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CNS Study Final > MUIH Study Questions > Flashcards

MUIH Study Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following does NOT describe a physiological change of aging?

a. decrease in digestion and absorption capacity
b. reduction in lean body mass
c. lower basal metabolism
d. increase in taste sensitivity

A

d. increase in taste sensitivity

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2
Q

An increase in the number of cells is called

a. hyperplasia
b. hypoplasia
c. hypertrophy
d. hypotrophy

A

a. hyperplasia

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3
Q

What are the most common measures used to assess growth?

a. Height and weight
b. Height and head circumference
c. Height and body mass index
d. Recumbent length and weight

A

a. Height and weight

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4
Q

A baby was born at 38 weeks of gestation, weighing 4250 grams (>95th percentile). The baby was:

a. preterm
b. premature
c. full term
d. overdue

A

c. full term

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5
Q

In the acid-base imbalance acidosis, what happens to respiratory activity?

a. increases
b. stays the same
c. decreases
d. it is irrelevant

A

a. increases

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6
Q

Which of the following does not occur during pregnancy?

a. Appetite increases
b. Thirst increases
c. Gastrointestinal motility increases
d. Gastroesophageal reflux becomes more common

A

c. Gastrointestinal motility increases

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7
Q

Shelly was following a low-carbohydrate (25 grams CHO/day) diet for weight loss prior to conceiving, and now that she is pregnant she knows that she has to eat more. How many more grams of carbohydrate should Shelly plan to eat per day?

a. 100
b. 125
c. 150
d. 175

A

c. 150

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8
Q

How many grams of protein per day should a pregnant woman add to her diet?

a. 15 grams
b. 20 grams
c. 25 grams
d. 30 grams

A

c. 25 grams

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9
Q

Which of the following oils is a significant source of omega-3 fatty acids?

a. Olive oil
b. Corn oil
c. Canola oil
d. Peanut oil

A

c. Canola oil

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10
Q

The purpose of using double-blinding in an Randomized Control Trial is to

a. Achieve greater comparability of cases and controls.
b. Avoid placebo effects.
c. Avoid objective and subjective bias.
d. Reduce the effects of sampling variation.

A

c. Avoid objective and subjective bias.

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11
Q

A researcher is studying the relationship between level of radiation exposure among miners and risk of leukemia. He has compared the incidence of leukemia among mine workers in high- and low-radiation mines. He found that the relative risk for developing leukemia was 2.0 among those workers exposed to the high radiation mine. The associated p-value was 0.03. Which statement best describes the meaning of the p-value in this study?

a. The probability that the relative risk of 2.0 or more was due to chance alone is 3%.
b. There is a 3% difference in incidence rates of leukemia between the two groups of miners.
c. There were 3 more cases of leukemia per 100 in the high radiation mine.
d. The power associated with this study was 3.0%.

A

a. The probability that the relative risk of 2.0 or more was due to chance alone is 3%.

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12
Q

A client’s weight is 68 kg and height is 165 cm. What is the Body-Mass Index (BMI)?

a. 20. 24
b. 29. 48
c. 33.0
d. 24.98

A

d. 24.98

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13
Q

The best practice for measuring wrist circumference is:

a. measurement is made with a tape just distal to the styloid process at wrist crease of right hand, calculate the ratio of height to wrist circumference and compare to standard range for weight
b. measurement is made with a tape just distal to the styloid process at wrist crease of right hand, calculate the ratio of height to wrist circumference and compare to standard range for gender
c. measurement is made with a tape just below the elbow of right hand, calculate the ratio of height to wrist circumference and compare to standard range for gender
d. none of the above

A

a. measurement is made with a tape just distal to the styloid process at wrist crease of right hand, calculate the ratio of height to wrist circumference and compare to standard range for weight

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14
Q

The public health department of Smoke City reported 40 new cases of lung cancer in its population of 100,000 people between January 1, 1998 and December 31, 1999. What is the annual incidence of lung cancer for this population?

a. 40 per 100,000 per year.
b. 20 per 10,000 per year.
c. 80 per 100,000 per year.
d. 2 per 10,000 per year.

A

d. 2 per 10,000 per year.

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15
Q

What is the protein requirement per kilogram of body weight per day for young adolescents?

a. 0.8g
b. 0.85 g
c. 0.9g
d. 0.95 g

A

b. 0.85 g

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16
Q

The Estimated Energy Requirement (EER) during adolescence takes into account all of the following except:

a. energy needed to maintain health
b. energy needed to promote optimal growth
c. energy needed to support physical activity
d. stress factors

A

d. stress factors

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17
Q

As a result of rapid growth and development associated with adolescence, the RDA for calcium during late adolescence has been set at:

a. 1000 mg/day.
b. 1100 mg/day.
c. 1200 mg/day.
d. 1300 mg/day.

A

d. 1300 mg/day.

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18
Q

Age-related loss of lean body mass causes:

a. total energy requirements to increase.
b. total energy expenditure to remain the same.
c. basal metabolism to decrease.
d. basic energy metabolism to increase.

A

c. basal metabolism to decrease.

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19
Q

Bone mass is reduced in the elderly, and this is one of the reasons that their RDA for calcium has been increased from 1,000 mg to _____ mg/day.

a. 1100
b. 1200
c. 1300
d. 1400

A

b. 1200

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20
Q

Which phytochemical is structurally similar to estrogen?

a. Lycopene
b. Lutein
c. Catechins
d. Isoflavones

A

d. Isoflavones

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21
Q

Which one of the following gastrointestinal changes occurs as part of the aging process?

a. Secretion of gastric juice is increased
b. Peristalsis increases
c. Vitamin B12 absorption is reduced
d. Secretion of saliva and mucus is increased

A

c. Vitamin B12 absorption is reduced

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22
Q

Rickets:

a. Is marked by disorders of cartilage cell growth
b. Can lead to osteomalacia in adults
c. Results in a bowlegged appearance
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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23
Q

The Total Energy Expenditure (TEE) is obtained from which of the following sources:

a. Resting Metabolic Rate (RMR)
b. Thermogenic effect of food (TEF)
c. Non-exercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)
d. Post-exercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

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24
Q

Using the RDA for protein, the estimated protein requirements for a female client of 125 pounds is:

a. 55 grams
b. 45 grams
c. 36 grams
d. 68 grams

A

b. 45 grams

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25
Q

A higher protein diet would not be warranted in the following disease:

a. Protein malnutrition
b. Hypoalbuminemia
c. Chronic Renal Disease
d. Sarcopenia

A

c. Chronic Renal Disease

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26
Q

Characteristics of successful dieters include all of the following except:

a. Maintaining a daily food journal
b. Counting calories
c. Adhering to a strict eating plan
d. Eliminating all carbohydrates from their diets

A

d. Eliminating all carbohydrates from their diets

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27
Q

How many calories do you subtract from the total energy expenditure for weight loss?

a. 300
b. 250
c. 500
d. 350

A

c. 500

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28
Q

What is the function of angiotensin II?

a. Prevent the adrenal glands from releasing aldosterone b. Stimulate the adrenal glands to release more aldosterone
c. Prevent the lungs from producing rennin
d. Stimulate the lungs to produce rennin

A

b. Stimulate the adrenal glands to release more aldosterone

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29
Q

What gland responds to a lack of water in the body by releasing a hormone?

a. Pineal
b. Hypothyroid
c. Pituitary
d. Thyroid

A

c. Pituitary

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30
Q

A fatty acid contains 20 carbons with four unsaturated bonds in its chain, the first of which is 6 carbons distant from its omega end. How would this be designated?

a. 20:4 n-6
b. 20:3 n-4
c. 22:4 n-3
d. 22:4 n-6

A

a. 20:4 n-6

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31
Q

What is formed when fatty acids are oxidized in the mitochondria (i.e., what is the end product of beta- oxidation)?

a. glycerol
b. pyruvate
c. acetyl-CoA
d. triacylglycerol

A

c. acetyl-CoA

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32
Q

As kidney function declines, serum creatinine may:

a. Decrease
b. Increase
c. Stay the same

A

b. Increase

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33
Q

What is the etiology of pernicious anemia?

a. decreased intrinsic factor
b. lack of bioavailable folate
c. consumption of foods that decrease bioavailability of iron
d. lack of parietal cells

A

a. decreased intrinsic factor

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34
Q

Under the influence of insulin, which of the following pathways is increased?

a. Glycogenesis
b. glycogenolysis
c. phosphorylation of glycogen synthase
d. phosphorylation of glycogen phosphorylase

A

a. Glycogenesis

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35
Q

A low-glycemic index (GI) food has a GI rating of:

a. ≤55
b. ≤60
c. ≤65
d. ≤70

A

a. ≤55

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36
Q

Which organ synthesizes the hormone glucagon?

a. Liver
b. Pancreas
c. Gallbladder
d. Large intestine

A

b. Pancreas

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37
Q

Sunil finished his evening meal of curried chicken, rice, fruit, salad, cookies, and tea about 30 minutes ago. Which of the following best describes what is happening?

a. His blood concentration of glucagon exceeds that of insulin.
b. His blood concentration of insulin exceeds that of glucagon.
c. His blood contains glucagon but no insulin.
d. His blood contains insulin but no glucagon.

A

b. His blood concentration of insulin exceeds that of glucagon.

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38
Q

Why are skeletal muscle cells able to take up glucose without insulin during exercise?

a. Muscle contractions can activate movement of glucose transporters from the cytoplasm to the cell membrane.
b. The cell membranes of muscle cells contain glucose receptors.
c. Muscle cells can take up glucose without insulin.
d. Muscle cells do not depend on glucose transporters for uptake of glucose.

A

a. Muscle contractions can activate movement of glucose transporters from the cytoplasm to the cell membrane.

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39
Q

When blood calcium concentration is low the _____ releases _____ in order to raise blood calcium levels.

a. Parathyroid gland, calcitonin
b. Thyroid gland, PTH
c. Parathyroid gland, PTH
d. Thyroid gland, calcitonin

A

c. Parathyroid gland, PTH

40
Q

Which body water reservoir is made up of plasma and interstitial fluid?

a. Intracellular
b. Extracellular
c. Total body water
d. Glomerular filtrate

A

b. Extracellular

41
Q

Which of the following foods are the best sources of the major minerals?

a. Legumes and nuts
b. Whole-grain products
c. Fruits and vegetables
d. Seafood, meat, and dairy products

A

d. Seafood, meat, and dairy products

42
Q

Which of the major minerals function primarily in maintenance of fluid balance?

a. Calcium, phosphorus, magnesium
b. Sodium, chloride, potassium
c. Chloride, potassium, calcium
d. Phosphorus, chloride, sodium

A

b. Sodium, chloride, potassium

43
Q

What is the primary site for the absorption of major minerals?

a. Stomach
b. Small intestine
c. Liver
d. Large intestine

A

b. Small intestine

44
Q

What hormone is released by some gastric cells when there is food in your stomach?

a. Gastrin
b. Pepsinogen
c. Cholecystokinin
d. Trypsin

A

a. Gastrin

45
Q

In the first phase of intestinal triglyceride digestion, large lipid molecules are dispersed into smaller lipid droplets called _____ so that they will not separate out into an oily layer and thus can be further digested.

a. Micelles
b. Emulsions
c. Suspensions
d. Globules

A

a. Micelles

46
Q

What substance stimulates the pancreas to release pancreatic lipase?

a. Thyroxin
b. Secretin
c. Homocysteine
d. Phospholipids

A

b. Secretin

47
Q

What hormone stimulates the gallbladder to contract and release bile into the duodenum?

a. Retinolase (RNS)
b. Cholecystokinin (CCK)
c. Insulin
d. Glucagon

A

b. Cholecystokinin (CCK)

48
Q

The metabolic process used by the body to synthesize nonessential amino acids is called _____.

a. Reamination
b. Deamination
c. Transamination
d. Transmigration

A

c. Transamination

49
Q

People born with an inborn error of metabolism called PKU cannot convert phenylalanine to _____.

a. Tryptophan
b. Casein
c. Tyrosine
d. Aspartame

A

c. Tyrosine

50
Q

Which of the following types of anemia is caused by a single error in the amino acid sequence of hemoglobin?

a. Microcytic
b. Macrocytic
c. Pernicious
d. Sickle cell

A

c. Pernicious

51
Q

Which of the following nutrients is most closely associated with hearing loss in aging adults?

a. Calcium
b. B12
c. Zinc
d. Possacium

A

b. B12

Elderly individuals are more prone to B12 deficiency because of their commonly depleted stomach acid levels.

52
Q

The oligo-antigenic diet is a type of:

a. gluten-free diet
b. detoxification diet
c. low oxalate diet
d. elimination diet

A

d. elimination diet

Oligo-antigenic diet is a type if elimination diet that is very limited and eliminates and allows only a small amount of foods that generally cause no or few reactions.

53
Q

Timing is important when taking calcium supplements. Calcium supplements taken with meals _____ urinary calcium, _______ urinary citrate, and ______ urinary oxalate.

a. Increase, increase, increase
b. Increase, increase, decrease
c. Increase, decrease, increase
d. decrease, decrease, decrease

A

b. Increase, increase, decrease

Calcium supplements taken with meals increase urinary calcium, increase urinary citrate, and decrease urinary oxalate. This is important because the increase in citrate and decrease in oxalate counterbalance the effects of elevated urinary calcium.

54
Q

The optimum pH level varies for enzymes,; for example salivary amylase works best at pH ___ while gastric pepsin and lipase function optimally at pH ____.

a. 6.75 - 7, 7.35 - 7.45
b. 7.35 - 7.45, 6.75 - 7
c. 7.35 - 7.45, 1.5 - 3.5
d. 6.75 - 7, 1.5 - 3.5

A

d. 6.75 - 7, 1.5 - 3.5

Salivary amylase works best at 6.75 - 7.00, while gastric pepsin and lipase function optimally at pH 1.5 - 3.5. Extremes of pH can lead to denaturation of enzymes.

55
Q

The type of diarrhea most closely associated with dumping syndrome:

a. Osmotic diarrhea
b. Exudative diarrhea
c. Limited mucosal contact diarrhea
d. Secretory diarrhea

A

a. Osmotic diarrhea

Osmotic diarrhea is due to the presence of poorly absorbed solutes in digesta.

56
Q

A 23-year old vegan client is concerned that she is not getting enough dietary iron so she seeks a nutritionist’s help about which foods she can add to her diet. A nutritionist would most likely recommend that this client eat;

a. blackstrap molasses
b. strawberries
c. grass-fed steak
d. chlorella

A

d. chlorella

While steak, blackstrap molasses and strawberries are a rich source of iron, chlorella is the most iron-rich choice (1oz = over 200% RDI). Chlorella is very nutrient dense in the number of vitamins and minerals, including iron.

57
Q

During end-stage renal disease, certain vitamin supplementation may be needed because of losses during dialysis. This should be assessed on an individual level, but which of the following should not be supplemented?

a. vitamin C
b. vitamin A
c. vitamin B12
d. vitamin D

A

b. vitamin A

In end-stage renal disease, fat-soluble vitamins A, E and K should not be supplemented.

58
Q

Dietary recommendation for elevated LDL cholesterol in adolescents do not include:

a. limit total fat intake to no more than 15% of calories
b. limit saturated fat intake to no more than 7% of calories
c. psyllium fiber can be added to the diet
d. at least 1 hour of moderate to vigorous exercise should happen daily

A

a. limit total fat intake to no more than 15% of calories

Total fat intake should be limited but can consist of up to 30% of daily calories.

59
Q

A 20-carbon omega-6 fatty acid with 4 double bonds (20:4) is:

a. EPA
b. ARA
c. DHA
d. ALA

A

b. ARA

Arachidonic acid is a polyunsaturated omega-6 fatty acid.

60
Q

At the age of 18 your client underwent a resection of his ileum due to severe Chrohn’s disease. He is concerned that he may not be consuming the right type of diet. Which of the following is most true about your client?

a. he should reduce high oxalate foods
b. he should try a ketogenic diet
c. he should supplement with zinc
d. he should have no issues with fat malabsorption.

A

a. he should reduce high oxalate foods

When patients undergo intestinal surgeries such as ileum resection, they are at risk for calcium oxalate kidney stones. Therefore, it is best to reduce foods high in oxalates.

61
Q

Your client understands that he has Type 2 diabetes and how it effects his blood sugar levels but he is ambivalent toward changing his diet because he knows that Metformin will help him. Which stage of change is being described?

a. contemplation
b. precontemplation
c. preparation
d. maintenance

A

a. contemplation

In the contemplation stage, clients re aware of their problem but ambivalent.

62
Q

Which of the following is not true about ginko supplementation with cancer survivor.

a. enhances memory
b. irritates stomach
c. increase risk of excessive bleeding
d. helps increase blood circulation

A

b. irritates stomach

Ginko supplementation may sooth the stomach, enhance memory and increase blood circulation but may also increase bleeding in cancer survivors.

63
Q

Your client comes in with the following lab work: Aspartame Aminotransferase (AST) - 48U/L, Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) - 50 U/L, Gamma Glutamyl Transferase (GGT) - 92 U/L. The client also has low B12, folate, and thiamin levels. Which condition does this point to?

a. malabsorption
b. eating disorder
c. kidney damage
d. alcoholism

A

d. alcoholism

These markers are usually elevated in someone who abuses alcohol. Excessive alcohol use severely impairs liver function. Chronic use of alcohol may also deplete B12, folate and thiamin levels.

64
Q

The most widely distributed coenzyme in the body is:

a. NAD
b. ATP
c. CoA
d. NADH

A

b. ATP

Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is an example of an essential non-vitamin coenzyme, and it is the most widely distributed coenzyme in the body.

65
Q

Thee primary action of acetylcholine is to:

a. regulate blood flow, muscle tone and gastric motor activity
b. increase motility, relax sphincters, and stimulate recreations
c. decrease motility, increase contraction of sphincters, and inhibit recreations.
d. relax the lower esophageal sphincter

A

b. increase motility, relax sphincters, and stimulate recreations

66
Q

The primary action of norepinephrine is to:

a. increase sensory awareness and peristalsis
b. decrease motility, increase contraction of sphincters, and inhibit secretion.
c. relax the lower esophageal sphincter
d. regulate blood flow, maintain muscle tone and gastric motor activity

A

b. decrease motility, increase contraction of sphincters, and inhibit secretion.

67
Q

Which of the following micronutrients do ACE inhibitors deplete?

a. copper
b. zinc
c. magnesium
d. selenium

A

b. zinc

68
Q

The following condition can result from choline deficiency.

a. Parkinson’s disease
b. non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
c. gout
d. end-stage renal disease

A

b. non-alcoholic fatty liver disease

69
Q

Creatine is synthesized from the amino acids:

a. glutemine and methionine
b. isoleucine, threonine, histidine
c. tyrosine and leucine
d. glycine, Argentine, and methionine

A

d. glycine, Argentine, and methionine

70
Q

Paresthesias of lips, tongue and fingers may suggest which current deficiencies/insufficiencies:

a. magnesium
b. iron, folate
c. riboflavin
d. calcium

A

d. calcium

71
Q

A medium-chain fatty acid contains _____ carbon atoms.

a. 2-4
b. 4-8
c. 8-12
d. 12-20

A

c. 8-12

72
Q

The body produces _____ from fatty acids when its supply of glucose is limited.

a. Glucose
b. Glycogen
c. Triglycerides
d. Ketones

A

d. Ketones

73
Q

Because lipids are not water soluble, they require _____ to facilitate their circulation in the body.

a. Phospholipids
b. Sodium
c. bile acids
d. cholesterol esters

A

a. Phospholipids

74
Q

In order for short- and medium-chain fatty acids to be circulated away from the small intestine in the blood, they are first bound to _____.

a. Cholesterol
b. vitamin D
c. triglycerides
d. albumin

A

d. albumin

75
Q

Which lipoprotein do intestinal cells synthesize in order to circulate long-chain fatty acids away from the gastrointestinal tract?

a. VLDL
b. Chylomicrons
c. Triglycerides
d. LDL

A

b. Chylomicrons

76
Q

What
is the primary function of glucose?

a. To facilitate synthesis of some amino acids
b. To provide a ready source of glycosidic bonds
c. To provide a source of energy to cells
d. To facilitate synthesis of glycogen

A

c. To provide a source of energy to cells

77
Q

The body stores glycogen primarily in the _____ and _____.

a. Brain, skeletal muscles
b. Liver , central nervous system
c. Muscles, central nervous system
d. Liver, skeletal muscles

A

d. Liver, skeletal muscles

78
Q

Amy got up late this morning so she skipped breakfast and went straight to her soccer practice. Which fuel source is her body relying upon to supply the glucose that her brain needs to function?

a. Fatty acids
b. Liver glycogen
c. Glycolysis
d. Muscle glycogen

A

b. Liver glycogen

79
Q

A drink that contains 10 grams of carbohydrate and 15 grams of alcohol would provide _____ kcalories.

a. 100
b. 190
c. 145
d. 175

A

c. 145

80
Q

A sandwich you ate contained 20 grams of CHO, 32 grams of protein, and 10 grams of fat. What percentage of the kcalories in the sandwich came from protein?

a. 27%
b. 30%
c. 43%
d. 57%

A

c. 43%

81
Q

What is the name of the process in which certain vitamins and/or minerals are added to select foods such as rice, flour, bread and rolls, and farina in amounts suggested by the FDA?

a. Enrichment
b. Fortification
c. Enhancement
d. Supplementation

A

a. Enrichment

82
Q

Which vitamins must be added to a food for it to be labeled “enriched”?

a. Thiamin, niacin, riboflavin, and folate
b. Thiamin, B6, riboflavin, and folate
c. Thiamin, niacin, pantothenic acid, and folate
d. Thiamin, B12, riboflavin, and folate

A

a. Thiamin, niacin, riboflavin, and folate

83
Q

Which of the following is the coenzyme form of thiamin?

a. TPP
b. ATP
c. TCA
d. ETC

A

a. TPP

84
Q

What disease is characterized by severe muscle wasting, leg cramps, tenderness, and decreased feeling in the feet and toes?

a. Dry beriberi
b. Wet beriberi
c. Infantile beriberi
d. Cerebral beriberi

A

a. Dry beriberi

85
Q

Which of the following is not a function of thiamine’s coenzyme form?

a. It is required for your body to make ATP.
b. It is required for the activation of the enzyme needed to convert pyruvate to acetyl-CoA.
c. It is a required component in the citric acid cycle.
d. It is part of an enzyme that allows fatty acids to enter the citric acid cycle.

A

d. It is part of an enzyme that allows fatty acids to enter the citric acid cycle.

86
Q

What vitamin assists in reduction-oxidation reactions, as well as several reactions that protect biological membranes from oxidative damage?

a. Thiamin
b. Riboflavin
c. Niacin
d. Pantothenic acid

A

b. Riboflavin

87
Q

The vitamin deficiency _____ is characterized by cheilosis, stomatitis, glossitis, muscle weakness, and confusion.

a. Beriberi
b. Pellagra
c. Ariboflavinosis
d. Pernicious anemia

A

c. Ariboflavinosis

88
Q

The amino acid tryptophan can be converted to:

a. Niacin
b. Thiamin
c. Folate
d. vitamin B6

A

a. Niacin

89
Q

Which vitamin is needed to make NAD+ and NADP+?

a. Thiamin
b. Riboflavin
c. Niacin
d. Biotin

A

c. Niacin

90
Q

The symptoms of _____ are often referred to as the four D’s: dermatitis, dementia, diarrhea, and death.

a. Pellagra
b. Beriberi
c. Ariboflavinosis
d. Pernicious anemia

A

a. Pellagra

91
Q

What is the coenzyme form of pantothenic acid?

a. FAD
b. Coenzyme Q
c. NAD
d. Coenzyme A

A

d. Coenzyme A

92
Q

“Burning feet syndrome” is thought to be due to what vitamin deficiency?

a. Pantothenic acid
b. Thiamin
c. Niacin
d. Riboflavin

A

a. Pantothenic acid

93
Q

“Burning feet syndrome” is thought to be due to what vitamin deficiency?

a. Pantothenic acid
b. Thiamin
c. Niacin
d. Riboflavin

A

a. Pantothenic acid

94
Q

Which of the following foods are especially good sources of vitamin B6?

a. Chickpeas, fish, and chicken
b. Broccoli, eggs, and canola oil
c. Apples, wheat bread, and yogurt
d. Cheese, pineapple, and pasta

A

a. Chickpeas, fish, and chicken

95
Q

Which vitamin is required by the enzyme that converts pyruvate to oxaloacetate, a key step in gluconeogenesis?

a. Thiamin
b. Niacin
c. Biotin
d. Vitamin B12

A

c. Biotin

96
Q

Which vitamins are required for the production of methionine from homocysteine?

a. Thiamin and vitamin B12
b. Niacin and vitamin B6
c. Vitamin B6 and vitamin B12
d. Folate and vitamin B12

A

d. Folate and vitamin B12

CNS Study Final (29 decks)

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