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CNS Study Final > Nutritional Biochemistry > Flashcards

Nutritional Biochemistry Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following describes a Decomposition Reaction?

A) A reaction in which two or more reactants combine to form a more complex substance
B) None of the answers are correct
C) A reaction in which reactants can interact to form products, but products can also react form the reactants
D) A reaction in which a more complex substance is broken down into two or more smaller substances
E) Reactant A combines with reactant B to form the product AB

A

D) A reaction in which a more complex substance is broken down into two or more smaller substances

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2
Q

When amino acids combine to form a protein molecule, which biochemical reaction took place?

A) Reversible Reaction
B) Decomposition Reaction
C) Denatured Reaction
D) Synthesis Reaction
E) Synergistic Reaction
A

D) Synthesis Reaction

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3
Q

If reactants can interact to form products, but the products can also react to form the reactants, which biochemical reaction took place?

A) Synthetic Reaction
B) Decompression Reaction
C) Synthesis Reaction
D) Reversible Reaction
E) Decomposition Reaction
A

D) Reversible Reaction

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4
Q

When glycogen molecules break down to release glucose units, which biochemical reaction took place?

A) Synthesis Reaction
B) Reversible Reaction
C) Decomposition Reaction
D) Denatured Reaction
E) Synergistic Reaction
A

C) Decomposition Reaction

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5
Q

Which of the following describes a biochemical reaction?

A) All of the answers are correct
B) The hyper– or hypo–secretion of a hormone
C) The study of the chemical substances and processes in living things
D) The study of living organisms
E) The interaction of two or more substances to produce another substance

A

E) The interaction of two or more substances to produce another substance

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6
Q

Which of the following can an enzyme NOT do?

A) An enzyme cannot lower the free energy produced from a reaction.
B) An enzyme cannot bind molecules nonspecifically for a reaction.
C) An enzyme cannot do any of these answers
D) An enzyme cannot be consumed in a chemical reaction
E) An enzyme cannot raise the free energy of a reaction

A

C) An enzyme cannot do any of these answers

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7
Q

The location of substrate binding is called the

A) Catalyst
B) Induced Fit
C) Active Site
D) Lactose
E) Enzyme–Substrate complex
A

C) Active Site

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8
Q

The change in free energy of a reaction is

A) decreased with the help of an enzyme
B) Unchanged with the help of an enzyme
C) faster with the help of an enzyme
D) slower with the help of an enzyme
E) Increased with the help of an enzyme
A

B) Unchanged with the help of an enzyme

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9
Q

Which of the following is true about enzymes?

A) Enzymes increase the temperature of a chemical reaction
B) Enzymes decrease the rate of a chemical reaction
C) Enzymes lower the activation energy of a chemical reaction
D) Enzymes raise the activation energy of a chemical reaction
E) Enzymes leave the activation energy of a chemical reaction unchanged

A

C) Enzymes lower the activation energy of a chemical reaction

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10
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of lactase?

A) It forms an enzyme–substrate complex with lactose
B) It can break down different sugar substrates besides lactose
C) It is an enzyme
D) Lactose binds in its active site
E) It does not change the free energy from the breakdown of lactose

A

B) It can break down different sugar substrates besides lactose

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11
Q

Cellular respiration includes a step that converts pyruvate into Acetyl coA. Acetyl coA is also known as Coenzyme A. This implies that Acetyl coA:

A) Is bound tightly to the enzyme.
B) Is one of the enzymes performing the function.
C) All of these statements are true.
D) Is a metal ion.
E) Helps an enzyme perform a function.
A

E) Helps an enzyme perform a function.

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12
Q

Iron binds tightly to the heme group in the protein hemoglobin. What type(s) of helper molecule would is this considered?

A) A cofactor and coenzyme
B) A prosthetic group and cofactor
C) Only a coenzyme
D) Only a cofactor
E) A coenzyme, cofactor, and prostetic group,
A

B) A prosthetic group and cofactor

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13
Q

Many coenzymes are derived from

A) Metals
B) Any of these
C) Vitamins
D) Inorganic molecules
E) Enzymes
A

C) Vitamins

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14
Q

A coenzyme is differentiated from the broader class of cofactors because it is

A) All of these
B) An enzyme
C) Organic
D) Metal
E) Inorganic
A

C) Organic

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15
Q

What type of bond is often formed between prosthetic groups and proteins?

A) Hydrogen
B) Amino acid
C) Metal
D) Covalent
E) Polypeptide
A

D) Covalent

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16
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of enzyme regulation?

A) Enzyme regulation ensures control on enzyme function
B) An enzyme can be both positively and negatively regulated
C) All enzymes are regulated by the same inhibitors
D) An enzyme can be negatively regulated
E) An enzyme can be positively regulated,

A

C) All enzymes are regulated by the same inhibitors

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17
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of a noncompetitive inhibitor?

A) The reaction may be completely prevented
B) The enzyme may proceed slowly
C) The enzyme active site can change shape
D) The inhibitor can bind in the active site
E) It is possible for a substrate to still bind to its substrate

A

D) The inhibitor can bind in the active site

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18
Q

An activator could have the following effect on an enzyme:

A) Increase in inhibitor binding
B) Inhibition of substrate binding
C) Increase of reaction rates
D) Increase in number of substrates that can simultaneously bind to one enzyme
E) Decrease in enzyme function
F)
A

C) Increase of reaction rates

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19
Q

Competitive inhibition involves an inhibitor

A) Increasing enzyme reaction rates
B) Initiating enzyme function
C) Binding away from the location
D) Binding to the active site
E) Recognizing a substrate
A

D) Binding to the active site

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20
Q

A non–substrate molecule binds to an enzyme. Now the enzyme is able to bind its substrate when it previously could not. What has likely occurred?

A) The active site has changed shape
B) A noncompetitive inhibitor is bound to the enzyme
C) An activator is bound to the substrate
D) A competitive inhibitor is bound to the enzyme
E) The reaction has been negatively regulated.

A

A) The active site has changed shape

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21
Q

If a food molecule loses an electron, what happened to it?

A) It got digested
B) It was reduced
C) It was detoxed
D) It was transported to the bloodstream
E) It was oxidized
A

E) It was oxidized

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22
Q

Which reactions involve the gain of electrons?

A) Oxidation Reactions
B) Both Oxidation and Reduction Reactions
C) Cellular Transport Reactions
D) Reduction Reactions
E) Neither Oxidation or Reduction Reactions

A

D) Reduction Reactions

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23
Q

In cellular respiration what is the term used to describe a series of compounds that pass electrons from one to another?

A) Electron Transport Chain
B) Krebs Cycle
C) Electron Sharing
D) Citric Acid Cycle
E) Metabolism
A

A) Electron Transport Chain

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24
Q

Which of the following is FALSE concerning electrons?

A) All of the answers are true concerning electrons
B) Oxidation involves the loss of electrons
C) Electrons do not exist by themselves
D) Electrons always carry a negative charge
E) When electrons move it’s a form of energy

A

A) All of the answers are true concerning electrons

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25
Q

Which of the following terms is used to describe the process of oxidizing food molecules to make energy?

A) Reproduction
B) Electron Transport
C) Cellular Respiration
D) Digestion
E) Citric Acid Cycle
A

C) Cellular Respiration

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26
Q

Which of the following statements about NAD are false?
I. It is the major energy currency used in all cellular processes.
II. It can be used to temporarily store energy harvested during cellular respiration.
III. It can be used to make ADP.

A) I and II
B) I and III
C) II and III
D) None of the statements.
E) I, II, and III
A

B) I and III

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27
Q

Which of the following statements about FAD are true?
I. FAD plays a role in cellular respiration.
II. FADH2 is the oxidized form of FAD.
III. FAD can accept electrons.

A) I and III
B) I, II, and III
C) I and II
D) II and III
E) II
A

A) I and III

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28
Q

Which of the following molecules are used as electron carriers during cellular respiration?

A) All of the answers are correct.
B) Two of the answers are correct.
C) ATP
D) FAD
E) NAD
A

B) Two of the answers are correct.

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29
Q

Which of the following chemical reactions accurately describes the reduction of NAD during cellular respiration?

A) Two of the answers are correct.
B) NAD + 2H ––> NADH2
C) NADH + H+ ––> NAD+ + 2H
D) None of the answers are correct.
E) NAD+ + 2H ––> NADH + H+
A

E) NAD+ + 2H ––> NADH + H+

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30
Q

Which of the following represents the oxidized form of flavin adenine dinucleotide during cellular respiration?

A) FADH + H+
B) FADH2
C) FAD+
D) FAD
E) None of these answers are correct.
A

D) FAD

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31
Q

When living cells break down molecules of food, energy is

A) stored as ADP
B) stored as ATP
C) created by the blood
D) released as DNA
E) created in the nucleus
A

B) stored as ATP

32
Q

The breakdown of organic compounds to produce ATP is known as

A) photosynthesis
B) transpiration
C) cellular respiration
D) dehydration synthesis
E) homeostasis
A

C) cellular respiration

33
Q

Energy is released from ATP when the bond is broken between

A) ribose and a phosphate group
B) adenine and a phosphate group
C) two phosphate groups
D) adenine and ribose
E) ribose and deoxyribose
A

C) two phosphate groups

34
Q

In order to produce the most ATP, an organism needs to perform

A) dehydration synthesis
B) hematopoiesis
C) photosynthesis
D) anaerobic cellular respiration
E) aerobic cellular respiration
A

E) aerobic cellular respiration

35
Q

When games and competitions are held at high altitudes, athletes must specially train to postpone their cells from switching to

A) anaerobic cellular respiration
B) dehydration synthesis
C) hematopoiesis
D) photosynthesis
E) aerobic cellular respiration
A

A) anaerobic cellular respiration

36
Q

What is the electron carrier in glycolysis that becomes reduced?

A) O2
B) NADH
C) ATP
D) NAD+
E) ADP
A

D) NAD+

37
Q

How many net ATP molecules are gained from glycolysis?

A) 4
B) 2
C) 3
D) 1
E) 0
A

B) 2

38
Q

Glycolysis happens

A) In the cytoplasm of cells
B) In the bloodstream
C) In the mitochondrial matrix
D) In the cell membrane
E) In the inner membrane of the mitochondria
A

A) In the cytoplasm of cells

39
Q

Glycolysis produces two 3–carbon sugars that are then used in what stage of cellular respiration?

A) The Electron Transport Chain
B) The Citric Acid Cycle
C) Oxygen
D) Glucose
E) The Calvin Cycle
A

B) The Citric Acid Cycle

40
Q

In order to perform glycolysis, which of the following needs to happen?

A) An investment of two ATP molecules
B) ATP accepts a phosphate group
C) The release of carbon dioxide
D) The oxidation of NADH
E) Breakdown of oxygen
A

A) An investment of two ATP molecules

41
Q

How many molecules of ATP does fermentation provide?

A) 28
B) 4
C) 2
D) 32
E) 1
A

C) 2

42
Q

Which of the following produces the MOST ATP?

A) Alcoholic fermentation
B) The electron transport chain
C) Lactic Acid fermentation
D) Glycolysis
E) Citric Acid Cycle
A

B) The electron transport chain

43
Q

Why must pyruvate be reduced during fermentation?

A) To perform pyruvate oxidation
B) To create more ATP
C) To regenerate NAD+ for glycolysis
D) To create FADH for the citric acid cycle
E) To oxidize water
A

C) To regenerate NAD+ for glycolysis

44
Q

Which of the following is TRUE of fermentation?

A) It completes glycolysis
B) It completes the citric acid cycle
C) It completes pyruvate oxidation
D) It completes oxygen reduction
E) It completes the electron transport chain
A

A) It completes glycolysis

45
Q

Which of the following stages/processes releases carbon dioxide?

A) Lactic Acid fermentation
B) The electron transport chain
C) Alcoholic fermentation
D) Oxygen reduction
E) Glycolysis
A

C) Alcoholic fermentation

46
Q

Which of the following correctly represents the electron carriers that become reduced during the citric acid cycle?

A) 2 FAD and 3 NAD+
B) 4 FADH and 6 NADH + H+
C) 2 FADH and 6 NADH H+
D) 2 FAD and 6 NAD+
E) 10 NADH + H+
A

D) 2 FAD and 6 NAD+

47
Q

How many molecules of ATP are produced from one molecule of glucose?

A) Three
B) Four
C) Two
D) None
E) One
A

C) Two

48
Q

What is the product from the intermediate step between glycolysis and the citric acid cycle?

A) Acetyl coenzyme A
B) NADH + H+
C) Pyruvate
D) Oxaloacetic acid
E) Pyruvate oxidation
A

A) Acetyl coenzyme A

49
Q

What product from the Krebs cycle is waste for your body?

A) ATP
B) carbon dioxide
C) NADH + H+
D) NAD+
E) FADH
A

B) carbon dioxide

50
Q

Where does the Krebs cycle occur?

A) mitochondrial outer membrane
B) mitochondrial matrix
C) cytoplasm
D) nucleus
E) blood stream
A

B) mitochondrial matrix

51
Q

Which step of cellular respiration provides the greatest number of ATP molecules?

A) All steps contribute equal numbers of ATP molecules
B) The Electron Transport Chain
C) Pyruvate Oxidation
D) The Citric Acid Cycle
E) Glycolysis
A

B) The Electron Transport Chain

52
Q

How is oxygen used in cellular respiration?

A) It is an electron carrier.
B) It drives ATP synthesis.
C) It accepts electrons and protons to form water.
D) It reduces NADH + H+ and FADH2.
E) It becomes oxidized.
A

C) It accepts electrons and protons to form water.

53
Q

Which of the following is NOT produced during the electron transport chain?

A) FAD
B) carbon dioxide
C) ATP
D) NAD+
E) water
A

B) carbon dioxide

54
Q

How are the membrane protein complexes of the electron transport chain arranged?

A) By ability to pump protons across the inner mitochondrial membrane
B) In an ascending order of free energy
C) From smallest to largest
D) From largest to smallest
E) In a descending order of free energy
A

E) In a descending order of free energy

55
Q

Which of the following steps of the electron transport chain directly drives ADP phosphorylation?

A) The oxidation of FADH2.
B) The formation of water molecules.
C) The oxidation of NADH + H+.
D) Proton flow through ATP synthase along a concentration gradient.
E) Proton pumped against the concentration gradient.

A

D) Proton flow through ATP synthase along a concentration gradient.

56
Q

A condition whereupon a person’s body is unable to form concentrated urine due to an absence or lack of a response to ADH is called:

A) Diabetes insipidus
B) Diabetes nephrogenicus
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
E) Gestational diabetes
A

A) Diabetes insipidus

57
Q

Cells that monitor the osmolality of blood are known as:

A) Stretch receptors
B) Proprioceptors
C) Osmoreceptors
D) Mechanoreceptors
E) Chemoreceptors
A

C) Osmoreceptors

58
Q

The most important hormone involved in the determination of how dilute or concentrated your urine will be is:

A) ADA
B) Renin
C) T4
D) EPO
E) ADH
A

E) ADH

59
Q

The countercurrent exchange system allows for the:

A) None of the answers are correct
B) Concentration of blood
C) Dilution of urine
D) Concentration of urine
E) Dilution of blood
A

D) Concentration of urine

60
Q

The following is NOT involved in the countercurrent exchange system:

A) All of the answers are involved
B) Vasa recta
C) Water and solutes
D) Renal medullary interstitium
E) Loop of Henle
A

A) All of the answers are involved

61
Q

How do mineralocorticoids regulate sodium levels?

A) By telling the kidneys to reabsorb water
B) By telling the anterior pituitary gland to secrete more ACTH
C) By telling the hypothalamus to secrete regulating hormones
D) By telling the kidneys to release sodium through the urine
E) By telling the kidneys to reabsorb sodium

A

E) By telling the kidneys to reabsorb sodium

62
Q

Which of the following is NOT regulated by mineralocorticoids?

A) Sodium levels
B) Water balance
C) Salt balance
D) Potassium levels
E) Glucose levels
A

E) Glucose levels

63
Q

How is the renin–angiotensin system best described?

A) A system for decreasing blood sodium levels
B) A hormonal cascade that eventually leads to aldosterone release
C) A hormonal cascade that eventually leads to a lowering of blood pressure
D) A positive feedback loop that helps decrease blood volume
E) A system for controlling potassium reabsorption by the kidneys

A

B) A hormonal cascade that eventually leads to aldosterone release

64
Q

If blood pressure drops, which of the following will result?

A) Aldosterone will be secreted
B) Sodium will be excreted in the urine
C) Aldosterone will be inhibited
D) Potassium will be reabsorbed by the kidneys
E) Aldosterone will be reabsorbed
A

A) Aldosterone will be secreted

65
Q

What happens if blood sodium levels drop?

A) The renin–angiotensin system will be activated
B) Aldosterone will be secreted
C) None of the answers are correct
D) Mineralocorticoids will be inhibited
E) Potassium levels will rise
A

B) Aldosterone will be secreted

66
Q

In response to high level of acidity in the blood (acidemia), your kidneys can:

A) Conserve hydrogen ions
B) None of the answers are correct
C) Excrete more bicarbonate ions
D) Excrete more hydrogen ions
E) Conserve more acid
A

D) Excrete more hydrogen ions

67
Q

In prolonged cases of respiratory alkalosis, the kidneys will:

A) Conserve bicarbonate
B) Secrete complex urine
C) Excrete acid
D) Secret acidic urine
E) Secrete basic urine
A

E) Secrete basic urine

68
Q

The kidneys secrete hydrogen ions primarily in the:

A) The distal tubule
B) The glomerulus
C) The proximal tubule
D) The loop of Henle
E) The collecting duct
A

C) The proximal tubule

69
Q

Under normal conditions, the final say as to whether or not your urine becomes acidic or alkaline is due to:

A) The glomerulus
B) The loop of Henle
C) The collecting duct
D) The proximal tubule
E) The distal tubule
A

C) The collecting duct

70
Q

Your body rids itself of hydrogen ions thanks to:

A) The brain
B) The kidneys
C) The heart
D) The liver
E) The colon
A

B) The kidneys

71
Q

A person with diabetic ketoacidosis will most likely have:

A) Metabolic acidosis
B) Respiratory acidosis
C) Metabolic alkalosis
D) Respiratory alkalosis
E) A low pH, high bicarbonate, and a high CO2
A

A) Metabolic acidosis

72
Q

A patient with obstructive lung disease and shortness of breath comes into your clinic. You would most likely expect:

A) Metabolic acidosis
B) A low pH, low CO2, and low bicarbonate
C) Respiratory acidosis
D) Metabolic alkalosis
E) A high pH, high CO2, high bicarbonate
A

C) Respiratory acidosis

73
Q

A high pH, low CO2, and low bicarbonate are indicative of:

A) The kidneys compensating for respiratory alkalosis by getting rid of bicarbonate in the face of low levels of carbon dioxide.
B) The kidneys compensating for respiratory acidosis by getting rid of bicarbonate in the face of low levels of carbon dioxide.
C) The lungs compensating for respiratory alkalosis by getting rid of bicarbonate in the face of low levels of carbon dioxide.
D) The lungs compensating for respiratory acidosis by getting rid of bicarbonate in the face of low levels of carbon dioxide.
E) The kidneys compensating for respiratory alkalosis by getting rid of CO2 in the face of low levels of bicarbonate.

A

A) The kidneys compensating for respiratory alkalosis by getting rid of bicarbonate in the face of low levels of carbon dioxide.

74
Q

Vomiting is more likely to cause ___ but diarrhea is more likely to cause ___.

A) Respiratory alkalosis, respiratory acidosis
B) Metabolic alkalosis, metabolic acidosis
C) Respiratory acidosis, respiratory alkalosis
D) Metabolic acidosis, metabolic alkalosis
E) Metabolic alkalosis, respiratory alkalosis

A

B) Metabolic alkalosis, metabolic acidosis

75
Q

If a person hyperventilates like crazy but then is unable to breathe very well due to respiratory muscle fatigue, then you would expect:

A) Metabolic acidosis first, followed by respiratory alkalosis
B) Metabolic alkalosis first, followed by metabolic acidosis
C) Respiratory alkalosis first, followed by respiratory acidosis
D) Respiratory alkalosis first, followed by metabolic acidosis
E) Respiratory acidosis first, followed by respiratory alkalosis

A

C) Respiratory alkalosis first, followed by respiratory acidosis

76
Q

Without looking at any normal range values for any of the answers, answer this question. If a person is hyperventilating, you would most expect which of the following?

A) pH 7.2, PaO2 99, PaCO2 30, HCO3– 49
B) pH 7.50, PaO2 99, PaCO2 60, HCO3– 30
C) pH 7.3, PaO2 90, PaCO2 65, HCO3– 21
D) pH 7.52, PaO2 93, PaCO2 30, HCO3– 30
E) pH 7.49, PaO2 99, PaCO2 30, HCO3– 21
A

E) pH 7.49, PaO2 99, PaCO2 30, HCO3– 21

77
Q

A low pH, low CO2, and low bicarbonate should clue you into:

A) None of the answers are correct
B) Metabolic acidosis
C) Respiratory alkalosis
D) Respiratory acidosis
E) Metabolic alkalosis
A

B) Metabolic acidosis

CNS Study Final (29 decks)

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