Question Trainer 1 Remediation Flashcards

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1
Q

true or false

the type of stroke can be determined solely based on manifestations

A

FALSe

manifestations of different types of stroke are similar and therefore it is critical to determine the type of stroke occuring; the type cannot be determined solely based on manifestations and the correct and appropriate treatent for the stroke type must be initiated

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2
Q

the type of stroke needs to be determined within a certain time frame after arrival in order for timely treatment to begin

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE; Time is of the essence when providing care to a client who experiences an ischemic stroke, as thrombolytic therapy is only effective for a certain time frame once symptoms begin (4.5 to 6 hours). This is the priority assessment question, as thrombolytic therapy can restore circulation for this client.

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3
Q

How is the type of stroke usually identified ?

A

Usually done using imaging such as a CT scan

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4
Q

Different between bone marrow aspiration and biopsy

A

The two procedures are often done together. They differ in the specific content of the bone marrow they remove

Bone marrow has a fluid portion and a more solid portion. In bone marrow biopsy, your doctor uses a needle to withdraw a sample of the solid portion. In bone marrow aspiration, a needle is used to withdraw a sample of the fluid portion.

Risks include infection, bleeding, penetration of the breastbone which can cause heart or lung problems, or long lasting discomfort at the biopsy site.

The sternum may be used for bone marrow aspiration. However, there is not enough marrow available in the sternum for a biopsy.

The procedure can be done at the bedside or in the operating room

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5
Q

Therapeutic Communication Do’s

A

Do respond to feeling tone.

Do provide information.

Do focus on the client.

Do use silence.

Do use presence.

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6
Q

What is the prioroty assessment in the unconscious client ?

A

The airway, as increases in arterial carbon dioxide levels will increase intracranial pressure

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7
Q

___________________communication often causes fatigue for the client diagnosed with MS.

A

Verbal

the client is taught to make important points first prior to the onset of fatigue.

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8
Q
A

Impaired balance or coordination

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9
Q

Enteral tube feedings should be administered if bowel sounds are absent.

TRue or false

A

FALSE

Feedings should not be administered if bowel sounds are absent

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10
Q

For gastrointestinal tube feedings, we do not hang more solution that is required for a _________________ hour period

A

4

This is done to reduce the risk of bacterial growth

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11
Q

The gastrostomy tube should be rotated 360 degrees daily to reduce the risk of skin irritation and breakdown.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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12
Q

We should check for slight in-and-out movement of the gastrostomy tube.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

A slight in-and-out movement indicates that the gastrostomy tube is not embedded in the wall of stomach

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13
Q

a common and disabling condition following brain damage in which patients fail to be aware of items to one side of space. Neglect is most prominent and long-lasting after damage to the right hemisphere of the human brain, particularly following a stroke. Such individuals with right-sided brain damage often fail to be aware of objects to their left, demonstrating neglect of leftward items.

A

Unilateral neglect syndrome

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14
Q

The client who is recovering from a stroke may have a short attention span or visual difficulties, making reading with comprehension a difficult task. The nurse should provide verbal instructions with _______________________.

A

short sentences.

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15
Q

During DKA, osmotic diuresis occurs and the client is at significant risk for ___________________–

A

fluid volume deficit.

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16
Q

decreased circulation is a _______________-for anti-embolism stockings

Venous thromboembolism is a ________________for anti-embolism stockings

A

contraindication; contraindication

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17
Q

The best indication of peripheral arterial disease and circulation to extremities is to monitor the client’s _____________________-

A

pedal pulses

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18
Q

Vital signs should be within ___________—of preprocedure values

A

20%

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19
Q

Anesthesia nursing considerations

A

vital signs every 15-30 minutes

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20
Q

An involuntary eye movement which may cause the eye to rapidly move from side to side, up and down, or in a circle, and may slightly blur vision

A

Nystagmus

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21
Q

a condition in women that results in excessive growth of dark or coarse hair in a male-like pattern — face, chest and back.

A

hirsutism

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22
Q

overgrowth of gum tissue around the teeth.

A

gingival hyperplasia

can be an adverse effect of phenytoin sodium

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23
Q

Metoclopramide

A

antiemetic; cab be given 30 minutes before antineoplastic agents such as Cisplatin

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24
Q

Expected findings for Rheumatoid arthritis

A

joint swelling, stiffness and pain

elevated ESR

anemia

joint deformities, muscle atrophy, and decreased range of motion in affected joints

positive rheumatoid factor

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25
Q

exacerbations of rheumatoid arthritis occur

A

during periods of physical or emotional stress and fatigue

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26
Q

rheumatoid arthritis weakens the ____________, leading to dislocation and permanent deformity of the _____________

A

joint

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27
Q

this is the speed at which RBC settle in well-mixed venous blood. Higher levels indicate inflammation

what are normal values ?

A

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

males less than 50 yrs: less than 15 mm/hr

males greater than 50 years: less than 20 mm/hg

female less than 50 years: less than 25 mm/hr

females greater than 50 years: less than 30 mm/h

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28
Q

one contraindication of Etanercept to remember

A

active infection

Etanercept is an antiarthritic agent

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29
Q

Any heat source, including hot baths and electric blankets, will increase the absorption of medication through the skin

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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30
Q

A fever increases absorption of medication through the skin

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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31
Q

When providing care for a client diagnosed with acute kidney injury, it is important for the nurse to monitor circulation by reviewing the client’s __________________-, which is a good indicator of fluid volume.

A

urine specific gravity

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32
Q

this is a urine test that measures the ability of the kidneys to concentrate urine

what is the normal range

A

Urine specific gravity

1.005-1.030

a higher specific gravity reflects more concentrated urine

a lower specific gravity reflects a less concentrated urine (this could indicate renal disease or the kidney’s inability to concentrate urine)

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33
Q

The client receives a blood transfusion and experiences a hemolytic reaction. The nurse anticipates which assessment findings for this client?

A

Hypotension, low back pain, fever, nausea/vomiting

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34
Q

The health care provider prescribes an increase in the parenteral nutrition (PN) infusion rate from 50 mL/hour to 100 mL/hour. The PN is infusing through a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) device. Which is the priority action for the nurse?

A

Parenteral nutrition is hyperosmolar and will pull fluid into the intravascular space, thereby causing osmotic diuresis. Fluid volume affects the ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation). Therefore, monitoring urine output is the priority nursing action.

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35
Q

this is the rapid emptying of the gastric contents into the small intestine that occurs following gastric resection

A

Dumping syndrome

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36
Q

Dumping syndrome symptoms

A

nausea/vomiting

feelings of abdominal fullness and abdominal cramping

diarrhea

palpitations & tachycardia

perspiration

weakness/dizziness

Borborygmi (loud gurgling sounds resulting from bowel hypermotility)

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37
Q

Client Education: Preventing Dumping Syndrome

A

avoid sugar, salt and milk

eat a high protein, high fat, low carbohydrate diet

eat small meals and avoid consuming fluids with meals

lie down after meals

take antispasmodic medications as prescribed to delay gastric emptying

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38
Q

During a urinary bladder catheter insertion, with a size 16 French catheter on an older adult male, the nurse feels increased resistance. Which is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

A

Stop the insertion and instruct the client to take deep breaths.

Instructing the client to take deep breaths will relax the urethral muscles and facilitate passage through the prostate gland

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39
Q

When drawing blood from a PICC line, what are appropriate guidelines.

A

discard 3 to 5 mL of blood prior to obtaining the sample in order to prevent contamination of the blood sample with IV fluids or medications.

A 10 mL syringe is recommended to reduce pressure on the lumen of the PICC line during the flush

Clean gloves are used when drawing blood from a PICC line

The push-pause technique reduces the risk of clot formation and damage to the PICC line.

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40
Q

The nurse expects how many ml of water in the water seal chamber of the chest tube

A

2 cm

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41
Q

______________-gloves are used for tracheostomy suctioning

A

Sterile

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42
Q

In order to ensure the client does not experience______________ during tracheostomy suctioning, the nurse _____________the client before and after each time the airway is entered for suctioning.

A

hypoxia; hyperoxygenates

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43
Q

Which position is ideal for tracheostomy suctioning?

A

A semi-Fowler, not high-Fowler, position is ideal for this client during tracheostomy suctioning.

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44
Q

Elevating the head of the bed will allow for a ____________-

A

more open airway.

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45
Q

_______________________is the earliest indication of poor cardiac output.

A

A change in LOC and/or alertness

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46
Q

How to care for an evisceration following surgery?

A

Cover the area with sterile gauze soaked in normal saline

immediately cover the site with a sterile dressing soaked with normal saline and contact the health care provider.

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47
Q

The use of “why” questions is not therapeutic

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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48
Q

The client with altered mental status is at risk for aspiration, TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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49
Q

The nurse provides care for a client who is prescribed assist-control mechanical ventilation with positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) of 5 cm H 2O. Which actions will the nurse include in the client’s plan of care?

A

Changing client position every 2 hours to reduce risk of atelectasis, pneumonoia and skin breakdown

strict handwashing before suctioning to prevent VAP

Administering Pantoprazole (will decrease the risk of aspiration of gastric contents)

Elevate head of bed at least 30 degrees

oral care and teeth brusing should be done at least every 8 hours

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50
Q

dysphonia

A

muffled voice

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51
Q

Do all unemancipated minors presenting to the ED for treatment require guardian consent for treatment?

A

NO

Unemancipated minors may consent to medical treatment if they have specific medical conditions (i.e. pregnancy, pregnancy-related conditions, minor treatment for custodial child, sexually transmitted infection information and treatment, substance abuse treatment, and mental health treatment).

Depending on why the minor is seeking treatment, guardian consent may not be necessary and could breach HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) guidelines.

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52
Q

The nurse works on the medical surgical unit. The nurse-to-client ratio is 1:10. Which action does the nurse take first?

  1. Document the situation in writing.
  2. Refuse the client assignment.
  3. Delegate tasks to the LPN/LVN.
  4. Notify the nursing supervisor.
A

Notify the nursing supervisor

This is the priority action, as the nurse-to-client ratio is proportionately high. This action alerts the nursing supervisor of the situation so nurses can be “floated” from other departments, if available.

The nurse maintains responsibility for client outcomes. The problem is nurse-to-client ratio. Therefore, the nursing supervisor can provide more staffing, if needed.

notifying the supervisor is the priority. The nurse should provide the documentation to the nursing administrators, but the documentation does not relieve the nurse of responsibility if clients suffer harm because of inattention

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53
Q

Fetal heart tones cannot be heard with Doptone until ________________weeks gestation.

A

8-12

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54
Q

this is postpartum discharge from the uterus that consists of blood from the vessels of the placental site and debris from the decidua

A

Lochia

Lochia rubra - bright red discharge that occurs from day of birth to day 3

Lochia serosa- brownish pink discharge that occurs from days 4-10

Lochia Alba- white discharge that occurs from days 11-14

Discharge decreases daily in amount

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55
Q

The competent client has the right to make personal choices without interference.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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56
Q

The nurse completes documentation for a client and realizes the entry has been placed in the wrong client’s medical record. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate

A

2.Draw a single line through each line of the incorrect entry and write a new note explaining what occurred.

Draw 1 line through the error, initial and date

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57
Q

The nurse provides care for an adolescent client reporting arm pain after a fall. The nurse notes bruising in multiple stages of healing. The nurse accesses the client’s medical record and notes the client was treated twice last month for reported back pain after two separate falls. The client was treated two months ago for a perforated eardrum. Which action by the nurse is the priority?

A

Contact social services

The adolescent client’s history suggests that there may be abuse. The law mandates that the nurse report known or suspected child abuse by collaborating with social services and law enforcement. Therefore, this is the priority action.

While the nurse should assess the client’s anxiety level, a professional assessment of the client’s situation takes priority over psychosocial nursing actions.

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58
Q

Individuals who have a BMI lower than ______________–are at increased risk for problems associated with poor nutritional status.

A

18.5

a low BMI is associated with higher mortality rate among hospitalized clients.

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59
Q

Individuals who experience spousal ______________often accept blame, become compliant, and feel helpless

A

abuse

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60
Q

Herpes Zoster is also known as ___________________

It is contagious to anyone who has not had __________________ or who is ____________________-

What kind of infection precautions do we take ?

A

Shingles; chickenpox; immunosuppressed

Contact precaution

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61
Q

The nurse must verify the client’s ________________before administering medications

A

identity

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62
Q

Older adult clients need visual examinations every _____________–years

A

1 to 2

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63
Q

safety and infection control : the priority is to prevent the spread of _________________

A

contamination

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64
Q

Restraints should be discontinued as soon as the client becomes

A

alert and oriented

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65
Q

A client with an endotracheal tube requires suctioning. How should it be done?

A

insert suction catheter until resistance is met without applying suction, withdraw 0.4 to 0.8 inches (1 to 2 cm), and apply intermittent suction with twirling motion

never suction longer than 10–15 seconds

2) use twirling motion when withdrawing catheter

suction is never applied when catheter is inserted

Hyperoxygenates the client before and after

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66
Q

attributing one’s thoughts or impulses to another

A

projection

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67
Q

shifting of emotion concerning person or object to another neutral or less dangerous person or object)

A

displacement

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68
Q

shifting of emotion concerning person or object to another neutral or less dangerous person or object)

A

sublimation

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69
Q

incorporation of someone else’s opinion as one’s own

A

internalization

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70
Q

attempt to make behavior appear to be the result of logical thinking

A

rationalization

71
Q

excessive reasoning or logic used to avoid experiencing disturbing feelings

A

intellectualization

72
Q

development of conscious attitudes and behavior patterns into opposite of what one really wants to do

A

reaction formation

73
Q

something represents something else)

A

symbolization

74
Q

By 6 months, the infant should be able to

A

sit with support

roll from back to abdomen

play peek a boo

75
Q

tactile stimulation can cause _____________ in the patient with a spinal cord injury

A

autonomic dysreflexia

76
Q

anytime time you get poor perfusion to the kidneys you are going to get ……………

A

flank pain

77
Q

what is the outcome of giving fluids to someone with nausea?

A

vomiting

78
Q

A competent client has the right to determine their own care. This is an important concept on the NCLEX.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

79
Q

when can you treat a minor without parental consent ?

A

STD, abuse situations, pregnancies, emergencies, mental health

80
Q

an incident report goes into the clients medical record.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

FALSE

an incident report does not go into the clients medical record

81
Q

When we have potential abuse – our priority is the ______________-of our client. We are required by law to report the potential abuse.

A

physical safety

82
Q

A client with an endotracheal tube requires suctioning. Which statement is an accurate description of how the nurse performs the procedure?

  1. Inserts the suction catheter 4 in into the tube. Applies suction for 30 seconds, using a twirling motion as the catheter is withdrawn.
  2. Hyperoxygenates the client. Inserts the suction catheter into the tube, and suctions while removing the catheter in a back and forth motion.
  3. Explains the procedure to the client. Inserts the catheter gently while applying suction, and withdraws using a twisting motion.
  4. Inserts the suction catheter until resistance is met, and then withdraws it slightly. Applies suction intermittently as the catheter is withdrawn.
A

1) catheter is inserted until resistance is met; never suction longer than 10–15 seconds
2) use twirling motion when withdrawing catheter
3) suction is never applied when catheter is inserted
4) CORRECT — insert suction catheter until resistance is met without applying suction, withdraw 0.4 to 0.8 inches (1 to 2 cm), and apply intermittent suction with twirling motion

83
Q

What is the primary purpose of range of motion exercises ?

A

to assist someone in being able to carry out activities of daily living

84
Q

Fetal Alcohol Syndrome - what to know

A

leading cause of mental deficiencies in children. 100% preventable. Results from consuming high levels of alcohol in pregnancy. There is no safe level of alcohol consumption during pregnancy

Intellectual & Motor Deficiencies

Thin Upper Lip

Epicanthal Folds

Maxillary Hypoplasia

Small for Gestational Age

Microcephaly

hearing disorders

We should swaddle infant at birth and decrease environmental stimuli. We should administer sedatives to decrease symptoms of withdrawal. We should monitor infant’s weight gain. We should promote nutritional intake.

85
Q

True or false. The renal threshold for glucose is decreased in the elderly.

A

FALSE

The renal threshold for glucose is increased in the elderly.

The level at which urine starts to appear in the urine increases, leading to false-negative readings. This resluts in elevated blood glucose levels.

86
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

For ultrasound, a client must drink fluid prior to test, have full bladder to assist in clarity of image.

What interferes with imaging ?

A

TRUE

Bone, gas, air, fluid interfere with imaging.

87
Q

This is the removal of amniotic fluid for evaluation

A

Amniocentesis

Not performed earlier than 14 weeks

best performed between 15-20 weeks of pregnancy because amniotic fluid volume is addequate and man viable fetal vcells are present in the fluid by this time

88
Q

fetal ultrasound detects the___________________

A

size, growth patterns, and gestational age

89
Q

Instructions in caring for the child with lice

A

an infestation of the hair and scalp with lice

transmitted by direct and indirect contact

hair should be combed daily with a nit comb. Should then be discarded or soaked in boiling water for 10 minutes

grooming items should not be shared

bedding and clothing used by the child should be changed daily, laundered in hot water with detergent and dried in a hot dryer for 20 minutes. This process should continue for 1 week

Child should not share clothing, headwear, brushes or combs

Furniture and carpets need to be vacuumned frequently

90
Q

What position should the client receiving an enema be placed in ?

A

Sim’s position

This allows solution to flow downward along the natural curve of the sigmoid colon and rectum, which improves retention of solution

91
Q

Enema administration- for adults the tube should be inserted no more than _________ inches, _______ inches for the child and __________inche for the infant

A

3-4; 2-3; 1-1.5

92
Q

This is the instillation of solution in the rectum and sigmoid colon in order to promote defecation by stimulating peristalsis

A

Enemas

93
Q

Enemas should not be administered in the presence of

A

abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting or suspected appendicitis

94
Q

Antipsychotic medications commonly produce__________________ symptoms as side effects

A

extrapyramidal

95
Q

inadequate airway clearance is the top priority for clients with a tracheostomy because ______________________________

A

loss of the upper airway increases the amount and viscosity of secretions

96
Q

What is hypoparathyroidism?

A

The parathyroid glands secrete less parathyroid hormone in the blood and there are decreased serum calcium levels in the blood

The parathyroid glands are located posterior to the thyroid glands

97
Q

What does parathyroid hormone do ?

A

It maintains serum calcium levels and serum phosphate levels

When calcium levels decrease, phosphate increases. There is an inverse relationship.

Decreased calcium levels lead to increased irritability of nerves & muscles

98
Q

What will the nurse expect to observe in hypoparathyroidism?

A

basically the symptoms of hypocalcemia

Neuromuscular Irritability: Twitching

Increased Deep Tendon Reflexes

Tremors

Positive Chvosteks sign

Positive Trousseau’s sign

Numbness & Tingling of Extremities

Disorentiation & Confusion

99
Q

the lower the serum calcium, the greater the risk for _______________

A

seizures

100
Q

Vitamin D enhances the absoprtion of __________ from the GI tract

A

calcium

101
Q

________________________-is most important reason for fetal monitoring

A

fetal well-being

102
Q

intellectually delayed client should be carefully evaluated to ensure complete comprehension of the dosage regimen to prevent _________________ and ________________

A

overdose and underdose

103
Q

Predisposing factors for pregnancy induced hypertension

A

Large fetus

Older than 35 years, younger than 17 years

Primigravida

Multiple fetuses

Poor nutrition

history of diabetes, renal or vascular disease

Family History

104
Q

Mild preeclampsia begins past the _____________ week of pregnancy

When assessing the client, the nurse will observe a blood pressure of greater than_________-

The client will also have 2+, 3+ _______________

A

20th; 140/90; proteinuria

105
Q

Assessment for severe preeclampsia

A

BP >160/110

4+ proteinuria

headache

epigastric pain

pulmonary edema

hyperreflexia

106
Q

infection of the dermis and underlying hypodermis

A

Cellulitis

assessment notes pain & tenderness, erythema & warmth, edema, fever

107
Q

The nurse cares for the client admitted with a diagnosis of a stroke and facial paralysis. Nursing care is planned to prevent which complication?

  1. Inability to talk.
  2. Loss of the gag reflex.
  3. Inability to open the affected eye.
  4. Corneal abrasion.
A

1) may occur, but nursing care cannot prevent it
2) may occur, but nursing care cannot prevent it
3) may occur, but nursing care cannot prevent it

4) CORRECT — client will be unable to close eye voluntarily; when facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) is affected, the lacrimal gland will no longer supply secretions that protect the eye

108
Q

This cranial nerve controls movement of the face and taste sensation

A

Facial Nerve

Cranial Nerve VII

109
Q

Instruct the clinet taking lithium to maintain a fluid intake of _________ glasses of water a day and an adequate _________ intake to prevent lithium toxicity

A

6-8; salt

110
Q

Symptoms of lithium toxicity begin to appear when the serum lithium level is ________________ mEq/L

A

1.5-2

111
Q

therapeutic lithium levels

A

0.6-1.2 mEq/L

112
Q

early signs of lithoum toxicity

A

fine motor tremors

nausea & vomiting

diarrhea

113
Q

This is when a portion of the stomach herniates through the diaphragm and into the thorax

A

Hiatal hernia

114
Q

a full stomach is more likely to slide (reflux) through the hernia, causing regurgitation and heartburn

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

This is why in a client with reflux food and fluids should be withheld just before going to bed

115
Q

When are solid foods started in the infant ?

A

usually started between 4-5 months of age

infants are less likely to be allergic to rice cereal than to any other solid food; usually started between 4 and 5 months of age; breast-fed infants may be started on solids even later

116
Q

The nurse identifies the primary reason for elderly adults to have problems with constipation is because of which process?

A

Elderly adults engage in less activity and have decreased GI muscle tone.

reduced gastrointestinal motility due to decreased muscle tone, decreased exercise; other factors include prolonged use of laxatives, ignoring urge to defecate, adverse effect of medications, emotional problems, insufficient fluid intake, and excessive dietary fat

117
Q

This type of play is characteristic of an infant?

A

Solitary

118
Q

This type of play is characteristic of a toddler ?

A

Parallel play

119
Q

This type of play is characteristic of 4 year olds ?

A

Associative play

The child requires regular socialization with mates of similar age

120
Q

What is Addison’s disease?

A

This is the hyposecretion of adrenal cortex hormones (glucocorticoids & mineralocorticoids) from the adrenal gland, resulting in deficiency of the corticosteroid hormones. The condition is fatal if left untreated

121
Q

The abrupt withdrawal of corticosteroids can lead to acute ___________ disease

A

Addison’s

122
Q

Decreased glucocorticoids lead to ____________________

Decreased mineralocorticoids (like aldosterone) lead to _________________

Decreased androgens lead to _______________

A

decreased stress & immune response

decreased sodium & water retention

decreased male sex characteristics

123
Q

An Addisonian crisis can be caused by

A

stress, infection, trauma, surgeryor abrupt withdrawal of exogenous corticosteroid use

124
Q

Signs and Symptoms of Addisonian Crisis

Remember the 5’S & 3 H’s

A

Super low blood pressure (nothing will bring it up)

Sudden pain in stomach, back, and legs

Syncope (going unconscious)

Shock

Severe vomiting, diarrhea and headache

Hyponatremia

Hyperkalemia

Hypoglycemia

125
Q

assessment of someone in Addisonian Crisis

A

severe headache

severe abdominal, leg, or lower back pain

generalized weakness

irritability and confusion

severe hypotension

shock

126
Q

Adrenal crisis in a nutshell is extremely low ____________levels.

A

CORTISOL

127
Q

Key Players in Adrenal Crisis:

A

Adrenal Cortex: produces CORTISOL

Pituitary Gland (anterior): regulates CORTISOL production by releasing ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)…when this is released it causes the adrenal cortex to release cortisol.

CORTISOL: a steroid hormone which is a glucocorticoid know as the “STRESS Hormone” . This helps the body deal with stress such as illness or injury by increasing blood glucose though glucose metabolism, breaking down fats, proteins, and carbs, and regulating electrolytes.

128
Q

Nursing management of Adrenal Crisis

A

Administer some cortisol STAT via fastest route which is IV!!

Most commonly prescribed is Solu-Cortef “hydrocortisone”, along with IV fluids which will help replenish sodium and glucose (D5NS).

Start on PO glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoid:For replacing cortisol: ex: prednisone, hydrocortisone

Education: patient to report if they are having stress such as illness, surgery, or extra stress in life…… will need to increase dosage, take medication exactly as prescribed….don’t stop abruptly without consulting with md.

For replacing aldosterone: Fludrocortisone aka Florinef

Education: consuming enough salt..may need extra salt

Watch sodium, potassium and glucose levels and ensure clean environment to prevent infection

129
Q

For those with Addison’s disase, ____________________ will need to be increased during times of stress

A

corticosteroid replacement

130
Q

Addison’s disease symptoms

A

lethargy, fatigue, and muscle weakness

gastrointestinal disturbances

weight loss

menstrual changes in women; impotence in men

hypoglycemia, hyponatremia

hyperkalemia; hypercalcemia

hypotension

hyperpigmentation of skin (bronzed) with primary disease

131
Q

What is the fourth stage of labor ?

A

This is the period 1-4 hours after birth and the delivery of the placenta

The blood pressure returns to prelabor level

The pulse is slightly lower than during labor

The fundus remains contracted, in the midline, 1 or 2 fingerbreadths below the umbilicus

Perform maternal assessments every 15 minutes for 1 hour, every 30 minutes for 1 hour and hourly for 2 hours

Provide warm blankets

apply ice packs to the perineum

massage the uterus if needed; teach mother to also

provide breast feeding support as needed

132
Q

Regarding Postoperative cataract patients - sudden changes in __________________________increase the intraocular pressure and put pressure on the suture line

A

position, constipation, vomiting, stooping, or bending over

Post operative cataract patients will be instructed to bend from the knees to pick things up, avoid straining and heavy lifting

sleep on the unaffected side (decreases pain and swelling when elevated)

133
Q

dyspepsia

A

indigestion

134
Q

Which information does the nurse recognize as being the most pertinent to the diagnosis of cholecystitis?

  1. Flatulence.
  2. Nausea and vomiting.
  3. Right upper abdominal pain.
  4. Dyspepsia.
A

Right upper adbominal pain

135
Q

Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal

A

Tremors

anxiety

N/V

irritability

insombia

tachycardia

Elevated Temperature

Nocturnal leg cramps

early signs of alcohol withdrawal peak after 24-48 hours and then rapidly dissapear, unless the withdrawal progresses to alcohol withdrawl delirium. This state of delirium usuall peaks 48-72 hours after cessation or reduction of intake (watch for diaphoresis, disorientation with fluctuating levels of consciousness, hallucinations & delusions, tachycardia & hypertension)

136
Q

pituitary dwarfism assessment

A

height below normal, body proportions normal, none/tooth development retarded, sexual maturity delayed, skin fine and smooth, features delicate (appear younger than chronological age)

137
Q

Mannitol is what kind of medication ?

A

Osmotic Diuretic- these increase osmotic pressure of the glomerular filtrate, inhibiting reabsorption of water & electrolytes

They are used for oliguria and to prevent kidney failure, decrease ICP, and decrease intraocular pressure in clients with narrow angle glaucoma.

Monitor for vital signs & electrolyte imbalances

138
Q

The nurse knows that according to Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development, which developmental stage best represent a 50-year-old client?

  1. Integrity versus despair and disgust.
  2. Generativity versus stagnation.
  3. Intimacy versus isolation.
  4. Identity versus role diffusion.
A

2.Generativity versus stagnation.

139
Q

The long-term use of ceftriaxone sodium, a cephalosporin, can cause overgrowth of organisms; monitoring of tongue and oral cavity is recommended

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

140
Q

This is a hypothyroid state resulting from hyposecretion of thyroid hormines and characterized by a decreased rate in body metabolism

A

hypothyroidism

141
Q

This rare but serious disorder results from persistently low thyroid production

It cab be precipitated by acute illness, rapid withdrawal or thyroid medication, anesthesia or surgery, hypothermia, or the use of sedatives and opioid analgesics

A

Myxedema Coma

142
Q

hypothyroidism symptoms

A

Let the condition’s name help you: everything is going to be LOW and SLOW due to the body working at a very slow metabolism rate

Weight Gain

Unable to tolerate cold

Possible goiter from constant thyroid stimulation to get the thyroid gland to produce T3 and T4 MOST COMMON SIGN IN HASHIMOTO’S

Extremely tired and fatigued

Slow heart rate

Thinning and brittle hair

Depression

Constipation

Memory loss

Myxedema: swelling of the skin (eyes and face) that gives it a waxy appearance

Dry skin

Joint, muscle pain

Menstrual problems (irregular or heavy periods)

***early signs are feeling tired and fatigue…then as hypothyroidism progresses the patient starts to exhibit other symptoms

143
Q

The client with hypothyroidism should avoid these medication classes because of increased sensitivity- they may precipitate myxedema coma.

A

Sedatives & Opioid analgesics

144
Q

What is the Rinne Test ?

A

The stem of a vibrating tuning fork is held against the mastoid bone until the client indicates sound can no longer be heard.

when the client no longer hears the sound, the tuning fork is quickly inverted and placed near the ear canal; the client should still hear a sound

client should hear sound again when tuning fork is moved from mastoid bone to the front of the auditory canal because air conduction is better than bone conduction

145
Q

What is the Weber test ?

A

The stem of a vibrating tuning fork is held in the middle of the forehead, and the client’s hearing is assessed in both ears.

determines whether the client has a conductive or sensorineural hearing loss

146
Q

Clomiphene Citrate

A

clomiphene citrate induces ovulation by altering estrogen and stimulating follicular growth to produce a mature ovum

147
Q

What is the most effective method of reducing infection ?

A

good hand washing is the most effective method of reducing infection; very important with immunosuppressed clients

148
Q

Being NPO inhibits normal blood glucose control

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

149
Q

The nurse knows that cortisol is responsible for which action?

A

Converting proteins and fat into glucose.

150
Q

This substance regulates the calcium metabolism.

A

parathyroid hormone

151
Q

This substance prepares the body for fight or flight

A

Epinephrine

152
Q

This substance enhances musculoskeletal activity

A

norepinephrine

153
Q

_____________________ are a false belief that public events or people are directly related to the individual

A

delusions of reference

154
Q

a strongly held belief that is not validated by reality

A

delusion

155
Q

Mood altering drugs like ______________–are most often used intravenously and are most often associated with an increased risk for HIV infection

A

narcotics

156
Q

How many extra calories a day does the nurse advise the clients to consume to support breastfeeding?

A

milk production requires an increase of 500 calories per day

157
Q

This is an examination of the upper GI tract under flouroscopy after the client drinks barium sulfate. What is this diagnostic procedure called ?

A

Barium swallow

Withhold foods and fluids for 8 hours prior to the test

infant should be NPO 3 hours prior to the procedure

158
Q

symptoms of allergic reaction to blood transfusion

A

occurs immediately or within 24 hours

Mild- urticaria, itching, flushing

Anaphylaxis- hypotension, dyspnea, decreased oxygen saturation, flushing

159
Q

What is the purpose of a pacemaker ?

A

It is a temporary or permanent device that provides electrical stimulation and maintains the heart rate when the clients intrinsic pacemaker fails to provide a perfusing rhythm

It increases the cardiac output

160
Q

What instructions should be given to the client before plasma cholesterol screening ?

A

only sips of water are permitted for 12 hours before plasma cholesterol screening to achieve accurate results

normal diet should be eaten the week before the test

no alcohol intake

161
Q

The toddler diagnosed with lead poisoning is admitted to the pediatric unit. The health care provider writes an order to encourage fluids. Which fluid is best for the nurse to offer to the toddler?

  1. Milk.
  2. Water.
  3. Orange juice.
  4. Fruit punch.
A

MILK

milk contains calcium; calcium binds to lead and inhibits its absorption

162
Q

Physical symptoms of lead poisoning

A

irritability

sleepiness

nausea/vomiting, abdominal pain, poor appetite

constipation

decreased activity

increased ICP - seizures & motor dysfunction

163
Q

What are the stages of grief ?

A

Denial

Anger

Bargaining

Depression

Acceptance

164
Q

What is the purpose of a pyelogram ?

A

The health care provider is able to examine the urinary tract by x-ray.

It evaluates kidney function through X-rays of entire urinary tract

165
Q

Several days after the delivery of a stillborn, the parents say, “We wish we could talk with other couples who have gone through this trauma.” Which response by the nurse is best?

  1. “SIDS will provide you with this opportunity.”
  2. “SHARE will provide you with this opportunity.”
  3. “RESOLVE will provide you with this opportunity.”
  4. “CANDLELIGHTERS will provide you with this opportunity.”
A

1) support group for parents who have had an infant die from sudden infant death syndrome
2) CORRECT — SHARE is a support group for parents who have lost a newborn or have experienced a miscarriage
3) support group for infertile clients
4) support group for families who have lost a child to cancer

166
Q

Which action is the best way for the nurse to assess the fluid balance of an elderly client?

  1. Assess the client’s blood pressure.
  2. Check the client’s tissue turgor.
  3. Determine if the client is thirsty.
  4. Maintain an accurate intake and output.
A

Strategy: Determine how each answer relates to hydration.

1) may be elevated because of age-related hypertension
2) not accurate because of changes in skin elasticity due to the aging process
3) not reliable indicator; may have diminished sensation of thirst
4) CORRECT—best indicator of fluid status

167
Q

Nephrotic syndrome is a kidney disorder characterized by

A

massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia and edema

168
Q

What is Colostomy irrigation ?

A

This is an enema givent through the stoma to stimulate bowel emptying

Irrigation is performed by instilling 500-1000 mL of lukewarm tap water through the stoma and allowing the water and stool to drain into a collection bag

Perform irrigation at about the same time each day

perform irrigation preferably 1 hour after a meal

to enhance effectiveness of the irrigation, massage the abdomen gently

Avoid frequent irrigations, which can lead to loss of fluids and electrolytes

catheter should never be inserted more than 4 inches into the stoma

169
Q

the loss of purposeful movement in the absence of motor or sensory impairment

A

Apraxia

170
Q

the repetition of a particular response (such as a word, phrase, or gesture) regardless of the absence or cessation of a stimulus. It is usually caused by a brain injury or other organic disorder.

A

Perseveration

171
Q

Prior to sending a client for a cardiac catheterization, it is most important for the nurse to report which information?

A

allergies to iodine and/or seafood must be reported immediately before a cardiac catheterization to avoid anaphylactic shock during the procedure

172
Q

Fractured hip assessment

A

Leg shortened, adducted and externally rotated

173
Q

paresis

A

a condition of muscular weakness caused by nerve damage or disease; partial paralysis.