QB 9 Flashcards

1
Q

Obtaining informed consent is the responsibility of the health care provider, while the nurse’s role is to witness the client’s signature and ability to give consent.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

Providing information about the procedure and obtaining a client’s informed consent is done by the health care provider who is doing the procedure. It does not fall within the nurse’s scope of practice.

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2
Q

Mentally ill clients do retain the right to refuse treatment until a court has determined that they are incompetent.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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3
Q

What does an emancipated minor mean and can they sign their own informed consents ?

A

This is a minor who has been given the right to make independent decisions prior to attaining the legal age of doing so.

Emancipated minors may sign their own informed consents.

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4
Q

Being apart from family is fear provoking, stressful, and produces anxiety for the school-aged child. Clinical manifestations associated with anxiety include ________________________________

A

agitation, restlessness, increased muscle tension, gastric symptoms, headache, nausea, and the inability to focus.

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5
Q

This is a serious complication that usually results from long bone fractures or fracture repair in which fat globules are released from the yellow bone marrow into the bloodstream within 12 to 48 hours after an injury. These may occlude major blood vessels.

A

Fat Embolism Syndrome

Petechiae are seen on the chest 50% to 60% of the time

When a large bone, such as the femur, is fractured, the risk for complications is high because the yellow bone marrow lies within the femur. Should this bone fracture, the bone marrow can be released into the bloodstream and develop into fat emboli.

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6
Q

What are manifestations of fat embolism syndrome ?

A

Fat embolism syndrome (FES) occurs when embolic fat macroglobules pass into the small vessels of the lung and other sites, producing endothelial damage and resulting in respiratory failure, cerebral dysfunction, and a petechial rash. FES is most commonly associated with trauma, long bone and pelvic fractures, and orthopedic surgery.

Clinical manifestations include pulmonary insufficiency, neurologic symptoms, anemia and thrombocytopenia, tachypnea, dyspnea, and tachycardia.

In addition, adult respiratory distress syndrome, irritability, confusion, and restlessness may progress to delirium or coma can occur. Petechiae appears on the trunk of the body, face, and in the axillary folds. The most effective approach to treatment of FES is prevention.

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7
Q

What is Disulfiram and what do we need to remember about it ?

A

It is a drug used to maintain sobriety.

Intake of any form of alcohol with disulfiram will cause a severe reaction, including flushed skin, pounding headache, tachycardia, chest pain, shortness of breath, blurred vision, and hypotension.

Disulfiram, an alcohol deterrent that is prescribed to help clients abstain from alcohol. All forms of alcohol ingestion, direct and indirect, should be avoided for this client. Serious adverse effects such as chest pain may occur if the client takes an unapproved OTC medication and the prescribed medication.

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8
Q

What symptoms would you see in fluid volume overload ?

A

elevated BP, rapid bounding pulses, dependent edema, moist crackles on auscultation, headache, pale and cool skin, rapid weight gain, dyspnea, jugular vein distention. urine specific gravity less than 1.01; increased central venous pressure; and decreased hemoglobin, hematocrit, and blood urea nitrogen because of hemodilution.

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9
Q

What symptoms would you see with fluid volume deficit?

A

increased, thready pulse, a decreased BP, postural hypotension, increased rate and depth of respirations, and poor skin turgor.

Decreased urinary output, thirst, and changes in sensorium.

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10
Q

________________–fluids such as dextrose 5% can cause volume overload and pulmonary edema more quickly than other IV fluids

What are risk factors that can predispose the client to fluid volume overload?

A

hypertonic

Risk factors for the development of fluid volume overload include history of congestive heart failure, renal failure, liver cirrhosis, and excessive ingestion of sodium. Administer a diuretic and restrict fluids as prescribed. Teach the client about a sodium-restricted diet. Obtain daily weights. Monitor breath sounds and vital signs. Elevate the head of bed if the client becomes dyspneic.

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11
Q

The nurse should encourage the client to engage in activities that dissipate anxiety and increase self-esteem.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

ABSOLUTELY TRUE

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12
Q

what to remember about Cocaine ?

what kind of drug is it ?

A

Cocaine is a short acting, highly addictive stimulant that produces an intense and rapid euphoric feeling. Common adverse effects include weight loss, risk for injury due to impaired judgment, fatigue, disturbed sleep cycle and patterns, irritability, and restlessness. Treatment may address symptoms caused by its use and withdrawal, such as hypertension, nausea and vomiting, dysphoria, agitation, and suicidal ideation. Involvement in physical activity and social activities may reduce the withdrawal symptoms and associated cravings.

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13
Q

The nurse in the outpatient clinic receives a phone call from an adolescent who states, “There is no reason to live. I am going to shoot myself.” Which response by the nurse is best?

  1. “Do you have access to a gun?”
  2. “Why do you want to shoot yourself?”
  3. “Think about how this will affect your family.”
  4. “Share with me what happened to you today.”
A

1) CORRECT – The nurse should first ensure the client’s safety by determining if the client has a plan and the means to carry out the plan. (Unless it is about self harm, you normally eliminate a yes/no question in a therapeutic response question.)

2) INCORRECT – The nurse should avoid “why” questions as they can be interpreted as judgmental. The “why” is not relevant at this time. It is more important to determine if the client has the means to carry out the suicide.
3) INCORRECT – This places the focus on the family as opposed to the client. The priority is the client’s safety.
4) INCORRECT – The nurse should offer the client the security that the nurse is concerned about the client’s safety. This may be a relevant assessment, but first the nurse must ensure the client’s safety.

Think Like a Nurse: Clinical Decision-Making

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14
Q

Alzheimer disease is a progressive neurological disorder that results in functional and cognitive declines. Appropriate interventions include:

A

Determining the client’s ability to perform activities of daily living, social and physical support, work history, cognitive ability, memory, communication, and behavior changes.

Performing a health assessment and determining height and weight, orientation, executive functioning, and mental status.

Orienting frequently and providing verbal, written, and visual cues.

Implementing fall and safety precautions.

Maintaining consistent caregivers and routine.

Referring client, family or caregiver to social and support programs.

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15
Q

What should we remember about gastric cancer ?

A

one risk factor is the a history of gastric ulcers resulting from the bacteria H. pylorie

Early symptoms of gastric cancer tend to be vague, such as pain relieved by antacids. As the tumor grows, a client may experience a loss of appetite, indigestion, nausea and vomiting, a bloated feeling, weight loss, and pain just above the umbilicus

Most gastric cancers are adenocarcinomas, which can occur anywhere in the stomach. The cancer often spreads to the lymph nodes and metastasizes to the liver, pancreas, esophagus, and duodenum.

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16
Q

What are manifestations of pernicious anemia ?

A

It is caused by impaired uptake of Vitamin B12, due to a lack of intrinsic factor produced by the stomach lining.

Clinical manifestations include lethargy, tingling and numbness in hands and feet, constipation or diarrhea, and a bright red, smooth tongue. Numbness, tingling, weakness, lack of coordination, and clumsiness can all occur. Both sides of the body are usually affected, and the legs are typically more affected than the arms. A severe deficiency can result in more serious neurological symptoms, including severe weakness, spasms, paraplegia, impaired memory, personality changes, and fecal and urinary incontinence.

Having a vitamin B12 deficiency, particularly, has been shown to impair neurological development in infants breastfed by vegetarian or vegan mothers.

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17
Q

Generally, the efficacy of combined oral contraceptives is increased in clients taking enzyme-inducing anti-epileptic drugs, such as, phenytoin, phenobarbital, and carbamazepine

TRUE OR FALSE .

A

FALSE

The efficacy is diminished

The client and partner should be informed about using other methods of birth control, such as a condom, when taking these medications.

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18
Q

What happens in sickle cell disease ?

A

A severe hereditary form of anemia in which a mutated form of hemoglobin distorts the red blood cells into a crescent shape at low oxygen levels. It is most common among those of African descent.

This disease causes red blood cells to assume a sickle shape, which alters oxygen-carrying capacity and enhances the ability of the cells to become trapped in capillaries, causing pain. The sickling of the red blood cells enhances the lysis of circulating red blood cells. In response to red blood cell destruction, the body accelerates the process of creating new replacement cells, which are released into the bloodstream before maturity. Because of the disease process, the laboratory result most likely to validate the disease would be a high reticulocyte count.

Content Refresher

In sickle cell disease, the hemoglobin is shaped differently. Sickle hemoglobin has a curved shape (like a sickle) rather than the flat-disc shape of normal hemoglobin. The shape alters the properties of the cells, causing them to become more rigid and less flexible. As a result of this, the cells are more likely to hemolyze and cause blockages in the blood vessels, disrupting the flow of blood. When caring for a client diagnosed with sickle cell disease, the nurse needs to assess the client for anemia, dark urine, jaundice, swelling of hands and feet, stunted growth, and stroke. The client may report fatigue and painful hands and feet. With sickle cell disease, the nurse should promote optimal oxygenation, adequate rest periods, hydration, nutrition, and pain management.

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19
Q

The nurse overhears the supervisor reprimand the charge nurse for not discussing feelings with a client. Shortly after, a client asks the charge nurse for an extra blanket. The charge nurse angrily responds, “Get it yourself!” The nurse recognizes the charge nurse is displaying which defense mechanism?

  1. Compensation.
  2. Displacement.
  3. Conversion.
  4. Projection.
A

1) INCORRECT - Compensation is an attempt to overcome real or imagined shortcomings.
2) CORRECT— The charge nurse is displacing feelings of anger at the supervisor onto the client who is less threatening.
3) INCORRECT - Anxiety is repressed and converted into physical symptoms in conversion syndrome.
4) INCORRECT - Projection is the act of attributing one’s feelings, impulses, thoughts, or wishes to others.

Displacement is the unconscious transfer of an intense emotion from its original object to another one.

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20
Q

What to remember about the herbal supplement black cohosh ?

A

It may increase the hypotensive effect of antihypertensives

When used in the management of menopausal symptoms, black cohosh may cause hypotension when used in combination with antihypertensive drugs.

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21
Q

Criteria for hypertension

A

Criteria for Stage 1 hypertension include systolic blood pressure (SBP) of 130 to 139 mm Hg or diastolic blood pressure (DBP) of 80 to 89 mm Hg. Stage 2 hypertension criteria include SBP of 140 mm Hg or greater or DBP of 90 mm Hg or greater. Blood pressure is considered elevated if SBP is between 120 and 129 mm Hg and DBP less than 80 mm Hg.

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22
Q

What to remember about Lyme disease ……………….

what test is available for Lyme Disease

A

The test should be run in 4 to 6 weeks after the tick bite occurs, regardless of symptoms. It takes 1 to 2 months after the tick bites to get a reliable result because of the antibody formation process.

Lyme disease is a condition caused by the bite of a tick infected with Borrelia burgdorferi. When ticks bite humans, they transmit the bacterium, which can result in a chronic inflammatory process and multisystem disease. Assess the client’s skin around the area of the tick bite, observing for the presence of a bull’s-eye rash. Question the client about the presence of a headache, neck stiffness, muscle pain, fever, and chills. Educate the client about prevention: avoid tick infested areas, use insect repellent, wear protective clothing in high-risk areas, and treat pets. If a tick is found, remove it carefully with tweezers, wash the area with soap and water, and apply antiseptic. If flu-like symptoms or a bull’s-eye rash develops, notify the health care provider.

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23
Q

The nurse is aware that clients with a previous history of transfusion reactions are at higher risk for adverse transfusion reactions.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

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24
Q

What is a transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) ?

A

The reaction of anti-leukocyte antibodies between donor and recipient leads to TRALI. Leukocyte-reduced RBCs reduces the risk of TRALI recurrence.

Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI), the leading cause of transfusion-related death, arises during or within 6 hours of a transfusion. The nurse observes for signs and symptoms of TRALI, including fever, chills, hypotension, tachypnea, frothy sputum, dyspnea, hypoxia, respiratory failure, and noncardiogenic pulmonary edema. Obtain blood samples for arterial blood gas analysis and human leukocyte antigen (HLA) or antileukocyte antibodies, as ordered. Obtain an emergent chest x-ray, administer supplemental oxygen, and administer corticosteroids, as prescribed. Diuretics will provide no benefit for the client with TRALI.

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25
Q

What is leukoreduction in relevance to blood transfusions ?

What can it help prevent ?

A

Leukoreduction is a process in which the white blood cells are intentionally reduced in red blood cells (RBCs) to diminish the risk of adverse reactions. The nurse knows this is typically requested when transfusing a client with a known history of transfusion reaction.

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26
Q

fluid in the lungs decreases the ability of the lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

extra fluid accumulating in the lungs can restrict oxygenation and hinder tissue perfusion. This can be seen in heart failure.

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27
Q

What to remember about dissassociative disorders ?

A

Dissociative disorders are characterized by either a sudden or gradual disruption in the integrative functions of identity, memory, or consciousness. The disruption may be transient or become a well established pattern. The development of a dissociative disorder is often associated with exposure to a traumatic event.

Dissociative disorder involves a lack of connection among cognitive processes like identity and memory. The client might report memory loss, co-morbid processes such as depression, or a separation from emotions. Sometimes this disorder is the result of post-traumatic stress disorder or other mental conditions. Medications and therapies can provide relief and prevent adverse outcomes like suicide.

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28
Q

What stage of psychosocial development is the toddler in ?

A

Psychosocial development theory states that a toddler must master autonomy or experience shame and doubt. Psychosocial development is fostered for the toddler by providing:

opportunities for socialization.

emotional support.

positive reinforcement for good behavior.

two selections when a choice needs to be made.

Other methods of fostering the toddlers psychosocial development include the use of distraction when unsafe or unwanted behaviors are exhibited; keeping routines simple and consistent; setting reasonable limits; giving simple rationales; and following through on discipline. Advise parents to maintain open communication with other caregivers so that consistency in child rearing can be maintained.

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29
Q

. Clients receiving chemotherapy are at risk for ________________________

A

Chemotherapy involves the use of anti-neoplastic medications that interfere with cellular function and reproduction, resulting in the destruction of cancer cells

…………..nausea, vomiting, malnutrition, electrolyte imbalances, alopecia, stomatitis, fatigue, and bone marrow suppression.

30
Q

New admissions cannot be delegated and must be performed by the nurse.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

31
Q

What option is recommended for an infant with an allergy to cow’s milk ?

A

Soy-based formulas are not recommended for infants with cow’s milk allergy due to cross-reactivity to soy.

Goat’s milk is not recommended for infants with cow’s milk allergy because it has cross-reactivity with cow’s milk protein, is deficient in folic acid, and is inadequate as the only caloric source.

Formulas that use enzymatic hydrolysis to break down or predigest the casein protein into its amino acids are recommended for infants with cow’s milk allergies.

32
Q

What to remember about GERD

A

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is defined as reflux of stomach acid into the lower esophagus. Consequences of GERD include pain and inflammation, which may eventually lead to mucosal damage of the gastrointestinal tract. The client may report pain or a burning sensation in the lower esophagus or upper abdomen, nocturnal coughing, hoarseness, sore throat, and shortness of breath. Listen to lung sounds to assess for possible aspiration of stomach acid. Instruct the client to avoid foods and activities that cause acid reflux, such as alcohol and late night eating. Short-term, rapid-acting medications (e.g., antacids or histamine-2 receptor blockers) or long-term acid control medications (e.g., proton pump inhibitors) may be prescribed.

. Interventions to treat GERD serve one of two purposes: (1) decreasing stomach acid production, or (2) decreasing reflux of stomach acid through the lower esophageal sphincter (LES). Certain foods cause the stomach to produce additional acid and should be avoided, such as fatty meals.

Oatmeal and rice are filling foods that do not cause reflux.

Strategies to reduce pressure on the LES include maintaining a healthy weight, avoiding tight-fitting clothing, staying upright after a meal, eating smaller meals, not smoking, and elevating the head of the bed at night.

33
Q

Supine positioning increases the potential for regurgitation of stomach acid.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TruE

Particularly after eating, increased intragastric pressure in combination with supine positioning is likely to exacerbate signs and symptoms of GERD.

34
Q

Increasing fluid intake immediately before bedtime may cause stomach distention and increase the risk of experiencing signs and symptoms of GERD.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

35
Q

Consuming food immediately before lying down decreases the risk for regurgitation of stomach acid into the esophagus

A

FALSE

IT INCREASES THE RISK

36
Q

What to remember about weight gain during pregnancy

A

Proper weight gain during pregnancy is essential for fetal growth and development. The target weight gain during pregnancy is dependent on the client ’s body mass index (BMI).

A client with a BMI between 18.5 and 24.9 should gain between 25 to 35 lb (11.3 to 15.9 kg).

A client with a BMI less than 18.5 should gain between 28 to 40 lb (12.7 to 18.1 kg),

whereas a client with a BMI over 25 should gain anywhere between 11 to 25 lb (5 to 11.3 kg).

Weight gain should be minimal (3 to 5 lb, or 1.4 to 2.3 kg) during the first trimester, and then increase in the second and third trimesters.

37
Q

___________________–is a serious adverse effect of the aminoglycosides such as gentamicin.

A

Ototoxicity

Symptoms of ototoxicity include tinnitus , unilateral or bilateral hearing loss, dizziness, lack of coordination in movement, unsteady gait, and oscillating or bouncing vision.

38
Q

Stress is an emotional or mental strain or concern about a situation or difficult circumstance.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

Factors such as a change in physical, mental, or functional status are associated with stress. The nurse needs to determine signs and symptoms of the stress response while observing for coping skills. Assess the family’s practice of effective stress reducing activities along with available support system.

39
Q

The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) no longer recommends teaching breast self-examination (BSE) for all women. This recommendation is based on the evidence that BSE may lead to over-diagnosis and the performance of unnecessary surgeries.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TruE

40
Q

What is the correct way to perform a breast self examination

A

“Using the pads of your middle three fingers, press the breast against the chest wall in a circular motion.”

The nurse should instruct on the use of a gentle rotating motion with the palmar surfaces of the middle three fingers. These fingers are used to press the breast tissue against the chest wall. Palpation begins in the upper lateral quadrant, moves from the periphery to the areola, and moves around the breast in a counterclockwise direction.

41
Q

risk factors for breast cancer

A

family history of breast cancer, over 50 years of age, early menstruation [before age 12], late menopause [after age 55], Caucasian

42
Q

This is the Irreversible loss of kidney function with a decrease in glomerular filtration rate to 10 mL per minute, resulting in pH and electrolyte imbalances and waste product accumulation.

A

Chronic kidney disease

The nurse helps the client combat this by exploring ways to decrease the waste put into the body and the waste produced by the body.

A renal diet is low in sodium, phosphorus, and protein. Potassium and calcium are often restricted, too. Some protein is necessary in the diet and this should be of high biological value (i.e., a complete protein). The client naturally will struggle with what foods are allowed and why. The nurse helps guide dietary selections and evaluates choices the client makes to determine teaching needs.

Content Refresher

Chronic kidney disease results in uremia, fluid and electrolyte imbalance, anemia, and bone disorders from lack of vitamin D. Almost all body systems are affected by kidney disease. The client will exhibit multiple symptoms, including fluid overload, hypertension, malaise, electrolyte imbalance, uremia, metabolic acidosis, anemia, muscle cramping, confusion, and an inability to focus. Medications, therapeutic diet , and fluid restriction are part of the management of chronic kidney disease until the disease reaches a point where those interventions are not enough for the client to maintain life.

43
Q

What kind of diet should a patient with chronic kidney disease be on ?

A

increased calories, high biological protein, low potassium, and low sodium.

Protein intake is determined on the basis of kidney impairment measured by the glomerular filtration rate.

A renal diet is low in sodium, phosphorus, and protein. Potassium and calcium are often restricted, too

44
Q

LPN/LVNs can collect client data, but only the nurse can analyze and interpret data.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

the LPN/LVN may collect and record data about wound appearance, for example.

45
Q

What is a Holter monitor also referred to as ?

A

Often called a Holter monitor, an ambulatory ECG is a portable device that is used to record a client’s heart rhythm for 1 or 2 days. Just like a typical heart monitor, it has leads that attach externally on the torso. The client records symptoms by pushing a button on the device. This device is excellent for capturing episodic dysrhythmias or cardiac conduction abnormalities that only occur under certain circumstances

The monitor cannot get wet so the client needs to avoid taking a bath or shower during monitoring.

the client needs to avoid electrical equipment while being monitored

The client is encouraged to resume normal activities during the monitoring period in order to simulate conditions that produce symptoms. Instruct the client to start recording as soon as symptoms develop. ECG monitoring is typically for a period of 24 to 48 hours. The health care provider can print and analyze strips to assess for any rhythm disturbances and to correlate physical signs or symptoms (e.g. dizziness) with ECG changes.

46
Q

A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy, and the nurse is completing teaching regarding the procedure. Which client statement indicates to the nurse an appropriate understanding of the procedure?

  1. “I need to not eat or drink anything by mouth 8 hours before the procedure.”
  2. “I need to begin a liquid diet 2 days before the procedure.”
  3. “I need to stop taking my oral hypoglycemic agent the day before the procedure”
  4. “I need to let my health care provider know that I am allergic to iodine before the procedure.”

View Explanation

A

1) CORRECT — The client needs to be NPO 8 hours before a colonoscopy. This statement indicates understanding of the procedure.
2) INCORRECT – The client needs to begin a liquid diet the day before the procedure. This statement indicates that additional teaching is needed.
3) INCORRECT – If iodine is being administered during a procedure, the client needs to stop taking the oral hypoglycemic agent. However, iodine is not administrated during a colonoscopy. This statement indicates that additional teaching is needed.
4) INCORRECT – Iodine is not administrated during a colonoscopy. This statement indicates that additional teaching is needed.

Because the client will be given an anesthetic to induce twilight sleep as pre-medication for the colonoscopy, the client should have nothing by mouth for at least 8 hours before the procedure. This ensures that the client will not aspirate during the procedure.

47
Q

the goal of pursed-lip breathing is to increase the period of expiration and increase the exhalation of CO 2.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

the breath should never be held during pursed-lip breathing.

48
Q

An annual influenza immunization is recommended for anyone over the age of 6 months who does not have specific contraindications.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

The influenza injection is an inactivated vaccine so it cannot make a client ill.

the nurse is aware the influenza vaccination is particularly important for a client with a chronic illness such as diabetes mellitus. Because of the effects of illness on clients with diabetes mellitus, the client is at greater risk for developing complications from the flu.

Only individuals who have life-threatening allergies to the flu vaccine should not be vaccinated. People with egg allergies, a history of Guillain-Barré Syndrome, or an acute illness with high fever should talk with their provider prior to vaccination.

49
Q

What to remember about retinal detachment, specifically postoperative care

A

A retinal detachment is a medical emergency that involves separation of the retina of the eye from the epithelial layer beneath, with fluid collecting between the two structures. Causes of retinal detachment include trauma, previous surgery, and age-related changes. The client may report light “flashers” or “floaters” in the visual field and painless loss of vision. Without surgery, retinal detachment may progress to blindness.

Retinal reattachment surgery sometimes requires instillation of a gas bubble inside the eye to help maintain positioning of the retina against the wall of the eye. Avoiding sudden or frequent eye movements is essential to maintaining correct positioning of the gas bubble while the detached retina heals. Proper client positioning in consideration of procedures is an essential nursing function. Following surgical intervention to repair retinal detachment, the client may be asked to maintain a face-down position for 1 to 2 weeks after surgery to allow for healing.

Jarring movements of the head increase intraocular pressure and may cause the retina to re-detach. During the first week the client should be instructed to avoid rapid eye movements such as reading, writing, and performing close work such as sewing. The client should also be instructed to avoid stooping and straining with bowel movements. Proper body mechanics should be used.

Strenuous activity should be avoided for 3 months.

light work may resume after 3 weeks and normal activities after 6 weeks.

50
Q

What to remember about increased intracranial pressure

A

A condition that occurs when there is an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain, causing cerebral edema. This edema may be caused by lesions, head or brain injury, cerebral infections, cerebrovascular insult, or encephalopathies.

Increased intracranial pressure (ICP) begins with an injury or insult to the brain. Cerebrospinal fluid accumulates and results in edema. Compression of cerebral ventricles and blood vessels decreases blood flow to brain tissues, which results in lack of oxygen and cell damage. If left untreated, carbon dioxide accumulates and brain death occurs. Report changes in level of consciousness, abnormal posturing, seizures, and vomiting. Monitor for altered respiratory patterns and rise in systolic blood pressure. Assess using the Glasgow Coma Scale. If left untreated, increased ICP can result in seizures, stroke, permanent neurological damage, and death.

51
Q

When taken with an NSAID, Ginkgo increases the risk for bleeding

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

Ginkgo is an antiplatelet agent and central nervous system stimulant sometimes taken for dementia syndromes. The risk of bleeding increases when given with NSAIDs.

52
Q

Responsibilities of the nurse manager

A

“Monitoring professional nursing standards of practice on the unit.”

“Serving as an advocate for the nursing staff to the institution’s administration.”

“Conducting regular client rounds and help to solve client or family complaints.

The nurse manager should possess excellent interpersonal skills, lead by example, and exemplify the organization’s mission, goals, and values. The nurse manager is responsible for ensuring safe staffing levels; ensuring staff provide safe, quality care; maintaining daily operations; staying within the unit’s budget; meeting strategic goals; assigning and coordinating tasks; providing performance feedback to staff; and evaluating outcomes.

53
Q

What to remember about Hodgekin’s lymphoma …… what is frequently the initial presentation

A

In Hodgkin lymphoma, cancer cells develop in the lymph nodes and glands, primarily those of the neck region. When assessing this client, the nurse should expect to find enlarged lymph nodes along the neck. These nodes will be firm, painless, and freely movable upon palpation. The findings are classic characteristics of a metastatic disease of the lymph system.

Hodgkin lymphoma is a disease in which malignant cells form in the lymph system and may spread beyond the lymphatic system. As Hodgkin lymphoma progresses, it compromises the body’s ability to fight infection. The initial presentation of Hodgkin lymphoma is frequently the enlargement of a single lymph node, usually in the cervical region. The nodes are movable and painless. Clinical symptoms also include fever, night sweats, weight loss, fatigue, dyspnea, and pruritus. Ingestion of alcohol may result in pain at the diseased lymph node. Treatment is based upon the tumor type and stage of the disease process. Chemotherapy protocols are implemented; the choice of the antineoplastic agents is based upon the stage and prognosis of the disease. Radiation and surgical interventions may also be included in the treatment plan.

54
Q

The UAP can take vital signs, provide comfort measures, document intake and output, assist clients with activities of daily living (e.g. bathing), and apply or remove physical restraints.

TRUE OR FFALSE

A

TRUE

The skill of applying a restraint can be delegated to a trained UAP. However, the nurse is responsible for assessment of a client’s behavior, level of orientation, need for restraints, appropriate type of restraint to use, and ongoing circulation assessments.

The nurse cannot delegate orthostatic blood pressure measurements to the UAP. Nursing assessment and judgment is required during client position changes (such as assess for dizziness, weakness, lightheadedness, feeling faint, sudden pallor).

55
Q

Care of the client with breast engorgement

A

Nurse frequently (every 30 minutes to 3 hours) and long enough to empty breasts completely (evidenced by sucking without swallowing); alternate starting breast at each feeding; mild analgesis 20 minutes before feeding and ice packs between feedings for pronounced discomfort

Application of warm or hot water to the breasts may stimulate milk production and cause breast engorgement. To help suppress lactation, the client should be instructed to avoid running warm water over the breasts, especially the nipples.

if the the client intends to dry up her breast milk stores, the warm water is counterproductive, stimulating milk production.

56
Q

What is dumping syndrome and what can be done about it ?

A

Dumping syndrome is a condition in which gastric contents empty too rapidly into the small intestine. Symptoms occur 30 minutes after eating. Dumping syndrome occurs follwoing gastric resection.

Rapid gastric emptying occurs when sugar or food moves too rapidly from the stomach into the small bowel. Refined sugar quickly absorbs water, resulting in the characteristic symptoms of dumping syndrome. Osmotic fluid shifts and hypoglycemia triggers vasomotor and gastrointestinal symptoms. Hypoglycemia results from taking in too much carbohydrate and a quick, overactive insulin response by the pancreas, resulting in that carbohydrate being used incorrectly. Minimizing consumption of simple carbohydrates is helpful when aiming to control symptoms of dumping syndrome. Some clients might find that fluids and foods should not be consumed together.

generalized weakness, diaphoresis, palpitations, dizziness occur because of a sudden decrease in plasma volume. Vertigo, tachycardia, pallor and profuse sweating are all early manifestations. Abdominal cramping is a late manifestation.

Encourage the client to rest after eating to reduce the chance of dumping syndrome. Nutritional interventions include six small feedings per day and avoiding fluids while eating (which prevents stomach over-distention), avoiding concentrated sweets (may decrease diarrhea and sense of fullness), and increasing protein and fats in the diet (meets energy needs and rebuilds body tissues).

57
Q

Foot care for the diabetic client

A

Inspect feet daily, using a mirror. Avoid using over the counter chemicals such as hydrogen peroxide on the feet. Use clean socks daily. Avoid placing heating pads or ice packs on feet. Do not apply lotion between toes. Exercise the feet to improve circulation.

Teaching points should focus on skin protection and safety such as always wearing footwear, examining the bottoms of the feet every day, avoiding extremes in temperature, cleaning the feet every day and applying clean socks, and getting adequate exercise.

58
Q

What kind of diet will a patient with severe liver disease be on ?

A

A low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet will help reduce the risks of hepatic coma by reducing the level of ammonia that results from the breakdown of proteins

One important function of the liver involves the metabolism of protein. If the liver is damaged, protein metabolism is adversely effected, increasing the client’s risk of developing an accumulation of ammonia in the body. To prevent this from occurring, the client will be prescribed a low-protein die

A low protein, high carbohydrate diet will reduce ammonia levels

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59
Q

Use the stethoscope bell to auscultate low-frequency sounds and the diaphragm to auscultate high-frequency sounds

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

60
Q

The nurse notes that the spouse of a client, having a routine physical examination, died 2 months ago of colon cancer. Which initial statement is most appropriate for the nurse make to this client?

  1. “I understand that your spouse died 2 months ago.”
  2. “I am so sorry that you lost your spouse.”
  3. “What brings you here today?”
  4. “What can we do for you?”
A

1) CORRECT - Caring, direct acknowledgment aids in the grieving process.
2) INCORRECT - Euphemisms that tend to avoid the word death can postpone grief.
3) INCORRECT - Avoiding the subject about the spouse’s death does not give recognition to the client’s recent stressor.
4) INCORRECT - The nurse should not avoid talking about the spouse’s death.

The best way to demonstrate empathetic caring and concern is to directly mention the death of the spouse to the client. This also helps the client with the grieving process. Avoiding the word “death” or not talking about the spouse’s death does not help the client work through the grieving process.

61
Q

Parents should be told they can transition their children from booster to sitting in regular car seats when the child is taller than 4 feet 9 inches and the seat belt strap fits snuggly across lap and chest.

TRUE OR FALSE

A

TRUE

A school-age child who is less than 4 feet 9 inches tall needs to use a booster seat that has both a lap belt and shoulder belts. This parent needs additional instruction.

Children younger than adolescence should not sit in the front passenger seat of a vehicle with an airbag.

Vehicle seat belts typically fit properly when a child is 4 feet 9 inches or taller.

62
Q

What is status asthmaticus ?

A

a rapid onset, severe, and persistent asthma attack that does not respond to traditional treatment.

Signs and symptoms include labored breathing, prolonged exhalation, engorged neck veins, and wheezing. Arterial blood gas readings (ABGs) will demonstrate respiratory acidosis with hypoxemia.

In addition to the client’s presenting clinical signs, pulse oximetry may be used to monitor the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin. Treatment includes oxygen therapy, intravenous fluids, a short-acting beta-adrenergic agonist, and systemic corticosteroids.

63
Q

Respiratory changes in the older adult and what it can lead to …………

What are some measures to prevent respiratory diseases

A

The older adult client experiences respiratory system changes that lead to an increased risk for respiratory infections and complications. For example, even without any evidence of emphysema, older adults typically experience some degree of dilation of the lung alveoli. Respiratory muscle strength is impaired, which decreases the force and effectiveness of coughing. A decline in lung defense mechanisms, gas exchange, and vital capacity occurs.

For these reasons, Pneumonia recovery is difficult under the best of circumstances and, at worst, can result in death.

Content Refresher

Measures to prevent respiratory diseases include avoiding cigarette smoking and exposure to environmental smoke; washing hands frequently to prevent and avoid spreading infections; avoiding exposure to allergens, indoor pollutants, and ambient air pollutants; getting a pneumococcal vaccine and yearly influenza vaccine; and wearing proper personal protective equipment when working in an occupation with prolonged exposure to dust, fumes, or gases.

64
Q

A client receiving parenteral nutrition is to receive an intravenous fat emulsion infusion. Which action will the nurse take when administering the fat emulsion?

  1. Administer it through separate tubing.
  2. Provide it as intravenous boluses.
  3. Wrap the infusion container in aluminum foil.
  4. Infuse it through a central line.
A

1) CORRECT– Fat emulsions are infused through a separate peripheral or central line using a Y-connector.
2) INCORRECT - Fat emulsions are never given as boluses, but only as an infusion over a set number of hours.
3) INCORRECT - Fat emulsions are not light sensitive. There is no need to wrap the infusion container.
4) INCORRECT - Fat emulsions may be given through a peripheral or central line.

At times, a client is unable to orally ingest food or the gastrointestinal tract is unable to digest and absorb nutrients. In this situation, total parenteral nutrition will be used (TPN). The nurse understands TPN is a mixture of nutrients that is provided intravenously to support the client’s nutritional needs. The base solution is typically high in dextrose in which vitamins and minerals have been added. However, this solution does not contain needed fat to support metabolic processes. An intralipid solution is prescribed to supply the client with the needed fat, but because of the chemical composition of the two solutions, they are to be administered through separate tubing.

65
Q

Diuretic medications such as furosemide may be prescribed to the client diagnosed with hypertension. The nurse should educate the client that ____________ can present as muscle weakness and/or paresthesias, cardiac arrhythmias, hypotension, constipation, decreased bowel sounds, and hyporeflexia. Additionally, the client should be instructed to report signs of hypovolemia such as

A

hypokalemia; thirst, decreased urine output, dry mucous membranes, poor skin turgor, weight loss, hypotension, dizziness, tachycardia, and lethargy.

66
Q

Toxic shock syndrome is associated with ________________________

A

high absorbency tampons

S/S include sudden onset fever, vomiting, diarrhea, drop in systolic blood pressure, erythematous rash on palms and soles

Super absorbent tampons encourage vaginal drying, which may lead to tissue breakdown and potentiate the development of toxic shock syndrome

Tampons should be changed every 4 hours. Using a sanitary pad at night reduces the risk of infection.

67
Q

Why do preoperative medications need to be given exactly on time ?

A

Preoperative medication needs to be given exactly at the time prescribed. If administered too early, it will be past its maximum potency by the time it is needed. If administered too late, its action will not have started before anesthesia is begun.

The nurse needs to remember that surgical procedures are scheduled and preoperative medication is precisely timed so that peak effects occur as required. Administering a preoperative medication too early could cause the effects to wear off. Late administration of preoperative medication could adversely impact the effects of anesthesia.

68
Q

A client is prescribed aminophylline PO. Which client statement concerns the nurse?

  1. “I am allergic to neomycin.”
  2. “I am taking propranolol.”
  3. “I have trouble breathing when I exercise.”
  4. “I have had several urinary tract infections.”
A

1) INCORRECT - Neomycin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic. There is no contraindication to taking the aminophylline.
2) CORRECT—Co-administration of propranolol and aminophylline should be avoided, as propranolol may decrease the body’s ability to metabolize the aminophylline and lead to toxicity. The nurse holds the aminophylline and notify the health care provider.

The nurse recognizes that propranolol should not be given with aminophylline, due to the risk of aminophylline toxicity. Furthermore, aminophylline is given to treat asthma and propranolol is contraindicated for asthmatics. Another medication instead of aminophylline should be prescribed for this client

3) INCORRECT - Aminophylline is a medication given to treat airway problems. This statement is expected and does not indicate a contraindication to the drug.
4) INCORRECT - This client statement is not relevant to aminophylline, which is given to treat airway problems.

69
Q

In DKA, continuous insulin reduces the _______________level that occurs in metabolic acidosis by forcing glucose and potassium out of the bloodstream and into the cells. Once the serum glucose level has fallen to a prescribed level, usually around 250 mg/dL (13.88 mmol/L), a __________________may be prescribed to simultaneously infuse with the continuous insulin to prevent hypoglycemia.

A

potassium; 5% or 10% dextrose fluid infusion

70
Q

Heparin is an anticoagulant. Herbal supplements such as ________________________may increase the client’s risk for bleeding.

A

garlic, ginger, ginkgo, ginseng, and licorice

71
Q

What is phenelzine sulfate and what do we need to watch out for with the administration ?

A

Phenelzine sulfate is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) that interacts with cured, processed, aged, and smoked food items to cause a hypertensive crisis.

aged cheese is avoided

Cured meats such as dry summer sausage, pepperoni, and salami would be of concern. Smoked or processed meats such as hot dogs, bacon, and corned beef are avoided.

72
Q
A