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CNS Study Final > Primer Questions > Flashcards

Primer Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Most iron is transported in the blood via the plasma carrier:

a. heme
b. erritin
c. transferrin
d. albumin

A

c. transferrin

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2
Q

A required prerequisite to the digestion of proteins is the HCl-dependent process called:

a. hydrolysis
b. evaporation
c. denaturation
d. distillation

A

c. denaturation

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3
Q

The true digestibility of dietary fatty acids is:

a. 65-75%
b. 75-85%
c. 85-95%
d. >95%

A

d. >95%

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4
Q

An example of a digestive enzyme secreted from the brush border of the microvilli to help with digestion is:

a. sucrase
b. protease
c. amylase
d. HCl

A

a. sucrase

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5
Q

Decreased plasma glucose levels stimulate ____ secretion by pancreatic alpha cells.

a. insulin
b. glucagon
c. glucocorticoids
d. epinephrin

A

b. glucagon

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6
Q

The hormone that is synthesized in adipose tissue and signals satiety is:

a. adiponectin
b. glucagon
c. leptin
d. ghrelin

A

c. leptin

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7
Q

The C677T base substitution in the gene that synthesizes the enzyme methyltetrahydrofolate reductase is a genetic abnormality called:

a. a base substitution
b. a genetic anomaly
c. a single nucleotide polymorphism
d. an epigenetic phenomena

A

c. a single nucleotide polymorphism

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8
Q

The structures of linoleic acid and gamma-linolenic acid differ in their:

a. chain lengths
b. double bond positions
c. number of double bonds
d. side chain moieties

A

c. number of double bonds

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9
Q

In the polypeptide chain of a protein, the sequential order of the amino acid is called the:

a. primary structure
b. secondary structure
c. tertiary structure
d. quarternary structure

A

a. primary structure

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10
Q

Vitamin reserves can become depleted because all vitamins are:

a. synthesized inefficiently
b. essential nutrients
c. metabolized quickly
d. excreted rapidly

A

b. essential nutrients

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11
Q

Nutrification is the:

a. addition of a nutrient to a food in order to assure the distribution of that nutrient to a target population
b. specific addition of thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, and iron to white flour
c. structural modification of complex carbs
d. addition of at least 25% of the RDA of a nutrient to a food product that has been designed to replace a meal or food item.

A

a. addition of a nutrient to a food in order to assure the distribution of that nutrient to a target population

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12
Q

Coenzyme A is derived from:

a. pantothenic acid
b. pyrodoxine
c. cobalamin
d. tetrahydrobiopterin

A

a. pantothenic acid

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13
Q

Ketones result from the metabolism of:

a. fatty acids
b. simple sugars
c. amino acids
d. complex carbs

A

a. fatty acids

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14
Q

Glycolysis is a metabolic process that involves:

a. glycogen synthesis
b. the conversion of glucose to glycogen
c. the conversion of glucose to pyruvate
d. the conversion of fatty acids to ATP

A

c. the conversion of glucose to pyruvate

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15
Q

Of beef, bacon, salmon, and broccoli, the food source with the greatest nutrient density (per 100kcal) for fat is:

a. beef
b. bacon
c. salmon
d. broccoli

A

b. bacon

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16
Q

The deficiency of which nutrient results in elevated levels of xanthurenate:

a. copper
b. B2
c. B6
d. iron

A

c. B6

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17
Q

Among the following foods, the nutrient density of vitamin D is greatest in:

a. cheese
b. salmon
c. green, leafy veg
d. beef

A

b. salmon

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18
Q

Fat-soluble vitamins are absorbed and then distributed throughout the body to cells via:

a. free fatty acids
b. lipases
c. lipoproteins
d. lymphatics

A

c. lipoproteins

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19
Q

Fluid balance is most significantly controlled by the minerals:

a. Ca and Mg
b. Cu and Zn
c. Ca and Ph
d. Na and K

A

d. Na and K

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20
Q

Quercetin protects ascorbic acid from:

a. oxidation
b. reduction
c. dehydrogenation
d. desaturation

A

a. oxidation

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21
Q

Beta-glucans are phytonutrients that are derived from various mushroom species and have specific beneficial effects for:

a. CVD
b. GI sxs and function
c. immune function
d. auditory function

A

c. immune function

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22
Q

Deglycyrrhizinated licorice is often used in the txt of:

a. peptic ulcers
b. pelvic pain
c. earache
d. sleep disorders

A

a. peptic ulcers

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23
Q

Garlic’s active compound, allicin, inhibits:

a. muscle spasms
b. HMG CoA reductase
c. hydroxylase activity
d. constipation

A

b. HMG CoA reductase

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24
Q

Dietary proteins are of high biological value when they are obtained from:

a. fish, legumes, and whole milk
b. beef, pork, and cream cheese
c. white bread, vegetables, and legumes
d. eggs, chicken meats, and cheddar cheese

A

d. eggs, chicken meats, and cheddar cheese

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25
Q

The dietary change that is the most effective in contributing to a decrease in serum total cholesterol concentration is:

a. decrease cholesterol intake
b. decrease saturated fat intake
c. increase PUFA intake
d. increase MUFA intake

A

b. decrease saturated fat intake

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26
Q
  1. The Tolerable Upper Intake Levels (TULs) were established to focus attention on intakes for both diet and nutritional supplementation. TULs are:

a. the maximum daily intake level that is not likely to cause a harmful effect
b. desired for most nutrients.
c. based on intakes from supplements and fortified foods. d. intake goals for all nutrients.

A

a. the maximum daily intake level that is not likely to cause a harmful effect

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27
Q

The IOM recommends supplementation or food fortification with which nutrient for the elderly?

a. Ca
b. Fe
c. biotin
d. B12

A

d. B12

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28
Q

Megaloblastic anemia of pregnancy usually results from a deficiency of:

a. Fe
b. oxytocin
c. antipernicious anemia factor
d. folacin

A

d. folacin

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29
Q

The most serious consequence of feeding “double strength” formula to an infant is likely to be:

a. sleepiness
b. colic
c. mental impairment
d. dehydration

A

d. dehydration

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30
Q

Except for when pregnant or lactating, the total quantity of nutrients and calories needed during ____ are greater than any other stage of life.

a. infancy
b. childhood
c. adolescence
d. aging

A

c. adolescence

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31
Q

When 2 or more plant proteins are combined, compensation for deficiencies in essential amino acid content in each protein, the proteins are called:

a. essential proteins
b. complementary proteins
c. conditional proteins
d. ideal proteins

A

b. complementary proteins

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32
Q

Epidemiological studies:

a. identify causative factors
b. are not helpful for public health research
c. are better than cohort studies
d. are helpful for identifying associations in large populations

A

d. are helpful for identifying associations in large populations

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33
Q

Successful treatment for anorexia nervosa most often includes:

a. Family therapy and forced tube feeding.
b. Outpaient nutritional counseling with a registered dietitian.
c. inpatient psychological, nutritional, and medical therapy, often involving the whole family.
d. Effective psychopharmacological treatment

A

c. inpatient psychological, nutritional, and medical therapy, often involving the whole family

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34
Q

As a public health measure, chicken is packed in ice to prevent:

a. botulism
b. perfringens food poisoning
c. staphylococcal food poisoning
d. salmonella food poisoning

A

d. salmonella food poisoning

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35
Q

Cross-contamination of food occurs when:

a. airborne microorganisms grow in food
b. two or more food handlers process a specific food
c. a utensil contaminated with a microorganism from a previously handled food contacts a second food
d. perishable foods are kept at room temp

A

c. a utensil contaminated with a microorganism from a previously handled food contacts a second food

36
Q

Use of thiazide diuretic drugs may produce low plasma concentration of:

a. Ca
b. K
c. uric acid
d. Ph

A

b. K

37
Q

Anti-neoplastic or anti-cancer agents most significantly affect nutritional status by:

a. damaging immune function
b. affecting intestinal mucosa and reducing nutrient absorption
c. increasing nutrient excretion
d. causing abnormal metabolism

A

b. affecting intestinal mucosa and reducing nutrient absorption

38
Q

Dietary intakes of thiamin, riboflavin, and niacin are related to the intake of:

a. Fe
b. ascorbic acid
c. Ca
d. calories

A

d. calories

39
Q

Individuals taking anticonvulsants may develop depleted reserves of:

a. folate and D
b. thiamin and riboflavin
c. folate and pantothenic acid
d. pyridoxine and biotin

A

a. folate and D

40
Q

It may be wise to assess the status of the following in a client on long-term PPI therapy:

a. folate
b. B12 and minerals
c. biotin
d. CoQ10

A

b. B12 and minerals

41
Q

Zinc carnosine supplementation contributes to the reduction of the incidence of:

a. obesity
b. insulin resistance
c. GERD
d. skeletal muscle weakness

A

d. skeletal muscle weakness

42
Q

An inborn error of metabolism may result from:

a. polyploidy
b. DNA replication error
c. congenital malnutrition
d. neonatal infection

A

b. DNA replication error

43
Q

A factor that does not predispose an infant to Fe deficiency is:

a. consumption of large amounts of homogenized milk
b. premature birth
c. hemmorrhage from the umbilicus during delivery
d. slow growth rate

A

d. slow growth rate

44
Q

Dumping syndrome is accompanied by sxs of:

a. faintness, weakness, and profuse sweating
b. acute gastritis
c. peptic ulcer disease
d. intestinal malabsorption

A

a. faintness, weakness, and profuse sweating

45
Q

Dietary modification appropriate for an individual with uncomplicated infectious hepatitis include:

a. increasing energy intake to >3000kcal daily
b. restricting protein intake to <30g daily
c. restricting fat intake to <30g daily
d. restricting fluid intake to <2000 mL daily

A

a. increasing energy intake to >3000kcal daily

46
Q

The infusion of hypertonic nutrient solution through the jugular or saphenous vein is called:

a. enteral alimentation
b. central parenteral alimentation
c. peripheral parenteral alimentation
d. peridialytic alimentation

A

b. central parenteral alimentation

47
Q

The most accurate way to assess micronutrient intake is through the use of a:

a. 24 hr food recall
b. 7 day food frequency
c. food frequency questionnaire
d. stool and urine analysis

A

c. food frequency questionnaire

48
Q

The most accurate assessment of vitamin D status is an assay for the:

a. 25 hydroxy vitamin D3
b. dietary intake of B3
c. length of sun exposure
d. urinary excretion of D2

A

a. 25 hydroxy vitamin D3

49
Q

One blood test which assesses vitamin B12 status and is included in a complete blood count panel is:

a. Hgb level
b. MCV
c. platelet levels
d. RBC count

A

b. MCV

50
Q

A fasting plasma glucose concentration of 50 mg/dL may suggest the presence of:

a. diabetes
b. hypoglycemia
c. normal glucose tolerance
d. hyperinsulinemia

A

b. hypoglycemia

51
Q

The five clinical determinants of metabolic syndrome are:

a. Waist circumference, cholestero, HDL, BMI, fasting plasma glucose (fpg)
b. Hip to waist ratio, triglycerides, LDL, blood pressure, fpg
c. Hip to waist ratio, cholesterol, HDL, BMI, fpg
d. Waist circumference, triglycerids, HDL, blood pressure, fpg

A

d. Waist circumference, triglycerids, HDL, blood pressure, fpg

52
Q

Responsible recommendations to consume vitamins in amounts exceeding their RDA:

a. ignore efficacy and risk for toxicity
b. balance benefits and risk
c. are not possible
d. are inconsistent with current knowledge

A

b. balance benefits and risk

53
Q

It is important for nutritionists to understand their client’s readiness to change stage because:

a. this will ensure that the recommendations will help them change
b. it helps the practitioner to know what information, support, and recommendations will help them get to their next stage of change and achieve their goals
c. it determines what specific lifestyle recommendations are needed.
d. it creates less tension in consultations sessions.

A

b. it helps the practitioner to know what information, support, and recommendations will help them get to their next stage of change and achieve their goals

54
Q

The food components that are listed on the Nutrition Facts panel are:

a. sugars, fiber, and potassium.
b. sugars, dietary fiber, and calcium.
c. sugars, dietary fiber, and monounsaturated fat. d. sugars, magnesium, and B-complex vitamins.

A

b. sugars, dietary fiber, and calcium.

55
Q

Which of the following best describes the initial priority of nutrition therapy in type 2 diabetes patients:

a. focus on cutting out sugars and carbohydrates
b. focus on eliminating alcohol
c. focus on nutritional approaches that will improve the outcomes of blood glucose, lipid profiles and blood pressure
d. focus on ideal body weight

A

c. focus on nutritional approaches that will improve the outcomes of blood glucose, lipid profiles and blood pressure

56
Q

Examples of dietary nutrients that are not absorbed directly into the enterohepatic portal blood system include:

a. amino acids.
b. medium-chain fatty acids.
c. monosaccharides.
d. long-chain fatty acids.

A

d. long-chain fatty acids.

57
Q

The hormone responsible for the decrease in gastrointestinal smooth muscle tone and motility during pregnancy is:

a. Estrogen.
b. progesterone.
c. placental lactogen.
d. human chorionic ghonadotropin.

A

b. progesterone.

58
Q

The ingestion of a meal containing large amounts of saturated fat will result in a transient increase in the serum concentration of:

a. chylomicrons.
b. low-density lipoproteins.
c. high-density lipoproteins.
d. micelles.

A

a. chylomicrons.

59
Q

The product of enterokinase reactions is:

a. Trypsin.
b. chymotrypsin.
c. pepsin.
d. carboxypeptidase.

A

a. Trypsin.

60
Q

Most iron is transported in the blood via the plasma carrier:

a. heme.
b. ferritin.
c. transferrin.
d. albumin.

A

c. transferrin.

61
Q

The organs most active in the synthesis of endogenous cholesterol are the liver and the:

a. gallbladder.
b. pancreas.
c. adrenal glands.
d. intestinal mucosa.

A

d. intestinal mucosa.

62
Q

Lactulose is a carbohydrate that is:

a. absorbed in the small intestine.
b. absorbed in the large intestine.
c. a nonabsorbable laxative.
d. not found in the human diet.

A

c. a nonabsorbable laxative.

63
Q

Digested dietary protein is absorbed primarily in the:

a. stomach.
b. duodenum.
c. jejunum.
d. ileum.

A

c. jejunum.

64
Q

Monosaccharides are transported across the placenta from the maternal circulation to the fetal circulation by the process of:

a. simple diffusion.
b. facilitated diffusion.
c. active transport.
d. pinocytosis.

A

b. facilitated diffusion.

65
Q

If a bolus containing 600 mOsm/ L enters the jejunum, the net direction of fluid movement in the intestinal tract will be:

a. from the intestinal lumen to the circulation.
b. from the circulation to the intestinal lumen.
c. longitudinally along the mucosal basement membrane.
d. from the circulation to the lymphoid system

A

b. from the circulation to the intestinal lumen.

66
Q

. Excessive production of gas within the intestines may be caused by excessive colonic bacterial fermentation of unabsorbed:

a. gluten.
b. small peptides.
c. lignin.
d. carbohydrates.

A

d. carbohydrates.

67
Q

A major intracellular antioxidant is the nutrient:

a. vitami n A.
b. thiami n.
c. glutathione.
d. ascorbic acid.

A

c. glutathione.

68
Q

A required prerequisite to the digestion of proteins is the HCl-dependent process called:

a. hydrolysis.
b. evaporation.
c. denaturation.
d. distillation.

A

c. denaturation.

69
Q

The true digestibility of dietary fatty acids is:

a. 65% to 75%.
b. 75% to 85%.
c. 85% to 95%.
d. > 95%

A

d. > 95%

70
Q

The structures of linoleic acid and gamma-linolenic acid differ in their:

a. chain lengths.
b. double bond positions.
c. numbers of double bonds.
d. side chain moieties.

A

c. numbers of double bonds.

71
Q
  1. An example of a compound that is not considered to be a component of dietary fiber is:

a. pectin.
b. hemi cellulose.
c. amylose.
d. cellulose.

A

c. amylose.

72
Q

Dietary fats and oils primarily are composed of:

a. triglycerides.
b. polyunsaturated fatty acids.
c. saturated fatty acids.
d. monounsaturated fatty acids.

A

a. triglycerides.

73
Q

A nutrient is considered to be conditionally essential when:

a. it cannot be replaced by a metabolic precursor.
b. it is malabsorbed.
c. its endogenous production becomes insufficient to satisfy needs.
d. it requires a second essential nutrient to be effective.

A

c. its endogenous production becomes insufficient to satisfy needs.

74
Q

Vitamin reserves can become depleted because all vitamins are:

a. synthesized inefficiently.
b. essential nutrients.
c. metabolized quickly.
d. excreted rapidly

A

b. essential nutrients.

75
Q

The process of adding a nutrient to manufactured foods as a public health measure is called:

a. restoration.
b. enrichment.
c. fortification.
d. Supplementation.

A

c. fortification.

76
Q

Food additives can be used:

a. as effective preservatives.
b. without restriction.
c. to compensate for improper processing practices.
d. without risk.

A

a. as effective preservatives.

77
Q

Nutrification is the:

a. addition of a nutrient to a food in order to assure the distribution of that nutrient to a target population group.
b. specific addition of thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, and iron to white flour.
c. structural modification of complex carbohydrates.
d. addition of at least 25% of the RDA of a nutrient to a food product that has been designed to replace a meal or food item.

A

a. addition of a nutrient to a food in order to assure the distribution of that nutrient to a target population group.

78
Q

Ketones result from the metabolism of:

a. fatty acids.
b. simple sugars.
c. amino acids.
d. complex carbohydrates.

A

a. fatty acids.

79
Q

The plasmalemma does not incorporate:

a. vitamin A.
b. vitamin E.
c. cholesterol.
d. phospholipids.

A

a. vitamin A.

80
Q

The failure of a tissue or organ to develop properly is called:

a. neoplasia.
b. aplasia.
c. hyperplasia.
d. atrophy.

A

b. aplasia.

81
Q

Glutamine is the primary energy source for the:

a. Liver.
b. heart.
c. small intestine.
d. brain.

A

c. small intestine.

82
Q

The metabolic effects of insulin include stimulation of:

a. adipocyte secretion of non-esterified fatty acids.
b. myocyte amino acid uptake.
c. hepatocyte gluconeogenesis.
d. myocyte glycogenesis.

A

b. myocyte amino acid uptake.

83
Q

The most common skeletal complication of chronic renal failure is:

a. hyperostosis.
b. osteoporosis.
c. rickets.
d. secondary hyperparathyroidism.

A

d. secondary hyperparathyroidism.

84
Q

Most circulating cholesterol is eliminated from the body after metabolism to:

a. lipoproteins.
b. phospholipids.
c. fecal fat.
d. bile acids.

A

d. bile acids.

85
Q

Vitamin B 12 is a required cofactor in the biochemical pathway through which glucose is produced from the amino acid:

a. alanine.
b. valine.
c. methionine.
d. tyrosine.

A

b. valine.

86
Q

Copper is a component of:

a. alkaline phosphatase.
b. glycosyl transferase.
c. ceruloplasmin.
d. glucose tolerance factor.

A

c. ceruloplasmin.

87
Q

The decarboxylation of pyruvate involves a sequence of reactions that require, as coenzymes, the four vitamins:

a. thiamin, pantothenic acid, riboflavin and vitamin B 12 .
b. thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, and vitamin B 12 .
c. thiamin, pantothenic acid, riboflavin, and niacin.
d. biotin, niacin, pantothenic acid and vitamin B 12

A

c. thiamin, pantothenic acid, riboflavin, and niacin.

CNS Study Final (29 decks)

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