an even number on the other side.” Let’s say you are presented with A, 8, M, and 13, each showing on one of four cards. To see if the rule is valid, you would have to turn over the cards showing
    A. 8 and M.
    B. A and M.
    C. A and 13.
    D. 8 and 13.
A

C. A and 13.

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60
Q
  1. Which of the following statements would most likely invoke the operation of a permission schema?

A. No artists can be beekeepers, but some of the beekeepers must be chemists.

B. All A are B. All B are C. Therefore, all A are C.

C. I forgot to charge my cell phone last night, therefore I missed an important call today.

D. If I get an A on my cognitive psychology exam, I can go out with my friends Saturday night.

A

D. If I get an A on my cognitive psychology exam, I can go out with my friends Saturday night

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61
Q
  1. The application of a(n) ____ makes it easier to solve the “drinking beer” version of the Wason problem.
    A. conjunction rule
    B. permission schema
    C. atmosphere effect
    D. availability heuristic
A

B. permission schema

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62
Q

The evolutionary approach proposes that the Wason problem can be understood in terms of people’s
A. innate language abilities.
B. ability to work well with a group of others.
C. innate reasoning abilities.
D. ability to detect cheaters

A

D. ability to detect cheaters

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63
Q

Stereotypes are reinforced by all of the following EXCEPT
A. the availability heuristic.
B. illusory correlations.
C. selective attention.
D. the falsification principle.

A

D. the falsification principle.

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64
Q

Cecile has dreamed of owning her own home for years, and she can finally afford a small cottage in an older neighborhood. She notices that she feels more positive about her home when she drives home by the abandoned shacks, but she hates her home when driving past the fancy mansions with their large lawns. Cecile’s emotions are influenced by
A. the principle of diversity.
B. confirmation bias.
C. framing.
D. the law of large numbers.

A

C. framing.

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65
Q

Physiological research on problem solving has concluded that the prefrontal cortex (PFC) is important in problem solving because damage to this area causes
A. difficulty in people developing expertise in a certain area of knowledge.
B. people to lose their memory for facts that might aid in finding a solution.
C. an increase in perseveration.
D. an inability to recognize analogies.

A

. an increase in perseveration.

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66
Q

Which of the following does NOT reflect the System 1 approach to thinking as proposed by Kahneman?
a. passive
b. deliberate
c. rapid
d. automatic

A

b. deliberate

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67
Q

The ability to shift experience from one problem-solving situation to a similar problem is known as
a. analogical encoding
b. analogical transfer
c. insight
d. in vivo problem solving

A

b. analogical transfer

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68
Q

Mental-scanning experiments found
A. a positive linear relationship between scanning time and distance on the image.
B. a negative linear relationship between scanning time and distance on the image.
C. a constant scanning time for all locations on an image.
D. that imagery does not represent spatial relations in the same way perceptual information does.

A

A. a positive linear relationship between scanning time and distance on the image.

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69
Q
  1. The validity of a syllogism depends on
    A. the truth of its premises.
    B. the truth of its conclusion.
    C. its form.
    D. both the truth of its premises and the truth of its conclusion
A

C. its form.

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70
Q
  1. When the “abstract” version of the Wason four-card problem is compared to a “concrete” version of the problem (in which beer, soda, and ages are substituted for the letters and numbers),
    A. performance is better for the concrete task.
    B. performance is better for the abstract task.
    C. performance is the same for both tasks.
    D. performing the abstract task improves performance of the concrete task.
A

A

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71
Q

The application of a(n) ____ makes it easier to solve the “drinking beer” version of the Wason problem.
A. conjunction rule
B. permission schema
C. atmosphere effect
D. availability heuristic

A

B

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72
Q

Which concept below is most closely associated with the evolutionary perspective to solving the Wason four-card problem?
A. Permission schemas
B. Falsification principle
C. Social-exchange theory
D. Availability heuristic

A

C

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73
Q

Cosmides and Tooby tested participants’ ability to solve variations of the Wason problem, including ones containing stories about a particular culture. Their results showed that ____ is not always necessary for conditional reasoning.
A. familiarity
B. a premise
C. validity
D. using a heuristic

A

A

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74
Q

Inductive reasoning involves
A. definite conclusions.
B. logical certainty.
C. factual premises.
D. observational premises

A

D

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75
Q

Consider the following argument:
Observation: Here in Nashville, the sun has risen every morning.
Conclusion: The sun is going to rise in Nashville tomorrow.
A. The argument is weak because there is only one specific case.
B. The argument is strong because the premise includes scientific evidence.
C. The argument is weak because the observation does not consider other cities.
D. The argument is strong because there are a large number of observations.

A

D

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76
Q

At a lunch meeting with a client, the CEO of Gossip Polls, Inc., was asked to determine America’s favorite day of the week. Hundreds of Gossip employees across the U.S. started collecting data immediately, calling people at their residences. One hour later, the attitudes from 10,000 Americans, across all 50 states, were collected. A staff member called the CEO, still at her lunch meeting, to tell her the results of the poll: America’s favorite day of the week is Monday. Given your text’s discussion of inductive reasoning in science, we might suspect that the observations in this poll are not representative because

A. the participants were only asked one question for this poll.

B. the participants were not sufficiently geographically diverse.

C. the people who are home to answer the phone in the early afternoon are not an appropriate cross-section of the U.S. population.

D. everyone in America was not asked their opinion.

A

C

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77
Q

Derrick purchased a new car, a Ford Mustang, less than a month ago. While sitting in traffic, Derrick says to his girlfriend, “Mustangs must be the best-selling car now. I can’t remember seeing as many on the road as I have recently.” Derrick’s judgment is most likely biased by a(n)
A. atmosphere effect.
B. availability heuristic.
C. focusing illusion.
D. permission schema.

A

B

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78
Q

The finding that people tend to incorrectly conclude that more people die from tornados than from asthma has been explained in terms of the
A. representativeness heuristic.
B. availability heuristic.
C. falsification principle.
D. belief bias.

A

B

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79
Q

Greg was recounting a fishing tale of the one that got away: “I had a huge ahi on my line. I fought for it for a few minutes, then my line snapped. The ahi swam away across the pond.” Greg’s friend, Matt, didn’t believe his story because Matt knew that ahi are salt-water fish and aren’t found in ponds. Greg’s account contains
A. descriptive information that is inconsistent with base rate information.
B. a belief bias.
C. inductive reasoning based on observations of multiple, specific cases.
D. a focusing illusion.

A

A

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80
Q

There are two gumball machines outside the local grocery store, one large machine and one small machine. Both machines have only yellow and orange gumballs, and each machine contains 50 percent of each color. For each coin, the large gumball machine dispenses 15 gumballs, while the small machine dispenses 5. Tim is a young genius whose interests include probability and sound decision-making. His “probability project of the day” is to get a greater percentage of either of the colors, but not an equal amount of each color. Given this, and presuming Tim has only one coin,
A. he should use his coin in the large machine.
B. he should use his coin in the small machine.
C. it doesn’t make a difference which machine he uses.
D. he should wait for other people to use the machines and see what they get.

A

B

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81
Q

Failing to consider the law of large numbers most likely results in errors concerning
A. confirmation bias.
B. utility.
C. the falsification principle.
D. the representativeness heuristic.

A

D

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82
Q

Of the following real-world phenomena, the confirmation bias best explains the observation that people
A. do not always make decisions that maximize their monetary outcome.
B. are more likely to purchase meat advertised as 80% fat free than 20% fat.
C. misjudge homicide as more prevalent in the U.S. than suicide.
D. can cite several reasons for their position on a controversial issue but none for the opposing side.

A

D

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83
Q

If a motorcycle cop believes that young female drivers speed more than other drivers, he will likely notice young female drivers speeding in the fast lane but fail to notice young male or older drivers doing the same. In this case, the police officer’s judgments are biased by the operation of the
A. permission schema.
B. confirmation bias.
C. falsification principle.
D. typicality principle.

A

B

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84
Q

Given its definition, expected utility theory is most applicable to deciding whether to
A. break up or stay involved with a current girlfriend.
B. go out for junior varsity hockey or junior varsity basketball.
C. buy first class or coach tickets for a spring break trip.
D. take astronomy or geology as a physical science elective course.

A

C

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85
Q

Utility refers to
A. outcomes that achieve a person’s goals.
B. how useful a reasoning process is.
C. the validity of a syllogism.
D. degree of risk aversion one has.

A

A

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86
Q

Josiah is trying to decide whether or not to take a new job in a new city. The decision is creating a lot of anxiety in him, which is an example of an
A. expected emotion.
B. immediate emotion.
C. integral immediate emotion.
D. incidental immediate emotion.

A

C

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87
Q

Kirk is a generally anxious person. His anxiety sometimes gets in the way when he tries to make decisions. The anxiety Kirk feels is an example of an
A. expected emotion.
B. immediate emotion.
C. integral immediate emotion.
D. incidental immediate emotion.

A

D

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88
Q

People tend to overestimate
A. what negative feelings will occur following a decision more so than positive feelings.
B. what positive feelings will occur following a decision more so than negative feelings.
C. what positive and negative feelings will occur following a decision to the same degree.
D. subjective utility values following a decision.

A

A

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89
Q

By using a(n) _____, a country could increase the percentage of individuals agreeing to be organ donors dramatically.
A. opt-out procedure
B. opt-in procedure
C. pragmatic reasoning schema
D. permission schema

A

A

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90
Q

Juanita is in a convenience store considering which soda to buy. She recalls a commercial for BigFizz she saw on TV last night. BigFizz is running a promotion where you look under the bottle cap, and one in five bottles has a voucher for a free soda. If Juanita decides to purchase a BigFizz based on this promotion, which is framed in terms of _____, she will use a _____ strategy.
A. losses; risk-taking
B. gains; risk-taking
C. losses; risk-aversion
D. gains; risk-aversion

A

D

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91
Q

Perseveration represents difficulty in
A. automatic processing.
B. performing a task repeatedly.
C. shifting to a new behavior.
D. organizing perceptual information coherently.

A

C

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92
Q

PFC-damaged patients have trouble with reading comprehension tasks. They are unable to
A. identify events that were described in the story.
B. understand individual words.
C. follow the order of events in the story.
D. all of these

A

C

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93
Q

Let’s say you are testing a patient with damage to the prefrontal cortex. You present the patient with relationships such as the following:

Relationship #1: Alia is taller than Ian, who is taller than Mandy.
Relationship #2: Margy is taller than Michelle. Lisa is taller than Margy.

The patient’s task is to arrange the names in order of the people’s heights. The patient will perform
A. well with Relationship #1 only.
B. well with Relationship #2 only.
C. well with both relationships.
D. poorly with both relationships.

A

A

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94
Q

Sanfey and coworkers’ “ultimatum game” experiment revealed that people tended to make the ____ decision of ____.
A. irrational; accepting any offer
B. irrational; accepting only high offers
C. rational; accepting any offer
D. rational; accepting only high offers

A

B

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95
Q

In an experiment that combined both physiological and behavioral approaches to the study of decision making, PFC activity was recorded while participants accepted or rejected proposals to split a sum of money ($10). PFC activation was
A. greatest for accepted offers.
B. greatest for rejected offers.
C. the same for accepted and rejected offers.
D. dependent on how much money the responder was offered.

A

C

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96
Q

Consider the following syllogism:

If p then q.
p
q

This syllogism is a(n) ____ syllogism.
A. abstract conditional
B. concrete conditional
C. abstract categorical
D. concrete categorical

A

A

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97
Q

Consider the following syllogism:

If it’s a robin then it is a bird.
It is a bird.
Therefore, it is a robin.

In the example above, “Therefore, it is a robin” is a ____ of a ____ syllogism.
A. premise; categorical
B. conclusion; categorical
C. premise; conditional
D. conclusion; conditionaL

A

D

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98
Q

Consider the following syllogism:

All cats are birds.
All birds have wings.
All cats have wings.

This syllogism is
A. valid.
B. invalid.
C. true.
D. both valid and true

A

A

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99
Q

The validity of a syllogism depends on
A. the truth of its premises.
B. the truth of its conclusion.
C. its form.
D. both the truth of its premises and the truth of its conclusion

A

C

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100
Q

Consider the following syllogism:

Premise 1: All dogs are cats.
Premise 2: All cats say “meow.”
Conclusion: Therefore, all dogs say “meow.”

Which statement below describes this syllogism?
A. Both premises are valid
B. The conclusion is valid
C. The conclusion is not valid
D. The conclusion is true

A

B

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101
Q

A syllogism is valid if
A. the conclusion follows logically from the two premises.
B. the two premises and the conclusion are true.
C. there is evidence to support the two premises.
D. there is no more than one exception to the conclusion.

A

A

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102
Q

Consider the following syllogism:

All of the students are tired.
Some tired people are irritable.
Some of the students are irritable.

It is likely that most people will judge this syllogism as
A. invalid because of the influence of the atmosphere effect.
B. invalid because this syllogism does not involve a pragmatic reasoning schema.
C. valid because this is indeed a valid syllogism and the logic is apparent.
D. valid because this conclusion is believable.

A

D

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103
Q

For which type of syllogism do people exhibit the best performance in judging validity?
A. Denying the antecedent
B. Denying the consequent
C. Affirming the antecedent
D. Affirming the consequent

A

C

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104
Q

If it is raining, then I will take my umbrella. It is not raining. Therefore, I didn’t take my umbrella.

This syllogism is an example of
A. denying the antecedent.
B. denying the consequent.
C. affirming the antecedent.
D. affirming the consequent.

A

A

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105
Q

Consider the following conditional syllogism:

Premise 1: If I study, then I’ll get a good grade.
Premise 2: I didn’t study.
Conclusion: Therefore, I didn’t get a good grade.

This syllogism is an example of
A. affirming the antecedent.
B. denying the consequent.
C. denying the antecedent.
D. affirming the consequent.

A

C

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106
Q

Consider the following conditional syllogism:

Premise 1: If I don’t eat lunch today, I will be hungry tonight.
Premise 2: I ate lunch today.
Conclusion: Therefore, I wasn’t hungry tonight.

This syllogism is
A. valid.
B. invalid.

A

B

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107
Q

Consider the following conditional syllogism:

Premise 1: If I study, then I’ll get a good grade.
Premise 2: I got a good grade.
Conclusion: Therefore, I studied.

This syllogism is
A. invalid.
B. valid.

A

A

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108
Q

A person who has been diagnosed with ________ dementia has difficulty recognizing both living things and artifacts.
a.
superordinate
b.
parallel
c.
symbiotic
d.
semantic

A

D

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109
Q

One criticism of the embodied approach is that it doesn’t explain how humans can recognize ________.
a.
actions
b.
colors
c.
artifacts
d.
abstractions

A

D

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110
Q

In the multiple-factor approach, the fact that people exhibit physical attributes, actions, and emotions is known as ________.
a.
loading
b.
stacking
c.
weighting
d.
crowding

A

D

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111
Q
A
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112
Q

Which of the following lies at the foundation of a connectionist network?
a.
Learning
b.
Prototyping
c.
Mirroring
d.
Crowding

A

A

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113
Q

1) What is the Hub and what are the Spokes in the Hub and Spokes Model?
a) Hub = Temporal Lobe, Spokes = Parietal Lobe
b) Hub = Anterior Temporal Lobe, Spokes = Distributed Cortical
c) Hub = Anterior Temporal Lobe, Spokes = Parietal Lobe
d) Hub = Temporal Lobe, Spokes = Distributed Cortical Areas

A

B

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114
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of high-prototypical objects?
a) They are generally named first when people are asked to list items in a category
b) They are more affected by priming than low-prototypical objects
c) They have high family resemblance
d) They are always categorized at the basic level

A

D

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115
Q

Which of the following best describes the “exemplar approach” ?

a) Membership in a category is determined by comparing the object to the examples of members of the category
b) Membership in a category is determined by comparing the object to a prototype that represent the category
c) Membership in a category is determined by considering whether the object meets the definition of the category
d) Membership in a category is determined by comparing the neural activities in the brain

A

A

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116
Q

What is the most correct difference between the prototype and exemplar approach to conceptual knowledge?

a) The prototype approach compares new items to a prototype, which is an average compilation of all previously experienced members of that category. The exemplar approach compares new items to actual category members that have been previously experienced

b) The exemplar approach compares new items to a prototype, which is an average compilation of all previously experienced members of that category. The prototype approach compares new items to actual category members that have been previously experienced

c) The prototype approach is used for larger, more general categories while the exemplar approach is used for small, specific categories

d) The prototype approach handles atypical items more effectively than the exemplar approach

A

A

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117
Q

Wittgenstein proposed which concept in order to aid with definitional approach to categorization?
a) Family resemblance
b) Typicality
c) Exemplars
d) Priming

A

A

118
Q

The ability to store shared properties at a high-level node is called?
a) Hierarchical model
b) Spreading activation
c) Semantic network
d) Cognitive economy

A

D

119
Q

The results from the lexical decision task showing that reaction time is faster for related paired words versus unrelated paired words is accounted for by which theory?
a) Sensory-functional
b) Typicality effect
c) Spreading activation
d) Graceful degradation

A

C

120
Q

Spreading activation Determining membership of an object to a category by comparing the object to a typical member that best represents the category defines which type of approach?
a) Exemplar
b) Prototype
c) Multiple factor
d) Embodied

A

B

121
Q

Which of the following statements is true?
a) We likely only use the Definitional Approach when determining members of a category
b) We may use both the Definitional Approach and the Prototype Approach when determining members of a category
c) We likely only use the Exemplar Approach when determining members of a category
d) We may use both the Exemplar approach and the Prototype approach when determining members of a category

A

D

122
Q

What is the correct definition of the sensory-functional hypothesis?

a) items are stored as concepts in memory and are connected to attributes through representations.

b) Living things are different from nonliving things because of how we interact with them, and our memory accounts for these different functions.

c) There are distributed representations in the brain that help us distinguish between more than just categories.

d) Damage to sensory memory only affects parts of representations, not the whole thing.

A

B

123
Q

How would someone experience and remember drinking a cup of coffee according to the embodied approach?

a) Coffee is a nonliving object because it is something you drink, it sits in the functional category.

b) Coffee sets off the neural network under the category of hot drinks.

c) sensory areas are active in response to how the coffee tastes, what it looks like, what it smells like.

d) The specific function of the coffee is a drink, this information is integrated into the anterior temporal lobe.

A

C

124
Q

What is Family Resemblance?
a) The idea that knowledge is passed down through families
b) The idea that the ability for memory is dependent on genetics c) The idea that things in a particular category resemble one another in a number of ways
d) The idea that human beings can recognize people they are close to emotionally faster and easier

A

C

125
Q

Which of the following is not a feature of Collins & Loftus’s (1975) Spreading Activation Network Model?
a) concepts organized in network, but organization not hierarchical
b) features also stored with concepts
c) stored with each element are a list of properties that define the features of each concept
d) assumes activation spreads between concepts

A

C

126
Q

Which of the following is an accurate definition of conceptual knowledge?
a) mental representation used for a variety of cognitive functions
b) assumption of cognitive economy - features or properties are represented
c) autobiographical knowledge about personal past.
d) knowledge that enables us to recognize objects and events and to make inferences about their properties

A

D

127
Q

What were the findings to Collins and Quillian’s (1969) experiment which measured reaction times to statements that involved traversing different distances in the hierarchical network model?
a) Greater distances meant shorter reaction times
b) Greater distances meant longer reaction times
c) Reaction times did not change
d) Reaction times were individual-dependant

A

B

128
Q

In Meyer and Schvaneveldt’s (1971) experiment, participants were asked to press the “yes” key when both of the presented items were words or the “no” key when at least one was a nonword. What was the key independent variable in this experiment?

a) The association between words

b) The association between nonwords

c) The reaction time of the “no” key

d) The reaction time of the “yes” key

A

A

129
Q

Which of the following is the definition of high family resemblance?
a) A category member closely resembles the category prototype
b) A category member does not closely resemble a typical member of the category
c) An item’s characteristics have a large amount of overlap with the characteristics of many other items in a category
d) An item’s characteristics have little overlap with other members of a category

A

C

130
Q

Rosch distinguished the level of categories, which level does the “double bed” belong to?
a) Global
b) Basic
c) Detailed
d) Specific

A

D

131
Q

What is it called the mental representation used for a variety of cognitive functions?
a) Knowledge
b) Concept
c) Category
d) Family Resemblance

A

B

132
Q

Deciding that a crow fits into the category of bird because it shares characteristics with the concept of what a “typical” bird is, is an example of:
a) Definitional Approach
b) Exemplar Approach
c) Prototype Approach
d) Conceptual Approac

A

C

133
Q

Which of the following examples shows the levels of categorization in the correct order; Superordinate level -> Basic level -> Subordinate level
a) Kitchen -> Chair -> Furniture
b) Furniture -> Chair -> Kitchen
c) Chair -> Furniture -> Kitchen
d) Furniture -> Kitchen -> Chair

A

B

134
Q

The correspondence between words related to specific parts of the body and the location of brain activity is called _________.

a) Semantic somatotopy
b) Exemplars
c) Prototypicality
d) categorization

A

A

135
Q

In the Hierarchical Network Model there are different levels of semantic processing before the object is properly identified. When trying to categorize a robin, which statement is on a higher level of processing then the statement “The animal can fly”?
a) The robin is red
b) The penguin can swim
c) The robin eats
d) The robin has wings

A

C

136
Q

Which of the following is FALSE when contrasting the exemplar approach to categorization with the prototype approach to categorization:

a) Exemplar approach can deal more easily with variable categories relative to the prototype approach

b) Exemplar approach is most likely employed early in learning; prototype approach is most likely employed later in learning to take into account the “exceptions”

c) Exemplar approach can represent the atypical cases, and thus, prevent the information from being misclassified; prototype will not consider the atypical cases and, thus, misclassify that item of information

d) The standard for the exemplar approach involves actual members of the category whereas the standard for the prototypical approach involves a single, abstract average member of the category

A

B

137
Q

What term is best defined as an idea that things in a specific category resemble one another in multiple ways?
a) Family resemblance
b) Prototype
c) Typicality
d) Priming Correct

A

A

138
Q

The idea that concepts are organized into networks and not hierarchically was supported by the…
a) Spreading Activation Network Model (Collins and Loftus, 1975)
b) Feature Comparison Model (Ripps, Shoben and Smith, 1973)
c) Hierarchical Network Model (Collins and Quillian, 1969)
d) Sentence Verification Tas

A

A

139
Q

What is one of the issues with the Hierarchical Network Model.
a) Typical and Atypical members are not at the same level of hierarchy
b) Model is too old
c) Model does not explain the Typicality effect
d) Model has too many assumptions

A

C

140
Q

Which model cannot easily explain the effects of priming?
a) Hierarchical Network Model
b) Spreading Activation Model
c) Connectionist Model
d) Feature Comparison Model

A

D

141
Q

Based on the connectionist model, which of the following is affected by connection weight?
a) Storage capacity
b) Synapse activity
c) Category priming
d) Sensory reactivation

A

B

142
Q

Which of the following pairs fill in the blanks correctly? Prototypes are a(n) ______ example that is represented by (a) ______ member(s) of a category.
a) abstract, single
b) abstract, multiple
c) specific, single
d) specific, multiple

A

A

143
Q

Which of the following concepts explains the Hierachical Network Model (Collins & Quillian)’s explanation of priming?
a) cognitive economy
b) spreading activation
c) typicality effect
d) back propagation

A

B

144
Q

What is the correct definition of conceptual knowledge?

a) the process by which things are placed into groups

b) knowledge that enables us to recognize objects and events and to make inferences about their properties

c) autobiographical knowledge about personal past, unique to the individual

d) mental representation used for a variety of cognitive functions

A

B

145
Q

Which of the following definitions is incorrect?
a) Verification: indicating the truth of a test item
b) Production: retrieving an instance from memory when given a cue
c) Episodic Memory: knowledge that enables us to recognize objects and events and to make inferences about their properties
d) Semantic Memory: general knowledge about the world that all members of a culture possess

A

C

146
Q

According to Collins and Quillian’s hierarchical model, how does cognitive economy work?

a) It makes the semantic network more efficient because it eliminates all cognitive processes that require a large amount of processing

b) It categorizes objects with shared properties just once a higher-level node

c) It utilizes spreading activation to categorize all objects fit a spread of definitions to fall into one node

d) It follows an ideal prototype to categorize the whole economy of relative objects

A

B

147
Q

Nina goes to the zoo and saw penguins, ostriches, and swans. She concluded that despite the animals having different abilities, they are still categorized as birds. This is an example of ______
a) Prototype approach
b) Exemplar approach
c) Definitional approach
d) Family resemblance

A

B

148
Q

Experiments that argue against a special flashbulb memory mechanism find that as time increases since the occurrence of the flashbulb event, participants
a. report less confidence about their recollections.
b. report less vivid recollections of the event.
c. remember more details about the event.
d. make more errors in their recollections.

A

D

149
Q

For most adults over age 40, the reminiscence bump describes enhanced memory for
a. young adulthood and middle age.
b. childhood and middle age.
c. childhood and adolescence.
d. adolescence and young adulthood.

A

D

150
Q

After witnessing a bank robbery downtown, Javier completed a cognitive interview at the police station. What term would Javier likely use to describe his interview experience?
a. Suggestible
b. Autobiographical
c. Structured
d. Multidimensional

A

D

151
Q

Latoya is remembering a fun day at the beach that she had with her dad when she was a little girl. Which region of brain will have the LEAST connection to the more personal aspects of Latoya’s memory?
a. Hippocampus
b. Prefrontal cortex
c. Amygdala
d. Parietal cortex

A

B

152
Q

Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding post-event information and the misinformation effect?
a. Misinformation effects are significantly reduced when post-event information is provided, but only if that information is given within just a few minutes of the initial event.
b. Even when participants are told that the post-event information is incorrect, the misinformation effect can still occur.
c. The misinformation effect does not occur when people are told explicitly that the post-event information may be incorrect
d. The provision of accurate post-event information provided a paradoxical (and as of yet unexplained) increase in the misinformation effect

A

B

153
Q

The observation that older adults often become nostalgic for the “good old days” reflects the self-image hypothesis, which states that
a. life in a society gets more complicated and difficult as generations pass.
b. people tend to remember more of the positive events in their lives than negative ones.
c. our memories change as we live longer and have more “lifetime periods” to draw events from.
d. memory for life events is enhanced during the time we assume our life identities.

A

D

154
Q

Arkes and Freedman’s “baseball game” experiment asked participants to indicate whether the following sentence was present in a passage they had previously read about events in a game: “The batter was safe at first.” Their findings showed inaccurate memories involved
a. confusions about presented information when it was ambiguous.
b. omissions of information that was presented.
c. participants who did not understand baseball and assumed more information was presented than actually was.
d. creations from inferences based on baseball knowledge.

A

D

155
Q

Schrauf and Rubin’s “two groups of immigrants” study found that the reminiscence bump coincided with periods of rapid change, occurring at a normal age for people emigrating early in life but shifting to 15 years later for those who emigrated later. These results support the
a. autobiographical hypothesis.
b. narrative rehearsal hypothesis.
c. cognitive hypothesis.
d. self-image hypothesis

A

C

156
Q

The experiment for which people were asked to make fame judgments for both famous and non-famous names (and for which Sebastian Weissdorf was one of the names to be remembered) illustrated the effect of __________ on memory.
a. source misattributions
b. encoding specificity
c. repeated rehearsal of distinctive names
d. schemas

A

A

157
Q

“S,” who had a photographic memory that was described as virtually limitless, was able to achieve many feats of memory. According to the discussion in your text, S’s memory system operated
a. less efficiently than normal.
b. using stronger semantic connections than normal.
c. in a manner that bypassed normal neurological “blocks.”
d. using more visual encoding than normal.

A

A

158
Q

The experiment in which participants first read sentences about a baseball game and were then asked to identify sentences they had seen before, illustrated that memory
a. is like a tape recording.
b. depends on the participant’s mood.
c. is better for vivid descriptions.
d. involves making inferences.

A

D

158
Q

Extrapolating from the cultural life script hypothesis, which of the following events would be easiest to recall?
a. Having a child at age 45
b. Retiring from work at age 40
c. Marrying at age 60
d. Graduating from college at age 22

A

D

159
Q

One of the key properties of the ___________ approach is that a specific concept is represented by activity that is distributed over many units in the network.
a. connectionist
b. hierarchical
c. spreading activation
d. semantic network

A

A

160
Q

Imagine that a young child is just learning about the category “dog.” Thus far, she has experienced only two dogs, one a poodle and the other a German shepherd. On her third encounter with a dog, she will be LEAST likely to correctly categorize the animal as a dog if that animal
a. matches an exemplar of one of the dogs she has experienced.
b. matches the size of the poodle but is of a different breed.
c. is a breed of dog that is hairless and teacup-sized.
d. is similar to an “average” for the dogs she has encountered.

A

C

161
Q

If you say that “a Labrador retriever is my idea of a typical dog,” you would be using the ___________ approach to categorization.
a. prototype
b. exemplar
c. family resemblance
d. definitional

A

B

162
Q

In the multiple-factor approach, the fact that people exhibit physical attributes, actions, and emotions is known as ________.
a. stacking
b. crowding
c. loading
d. weighting

A

B

163
Q

In a lexical decision task, participants have to decide whether
a. two stimuli are associated.
b. a statement is true.
c. a stimulus is presented.
d. a presented stimulus is a word.

A

D

164
Q

The process of back propagation is most closely associated with
a. reasoning about categories.
b. semantic networks.
c. connectionist networks.
d. spreading activation.

A

C

165
Q

Items high on prototypicality have ___________ family resemblances.
a. moderate
b. no
c. strong
d. weak

A

C

166
Q

Which of the following is NOT associated with the semantic network model?
a. Family resemblance
b. Hierarchical organization
c. Cognitive economy
d. Spreading activation

A

A

167
Q

The propositional approach may use any of the following EXCEPT
a. a statement.
b. an equation.
c. a spatial layout.
d. abstract symbols.

A

C

168
Q

Amedi and coworkers (2005) used fMRI to investigate the differences between brain activation for perception and imagery. Their findings showed that when participants were ___________, some areas associated with nonvisual sensation (such as hearing and touch) were ___________.
a. perceiving stimuli; deactivated
b. perceiving stimuli; activated
c. using visual images; deactivated
d. using visual images; activated

A

C

169
Q

In drawing conclusions about the relationship between imagery and perception, a notable difference between them is that
a. perception and imagery processes do not share the same brain mechanisms.
b. it is harder to manipulate mental images than perceptual images.
c. imagery occurs more automatically than perception.
d. imagery is more stable than perception.

A

B

170
Q

The lesson to be learned from the imagery techniques for memory enhancement (e.g.,, the pegword technique) is that these techniques work because
a. their flexible, undefined structures allow “rememberers” to spontaneously organize information in any way they want.
b. they tap into reliable ways to develop “photographic” memory.
c. distinctive images tend to provide easy “magical” improvements in memory.
d. they showcase the fact that memory improvement requires a great deal of practice and perseverance.

A

D

171
Q

Which statement below is most closely associated with the early history of the study of imagery?
a. People can rotate images of objects in their heads.
b. Imagery is closely related to language.
c. Imagery is based on spatial mechanisms like those involved in perception.
d. Thought is always accompanied by imagery.

A

D

172
Q

Your text describes imagery performance of a patient with unilateral neglect. This patient was asked to imagine himself standing at one end of a familiar plaza and to report the objects he saw. His behavior shows
a. neglect occurred in imagery such that some objects in the plaza were never reported.
b. neglect involved both the left and right sides of the visual field, with an apparently “random” agnosia of different components of the fields.
c. neglect always occurred on the left side of the image, with “left side” being determined by the direction in which the patient imagined he was positioned.
d. neglect manifests itself in perception only, not in imagery.

A

C

173
Q

Your text describes the case of M.G.S. who underwent brain surgery as treatment for severe epilepsy. Testing of M.G.S. pre- and post-surgery revealed that the right visual cortex is involved in the
a. ability to visually recognize objects.
b. size of the field of view.
c. recognition of objects in the left side of space.
d. ability to draw objects from memory.

A

B

174
Q

Suppose we ask people to perform the following cognitive tasks. Which is LEAST likely to strongly activate the visual cortex?
a. Imagine a typical unsharpened pencil. Approximate its length in inches.
b. Imagine a tic-tac-toe game proceeding from start to finish.
c. Imagine the meaning of the word “ethics.”
d. Imagine your car first from far away and then how it looks as you walk closer to it.

A

C

175
Q

Which of the following representation types is associated with abstract concepts?
a. Spatial
b. Hypothetical
c. Depictive
d. Propositional

A

D

176
Q

A mental rotation task is focused on the ________ aspect of imagery.
a. detail
b. spatial
c. propositional
d. abstract

A

B

177
Q

Kosslyn’s transcranial magnetic stimulation experiment on brain activation that occurs in response to imagery found that the brain activity in the visual cortex
a. is an epiphenomenon.
b. plays a causal role in both perception and imagery.
c. supports the idea that the mechanism responsible for imagery involves propositional representations.
d. can be inferred using mental chronometry.

A

B

178
Q

The pegword technique is particularly suitable for use when you need to remember items based on their
a. order.
b. bizarreness.
c. concreteness.
d. importance.

A

A

179
Q

What is likely to occur if a person sustains damage to the parietal lobe of the brain?
a. Image processing will be reduced by half.
b. Complex images will appear one-dimensional.
c. Topographic maps will be mostly abstract.
d. Images will be perceived as being smaller.

A

A

180
Q

A patient suffering from Korsakoff’s syndrome, such as “Jimmy G” who is described in your text, would be able to perform which of the following activities without difficulty?
A. Following a story in a book
B. Solving problems that take more than a few moments to figure out
C. Recognizing people he has recently met
D. Identifying a photograph of his childhood home

A

D

181
Q

The inability to assimilate or retain new knowledge is known as
A. anterograde amnesia.
B. retrograde amnesia.
C. the primacy effect.
D. the serial effect.

A

A

182
Q

The primacy effect is attributed to
A. recall of information stored in LTM.
B. a type of rehearsal that improves memory for all items in a list.
C. recall of information still active in STM.
D. forgetting of early items in a list as they are replaced by later items.

A

A

183
Q

The primacy effect (from the serial position curve experiment) is associated with
A. LTM.
B. STM.
C. sensory memory.
D. implicit memory.

A

A

184
Q

Murdoch’s “remembering a list” experiment described the serial position curve and found that memory is best for the ____ of a list.
A. first five words
B. middle five words
C. last five words
D. first five and the last five words

A

D

185
Q

You’ve now learned about the serial position curve. The relevant research in your text describes this curve using a free recall task (participants are free to recall words in any order they choose). Imagine that you conducted a “remembering a list” experiment using a serial recall task (participants must recall words in the same order they were presented). What would you predict for the results with the serial recall task?

A. The same serial position curve observed with free recall

B. A diminished recency effect, relative to free recall

C. A diminished primacy effect, relative to free recall

D. Diminished primacy and recency effects, relative to free recall

A

B

186
Q

Which of the following is NOT a conclusion from the case of H.M., who had an operation to help alleviate his epileptic seizures?
A. The hippocampus is necessary for forming new LTMs.
B. Working memory does not rely on the hippocampus.
C. LTMs can still be present after the hippocampus is removed.
D. LTMs are stored in the hippocampus.

A

D

186
Q

When investigating the serial position curve, presenting the word list at a slower pace
A. has no effect on the curve.
B. increases the primacy effect.
C. decreases the recency effect.
D. increases both the primacy and the recency effects.

A

B

187
Q

Carrie answers her phone with “Hello?” A response, “Hi, Carrie!” comes from the other end of the line. Carrie responds back with “Hi, Dad!” Carrie processed “Hi, Carrie” using a(n)
A. auditory code in short-term memory.
B. auditory code in long-term memory.
C. iconic code in short-term memory.
D. iconic code in long-term memory.

A

B

188
Q

The predominant type of coding in LTM is
A. phonological.
B. concrete.
C. semantic.
D. visual.

A

C

189
Q

A study participant is given a list of words to remember. One week later, he recalls the list. Let’s say that one of the list words was PEAR. Which of the following, none of which actually appeared on the list, would be most likely incorrectly recalled if the participant doesn’t remember PEAR?
A. REAR
B. PAIR
C. APPLE
D. BEAR

A

C

190
Q

We are conscious of _____ memories.
A. implicit
B. procedural
C. declarative
D. all of the above

A

C

191
Q

Explicit memory is to_____as implicit memory is to _____.
A. declarative; nondeclarative
B. nondeclarative; declarative
C. semantic; episodic
D. episodic; semantic

A

A

192
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of an implicit memory?
A. Classical conditioning
B. Priming
C. Procedural memory
D. Semantic memory

A

D

193
Q

Two types of declarative memory are _____ and _____ memory.
A. semantic; implicit
B. implicit; episodic
C. episodic; semantic
D. procedural; episodic

A

C

194
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of semantic memory?
A. I remember that more than 33% of U.S. drivers have admitted to using a cell phone when driving.
B. I remember that experiments have shown that talking on cell phones can impair driving ability.
C. I remember the day we learned about how talking on cell phones can impair driving ability.
D. None of the above (a, b, and c are all examples of semantic memory)

A

C

194
Q

The following statement represents what kind of memory? “The Beatles stopped making music together as a group in the early 1970s.”
A. Episodic
B. Semantic
C. Procedural
D. Implicit

A

B

194
Q

“I remember being really excited last year, when my college team won the national championship in basketball.” This statement is an example of _____ memory.
A. episodic
B. implicit
C. semantic
D. procedural

A

A

195
Q

K.C., who was injured in a motorcycle accident, remembers facts like the difference between a strike and a spare in bowling, but he is unaware of experiencing things like hearing about the circumstances of his brother’s death, which occurred two years before the accident. His memory behavior suggests
A. intact semantic memory but defective episodic memory.
B. intact procedural memory but defective semantic memory.
C. intact episodic memory but defective semantic memory.
D. intact episodic memory but defective procedural memory.

A

A

196
Q

Phoebe steps up to the golf ball and hits it down the fairway. She sees that the ball is heading towards someone, so she yells “Fore!” After her two partners hit their balls, they pick up their bags and start walking to the next hole. But Phoebe says, “Wait a minute, I haven’t teed off yet.” This behavior shows that Phoebe has a problem with ____ memory.
A. semantic
B. procedural
C. episodic
D. working

A

C

196
Q

Your text describes an “Italian woman” who, after an attack of encephalitis, had difficulty remembering people or facts she knew before. She could, however, remember her life events and daily tasks. Her memory behavior reflects
A. intact semantic memory but defective episodic memory.
B. intact procedural memory but defective episodic memory.
C. intact episodic memory but defective semantic memory.
D. intact episodic memory but defective procedural memory.

A

C

197
Q

A patient with impaired episodic memory would most likely have the greatest difficulty in
A. recognizing famous people.
B. remembering the meaning of some words.
C. recalling where to find eating utensils in the kitchen.
D. remembering where a best friend had moved.

A

D

198
Q

Knowing the capital of California, but not being able to remember when you first learned it, is an example of how
A. semantic memory can bias episodic memory.
B. episodic memory can be a “gateway” to semantic memory.
C. semantic memories are easier to form than episodic memories.
D. episodic memories last longer than semantic memories.

A

B

199
Q

Your text discusses how episodic and semantic memories are interconnected. This discussion revealed that when we experience events,
A. episodic memory for events lasts longer than semantic memory for the events.
B. the knowledge that makes up semantic memories is initially attained through a personal experience based in episodic memory.
C. semantic and episodic memories about events tend to last about the same length of time in our memory.
D. semantic memory of events is enhanced when it is not interfered with by associated episodic memories.

A

B

200
Q

Ming is taking a memory test. She is more likely to recall the name of a popular singer if she had
A. just read about the singer in a magazine.
B. just seen the singer on TV.
C. recently seen the singer on TV and read about the singer in a magazine.
D. attended the singer’s concert last year with her boyfriend.

A

D

201
Q

Imagine that the students described below are all taking a multiple choice test. Which student’s behavior best describes an example of implicit memory?
A. One student comes to a question for which he is unsure of the answer, but choice b seems familiar so he decides that it must be right.
B. One student remembers the correct answer to a question as well as where the information could be found in his notebook.
C. One student has no idea what an answer was supposed to be, but she does not want to leave a question blank. So, she guesses by first writing out items that she thought would make sense.
D. One student is sure he does not know the answer for a question, so he leaves it blank.

A

A

202
Q

The defining characteristic of implicit memory is that
A. it always leads to episodic memory for events.
B. it is enhanced by the self-reference effect.
C. we are not conscious we are using it.
D. people use it strategically to enhance memory for events.

A

C

203
Q

In the movie Groundhog Day, Bill Murray’s character grows frustrated as he experiences the same day in his life over and over again. With each “passing” day, he is able to respond to people’s actions more and more quickly because of
A. repetition priming.
B. distributed practice.
C. reconsolidation.
D. mental time travel.

A

A

204
Q

Jocelyn is in an experiment where she is presented words representing categories. She is presented the word “furniture” in an earlier trial, which makes it easier for her later to recall the word “chair” because of the similarity of meaning. Jocelyn’s memory enhancement for “chair” due to seeing the word “furniture” illustrates
A. repetition priming.
B. conceptual priming.
C. reconsolidation.
D. mental time travel.

A

B

205
Q

Memory enhancement due to repetition priming is a result of
A. the test stimulus being the same or resembling the priming stimulus.
B. the test stimulus being different from the priming stimulus.
C. the test stimulus being similar in meaning to the priming stimulus.
D. the test stimulus being different in meaning from the priming stimulus.

A

A

206
Q

Memory enhancement due to conceptual priming is a result of
A. the test stimulus being the same or resembling the priming stimulus.
B. the test stimulus being different from the priming stimulus.
C. the test stimulus being similar in meaning to the priming stimulus.
D. the test stimulus being different in meaning from the priming stimulus.

A

C

207
Q

Which task below would most likely be used to test for implicit memory?
A. Recognizing words that had been presented in an earlier list
B. Recalling the names of popular fairy tales
C. Matching Spanish vocabulary words with their English translations
D. Completing a word for which the first and last letter have been supplied

A

D

208
Q

An item on an implicit memory test would most likely resemble which of the following?
A. “Report the first word that you associate with TREE.”
B. “Explain your earliest personal memory that relates to TREE.”
C. “Which of the following words is related to “plant,” TREE or SHOE.”
D. “Fill in the following with the first word that comes to mind: T _ _ E.”

A

D

209
Q

Work with brain-injured patients reveals that ____ memory does not depend on conscious memory.
A. declarative and non-declarative
B. personal semantic and remote
C. semantic and episodic
D. implicit and procedural

A

D

210
Q

Which of the following involves procedural memory?
A. Knowing how it feels to be scared
B. Recalling a childhood memory
C. Knowing how an automobile engine works
D. Reading a sentence in a book

A

D

211
Q

Learning in the connectionist network is represented by adjustments to network

a. nodes
b. weights
c. output units
d. hidden units

A

B

212
Q

A(n) ____ is a mental representation used for a variety of cognitive functions, including memory, reasoning, and using and understanding language.

a. unit
b. exemplar
c. prototype
d. concept

A

D

213
Q

Collins and Loftus modified the original semantic hierarchy model of Collins and Quillian to satisfy some of the criticisms of the original model. In their Alternative Networks Model, Collins and Loftus explain semantic organization as

a. creating a “typical” node linked to special concepts in a category
b. being based on individual experience
c. representing more typical concepts as higher in the categorical hierarchy
d. being organized in a hierarchy from general knowledge to specific

A

B

214
Q

Transfer-appropriate processing is likely to occur if
a. the rememberer generates his own retrieval cues.
b. the type of encoding and type of retrieval match.
c. there is deep processing during acquisition of the new material.
d. imagery is used to create connections among items to be transferred into LTM.

A

B

215
Q

Transfer-appropriate processing is likely to occur if
a. the rememberer generates his own retrieval cues.
b. the type of encoding and type of retrieval match.
c. there is deep processing during acquisition of the new material.
d. imagery is used to create connections among items to be transferred into LTM.

A

B

216
Q

The principle that we learn information together with its context is known as
a. memory consolidation.
b. repetition priming.
c. encoding specificity.
d. a self-reference effect.

A

C

217
Q

You have been studying for weeks for a nursing school entrance exam. You love the idea of becoming a nurse, and you have been enjoying learning about the material for your exam. Each night, you put on relaxing clothes, and you study in the quiet of your lovely home. Memory research suggests you should take your test with a _____ mind set.
a. excited
b. calm
c. nervous
d. neutral

A

B

218
Q

The author of your text makes a suggestion that students should study in a variety of places. This suggestion is based on research showing that people remember material better if they learned it in a number of different locations, compared to studying the same amount of time in one location. The suggestion solves a problem raised by
a. the encoding specificity principle.
b. the mass practice effect.
c. levels of processing.
d. the distributed practice effect.

A

A

219
Q

Which of the following is most closely associated with implicit memory?
A. The self-reference effect
B. The propaganda effect
C. Release from proactive inhibition
D. Encoding specificity

A

B

220
Q

According to your text, which of the following movies is LEAST accurate in its portrayal of a memory problem?
A. The Bourne Identity
B. Memento
C. The Long Kiss Goodnight
D. 50 First Dates

A

D

221
Q

Consistent with the narrative rehearsal hypothesis, a significant source of rehearsal and reflection of flashbulb memories may be due to ___.

a. discussions among peer groups

b. the emotional impact of the event

c. increased unconscious processing of the event

d. media coverage and influence

A

D

222
Q

Bartlett’s classic “War of the Ghosts” experiment is particularly noteworthy because it was one of the first to make use of ___.

a. repeated reproduction
b. source monitoring
c. source misattribution
d. cryptoamnesia

A

A

223
Q

The fact that autobiographical memories can include tactile elements demonstrates that these types of memories are ________.
a. semantic
b. multidimensional
c. reconsolidated
d. illusory

A

B

224
Q

Which of the following experiences is most likely to be part of a person’s reminiscence bump?

a. taking a first step
b. entering first grade
c. getting a first apartment
d. holding a first grandchild

A

C

225
Q

Schema is to script as _____ is to _____.
a. aspect; sequence
b. sequence; aspect
c. memory; reconstruct
d. reconstruct; memory

A

A

225
Q

In which of the following lists might a false recall of the word “sleep” be MOST likely to occur?

a. bed; rest; slumber; night
b. snore; tired; sleep; doze
c. happy; fun; amusement; enjoy
d. apple; pizza; drink; food

A

A

226
Q

The cognitive hypothesis for the reminiscence bump is related to which of the following processes?
a. inference
b. retrieval
c. reconsolidation
d. encoding

A

D

227
Q

Suppose you are a therapist seeing a patient for an eating disorder, and you suspect that your patient was sexually abused as a youngster. How should you proceed?

a. State your belief to your patient that she was sexually abused.

b. Directly ask your patient whether she was sexually abused.

c. Ask your patient if you could contact relatives to consider whether they may have abused her in the past.

d. Proceed with treatment of the eating disorder without alluding to, hinting, or suggesting that she was abused out of concern of creating a false “recovered” memory

A

D

228
Q

Which of the following is NOT a recommendation for using a lineup that would avoid mistaken identifications?

a. When asking a witness to pick the perpetrator from a lineup, inform the witness that the perpetrator may not be in the particular lineup he or she is viewing.

b. When constructing a lineup, use “fillers” who are similar to the suspect.

c. Get an immediate confidence rating after the witness makes a selection.

d. Use a lineup administrator who knows which person in the lineup is the suspect

A

D

229
Q

Janelle is getting an fMRI scan while she describes an everyday episodic memory. Which of the following brain areas will show the LEAST activity in her scan?
a. hippocampus and parietal cortex
b. medial temporal lobe and amygdala
c. amygdala and hippocampus
d. parietal cortex and prefrontal cortex

A

C

230
Q

The reminiscence bump seems to corroborate which of the following?
a. cryptoamnesia
b. pragmatic inference
c. youth bias
d. narrative rehearsal

A

C

231
Q

Wade wants to replicate the research that Cahill conducted with a person named B.P., who had suffered a neurological injury. Wade is looking to identify the role that ________ plays in memory.
a. emotion
b. culture
c. sensation
d. suggestion

A

A

232
Q

What distinguishes a flashbulb memory from an autobiographical memory?
a. familiarity
b. intensity
c. veracity
d. fluency

A

B

233
Q

Friends repeatedly sharing experiences of an event such as an earthquake in a major city can affect their memories due to which of the following?
a. inference
b. rehearsal
c. reconsolidation
d. saturation

A

B

234
Q

Which of the following would be considered part of Sachi’s flashbulb memory for the 2004 earthquake and tsunami that struck locations in the Indian Ocean?

a. the video clip of a boy clinging to a tree top

b. the maximum height of the waves that struck

c. the cafe she sat in when first seeing the news

d. the Richter scale rating of the earthquake

A

C

235
Q

What was the problem with Brown and Kulik’s research into flashbulb memories?

a. The participants’ memories could not be verified.

b. The effect of media bias had not been factored in.

c. The events remembered were not intense enough.

d. The research team made source misattributions.

A

A

236
Q

Which of the following are the foundation of the illusory truth effect?

a. fluency and emotion
b. repetition and fluency
c. emotion and misattribution
d. misattribution and repetition

A

B

237
Q

What is the key variable in the method known as repeated reproduction?
a. frequency
b. age
c. time
d. stress

A

C. time

238
Q

The misinformation effect on memory is related to which of the following?
a. stress
b. timing
c. rehearsal
d. culture

A

B

239
Q

When asked at the police lineup to select the person he saw running away from the warehouse fire that night, Mr. Salazar picked Rashid, the boy who used to shovel his driveway and rake his leaves a few years back. Two other witnesses picked someone else from the same lineup. What factor likely led Mr. Salazar to pick Rashid out of the lineup?
a. bias
b. pragmatism
c. familiarity
d. nostalgia

A

C

240
Q

In a court trial, a judge may sometimes warn a questioning attorney not to “lead the witness” during their testimony. The attorney’s behavior could possibly lead to errors in the testimony due to ________.
a. attention
b. familiarity
c. inference
d. suggestion

A

D

241
Q

When Marcus went into the vintage candy store, he couldn’t believe all the brands they sold. When he bit into a Turkish Taffy, it immediately took him back to hanging out with his pals at their tree fort on a summer day. What did Marcus experience at the store?

a. pragmatic inference
b. repressed childhood memory
c. the Proust effect
d. post-identification feedback

A

C

242
Q

____________ refers to a set of processes for which the goal is to overcome obstacles constructing the path to a solution:
A. Problem solving
B. creativity
C. Decision Making
D. Convergent thinking

A

A

243
Q

Gestalt Psychologists consider problem solving as a process involving:
A. a change in perception
B. multiple goal states
C. sensory operators
D. continuity and form.

A

A

244
Q

Insight refers to:
A. prior learning facilitating problem solving
B. prior learning hindering problem solving
C. the tendency to respond in a certain manner, based on past experience
D. the sudden realization of a problem’s solution

A

D

245
Q

The “circle problem” in which the task is to determine the light of a line that is inside a circle, was proposed to illustrate:
A. how analogy can be used to solve problems
B. means-end analysis
C. representation and restructuring
D. the problem space

A

C

246
Q

Metcalfe and weir gave participants problems to solve and asked them to make “warmth” judgements every 15 seconds to indicate how close they felt they were to a solution. The purpose of this experiment was to:
A. demonstrate a difference between how people solve insight and non-insight problems
B. show how people progress through the problem space as they solve a problem.
C. show that some problems are easier to solve than others
D. measure the time-course of the process of restructuring

A

A

247
Q

In Metcalfe and Wiebe experiment confidence ratings on “nearness to a solution” ________ over time PRIOR to the solution of an insight problem
A. decrease
B. increase
C. remain constant
D. vary unpredictability

A

C

248
Q

Which problem below provides an example of how functional fixedness can hinder solution of a problem?
A. Tower of Hanoi problem
B. Two-string problem
C. Mutilated checkerboard problem
D. The General

A

B

249
Q

A(n) _________ string represents a restructured representation in the two-string problem:
A. stationary
B. swinging
C. knotted
D. unknotted

A

B

250
Q

Which of the following best represents a mental set?
A. using a pair of pliers as a paperweight
B. using a tire as a swing seat and as football practice target
C. using a juice glass as a container for orange juice
D. using a wine bottle as a vase

A

C

251
Q

Newell and Simon were early pioneers in designing computer program that could solve problems. Their research program was based on the idea that problem solving is a process that involves:
A. heuristic
B. algorithms
C. parity
D. search

A

D

252
Q

The tower of Hanoi problem is an example of a(n) _________ problem that has been analyzed using the _______ approach:
A. Ill-defined/gestalt
B. well-defined/means-end analysis
C. well defined-gestalt
D. ill-defined.means-end analysis

A

B

253
Q

Newell and Simon called the conditions at the beginning of the problem the:
A. intermediate state
B. initial state
C. goal state
D. source story

A

B

254
Q

Sugoals must:
A. be used only for insight problems
B. involve problems were the solver jumps directly from the initial state to the goal state
C. move the problem solver closer and closer to the goal
D. none of the above

A

C

255
Q

Ill defined problems are so maned because is it difficult to specify clear _______ for the problems:
A. analogies
B. schemas
C. goal states
D. source

A

C

256
Q

n Kaplan and Simons’ experiment they presented different versions of the mutilated checkerboard problem. The main purpose of their experiment was to demonstrate that:
A. a person’s mental set can hinder finding a solution to a problem
B. People often have to backtrack within the problem space to arrive at an answer to a problem
C. The way the problem is represented can influence the ease of problem solving
D. none of these

A

C

257
Q

The ability to transfer experience from one problem solving situation to a similar problem is known as:
A. analogical encoding
B. analogical transfer
C. insight
D. in vivo problem solving

A

B

258
Q

The radiation problem was used in your text to illustrate the role of ____ in problem solving.
A. means-end analysis
B. functional fixedness
C. analogy
D. mental set

A

C

259
Q

Analogical problem solving involves _____ problems with ______ solutions:
A. similar/different
B. different/different
C. different/similar
D. none of the above

A

C

260
Q

Consider the “General” problem and the “Radiation” Solution problem together, the “General” problem represents the _____ problem:
A. source
B. target
C. exemplar
D. prototype

A

A

261
Q

Which of the following statements does NOT apply to the results of research on differences between how experts and novices solve problems?
A. Being an expert in one field can transfer to better problem solving in another field
B. Experts often group problems differently than movies, based on principles
C. experts often get off to a slower start than novices
D. experts posses more knowledge about their fields than novices

A

A

261
Q

Gick and Holyoak proposed that analogical problem solving involves the following three steps:
A. restructuring, searching, and simulating
B. noticing, mapping, and applying
C. surfacing, structuring, and generalizing
D. Well-defining, infighting, and means-end analysis

A

B

262
Q

Making probable conclusions based on evidence involves ____ reasoning.
A. deductive
B. syllogistic
C. inductive
D. connective

A

C

263
Q

Deductive arguments that involve drawing conclusions from two premises are referred to as:
A. modus tollens argument
B. syllogism
C. descriptive argument
D. modus ponens argument

A

B

264
Q

If we are given the information that in oder to vote in a presidential election you must at least bee 18 years of age and that Will voted in the last presidential election, we can logically conclude that Will is at least 18 years old. This is example of using ______ reasoning.
A. inductive
B. deductive
C. conjunctive
D. descriptive

A

B

264
Q

The validity of a syllogism depends on:
A. the truth of its premises
B. the truth of its conclusions
C. its form
D. a and b above

A

C

264
Q

If you have participated in paired-associate learning, then you likely

a. heard a variety of words paired with other words and had to recall which word was paired with another.

b. had to come up with a word that you believed was associated with another word.

c. engaged in shallow rather than deep processing.

d. were tested to see how many categories of word pairs you remembered.

A

A

265
Q

Suppose you do a memory test and hear the words “shy,” “kind,” and “intelligent”—which, coincidentally, also describe your personality. Due to ___ you’d likely have good recall for these words.

a. deep processing
b. paired-associate learning
c. the generation effect
d. the self-reference effect

A

D

266
Q

The word “apple” would probably NOT serve as a retrieval cue for the word ___.
a. “shoe”
b. “pie”
c. “orange”
d. “tree”

A

A

266
Q

What is the key distinction between maintenance rehearsal and elaborative rehearsal?
a. mood
b. meaning
c. timing
d. location

A

B

266
Q

The sentence “Every good boy deserves fudge” is used by music students to represent notes on the lines of the treble clef. Which concept does this reflect?
a. temporal context
b. encoding specificity
c. spacing effect
d. retrieval cue

A

D

267
Q

Suppose you were studying while listening to pop music at a low volume on the radio. Consistent with state-dependent learning, your testing of that study material would probably be best if ___.

a. no music was played
b. pop music at a low volume was played
c. pop music at a moderately high volume was played
d. classical music was played

A

B

268
Q

Research based on transfer-appropriate processing provides the LEAST support for ___.

a. encoding specificity
b. state-dependent learning
c. levels of processing theory
d. actually, transfer-appropriate processing supports all of these principles

A

C

269
Q

According to the standard model of consolidation, activation in the cortex

a. does not occur at all.
b. is limited.
c. occurs in a number of different areas.
d. is unclear.

A

C

270
Q

Which of the following best reflects the results of Tulving and Pearlstone’s experiment with retrieval cues?

a. The free recall participants recalled about the same amount of items as the cued recall participants.

b. The cued recall participants recalled nearly twice as many items as the free recall participants.

c. The free recall participants recalled three times more items than the cued recall participants.

d. The cued recall participants recalled less than half as many items as the free recall participants.

A

B

271
Q

What is the consequence of injecting a rat with anisomycin?

a. Doing so improves memory.
b. Doing so produces fear.
c. Doing so inhibits the formation of new memories.
d. The use of this drug is lethal to rats.

A

C

271
Q

Devon and Yoshi always create True-False flash cards to help them study for Mrs. Singleton’s weekly True-False history quizzes. What strategy are Devon and Yoshi using to help enhance their performance on the quizzes?

a. state-dependent learning
b. transfer-appropriate processing
c. synaptic consolidation
d. encoding specificity

A

B

271
Q

How long does the synaptic consolidation of a memory take?
a. seconds
b. minutes
c. weeks
d. years

A

B

272
Q

Compared to the standard model of consolidation, which of the following is thought to play a larger role in the multiple trace model of consolidation?
a. multivoxels
b. hippocampus
c. amygdala
d. synapses

A

B

272
Q

Without ________, reconsolidation of a memory would not be possible.
a. cueing
b. testing
c. fragility
d. sleep

A

C

272
Q

Mr. Gomez has found that his students’ performance on a unit exam is enhanced by their taking weekly quizzes on content covered in the unit. What method is Mr. Gomez using with his students?

a. transfer-appropriate processing
b. activated reconsolidation
c. state-dependent learning
d. retrieval practice

A

D

273
Q

How are creating self-references and forming visual images similar?

a. They both require state dependence.
b. They both stimulate reconsolidation.
c. They both engage deep processing.
d. They both trigger the spacing effect.

A

C

273
Q

Research conducted by Bower and Winzenz using paired-associate learning demonstrated the value of using ________ to improve memory.
a. self-reference
b. images
c. specificity
d. rehearsal

A

B

274
Q

The “famous rat experiment” provided key insights into reconsolidation because memories were ________.
a. traced
b. reactivated
c. potentiated
d. organized

A

B

275
Q

In the context of memory, what distinguishes reconsolidation from consolidation?
a. scale
b. modification
c. emotion
d. cueing

A

B

275
Q

Rereading material for a class many times is considered an ineffective study strategy. Rather than learning, this practice simply makes you ________.
a. disengaged
b. saturated
c. fluent
d. proactive

A

C

275
Q

What is the key difference between free recall and cued recall?
a. traces
b. hints
c. tasks
d. states

A

B