Nutritional Assessment Flashcards
This is additional information that is collected to understand the full picture of the chief complaint.
A) Culture B) Radiological Exam C) System Review D) Urinalysis E) History of Present Illness
E) History of Present Illness
Assessing the eyes, ears, nose and throat is part of this information gathering tool.
A) Exit Interview B) Review of Systems C) Patient Interview D) Patient Consultation E) History of Chief Complaint
B) Review of Systems
This is a current health concern that acts as the reason for the health care visit.
A) Focal Point B) Iatrogenic Complaint C) Chief Complaint D) Primary Diagnosis E) Clinical Sign
C) Chief Complaint
This is an effective way to elicit a health history that involves a focused conversation between the patient and the health care provider.
A) Systems Review B) All of the answers are correct C) Patient Interview D) HPI E) ROS
C) Patient Interview
Which of the following pieces of information should be gathered during a thorough health history?
A) Family medical history
B) Information about the patient’s stress level
C) All of this information should be gathered when performing a thorough health history
D) Information about current medications
E) Information about past hospitalizations
C) All of this information should be gathered when performing a thorough health history
This method of assessing nutrient intake involves a person using a checklist to report their consumption of particular types of foods?
A) Food Frequency Questionnaire B) Journaling C) Food Intake Assessment D) Food Log E) Food Week Recall
A) Food Frequency Questionnaire
An advantage of this dietary assessment tool is that it can uncover inadequate intake of a nutrient. A disadvantage is that it lacks detail.
A) 24–Hour Recall B) CBC C) Food Diary D) FFQ E) Comprehensive Health History
D) FFQ
An advantage of this dietary assessment tool is that it can be computerized to provide objective and in–depth analysis. A disadvantage is that patient’s might underreport poor food choices.
A) FFA B) Food Intake Questionnaire C) Food Diary D) 24–Hour Recall E) Food Blogging
C) Food Diary
This is a sudden and potentially life–threatening allergic reaction.
A) Achalasia B) Anaphylaxis C) Aneurysm D) Alzheimer's E) Abscess
B) Anaphylaxis
With only the following information in mind, what would you suspect most if you saw this on your CBC:
– Eosinophilia
A) Corticosteroid abuse B) A bacterial infection C) A viral infection D) A fungal infection E) Parasites or allergens
E) Parasites or allergens
With only the following information in mind, what would you suspect most if you saw this on your CBC:
– Neutrophilia
A) Radiation sickness B) A viral infection C) A bacterial infection D) A fungal infection E) A parasitic infection
C) A bacterial infection
A man presents to your clinic with neutrophilia with a left shift, this means:
A) He almost certainly has AIDS
B) He is immunosuppressed
C) His immune system is producing an active response to infection or inflammation
D) He is likely ravaged with intestinal parasites such as a hookworm
E) He will not make it for more than 1 or 2 days, even with medical intervention
C) His immune system is producing an active response to infection or inflammation
With only the following information in mind, what would you suspect most if you saw this on your CBC:
– Lymphocytosis
A) A viral infection or long standing inflammatory problem
B) None of the answers are correct
C) An acute bacterial infection
D) A viral infection or acute inflammatory problem
E) Parasites or bacteria
A) A viral infection or long standing inflammatory problem
Leukocytosis is most likely to occur as a result of?
A) Neutropenia B) Basophilia C) Eosinophilia D) Lymphocytosis E) Neutrophilia
E) Neutrophilia
A Hemoglobin A1C Blood Test shows the average blood sugar level over this time period.
A) The last year B) The last three days C) The previous night D) The last three years E) The last few months
E) The last few months
This A1C level indicates a person does not have prediabetes or diabetes.
A) 6.2% B) 4.5% C) 6.5% D) 6.0% E) 8.0%
B) 4.5%
This A1C level indicates a person has diabetes.
A) 4.9% B) 5.2% C) 6.2% D) 5.7% E) 7.1%
E) 7.1%
This term is used to describe the bonding of a protein and sugar molecule.
A) Molecular Linking B) Glycation C) Glutamizing D) Sugarization E) Glutation
B) Glycation
Hemoglobin A1C can be thought of as this.
A) As an antigen on a red blood cell B) As blood sugar C) As a hormone that controls blood sugar D) As glycated hemoglobin E) As glucose
D) As glycated hemoglobin
A TSH Test can help evaluate if these two thyroid gland hormones are being produced in sufficient amounts.
A) Thyroid Releasing Hormone and Thyrolene
B) T3 and T4
C) T2 and Thyroxine
D) The thyroid gland does not produce hormones
E) T3 and TRH
B) T3 and T4
If you are experiencing weight gain, fatigue and constipation, your doctor might order a TSH test to confirm this diagnosis.
A) Graves Disease B) Hypothyroidism C) Toxic Nodular Goiter D) Hyperthyroidism E) Colon Cancer
B) Hypothyroidism
Which of the following is a reason a TSH test would be ordered?
A) To confirm a diagnosis of hyperthyroidism
B) To help diagnose infertility problems
C) To check for an underactive thyroid in a newborn
D) To evaluate the thyroid function in a person with a known thyroid condition
E) All of the answers are reasons to order a TSH test
E) All of the answers are reasons to order a TSH test
A higher than normal result from a TSH test may be caused by this condition.
A) Pancreatitis B) Hypothyroidism C) COPD D) Fibromyalgia E) Hyperthyroidism
B) Hypothyroidism
Together, Triiodothyronine and Thyroxine help control this function in the body.
A) Immune function B) The body's metabolic rate C) The circulation of blood D) Sleep cycles E) The digestion of carbohydrates
B) The body’s metabolic rate
Which of the following is NOT a true statement about a family health history?
A) It can lead to early detection and treatment of disease.
B) It is a record of health information about your close relatives.
C) It can help you make healthier lifestyle choices to lower your risk of disease.
D) It is always recorded by a health care provider because it is a quick procedure that is fully reimbursed by insurance.
E) It can help you predict diseases that you are at risk of developing.
D) It is always recorded by a health care provider because it is a quick procedure that is fully reimbursed by insurance.
Why might a family health history be unknown?
A) A patient could have lost their parent’s at a young age.
B) A patient might be estranged from his or her family.
C) A patient’s family might be reluctant to discuss health issues.
D) A patient might have been adopted.
E) All of the answers are reasons that a family history might be unknown.
E) All of the answers are reasons that a family history might be unknown.
Which of the following is a benefit of obtaining a family health history?
A) It can determine your personality traits, such as introversion or extroversion.
B) It can help you determine your immunity to communicable diseases, such as whooping cough.
C) It can help uncover your genetic susceptibility to a disease.
D) All of the answers are correct.
E) It can be used to reveal the country in which your ancestors lived.
C) It can help uncover your genetic susceptibility to a disease.
Which of the following describes a group of related genes in a prokaryote’s DNA?
A) operator B) operon C) repressor D) nucleus E) inducer
B) operon
Which of the following describes an increase in gene expression?
A) regulation B) translation C) induction D) transcription E) repression
C) induction
The lac operon codes for the enzyme that help digest the sugar…
A) dextrose B) lactose C) fructose D) sucrose E) glucose
B) lactose
Which organism was studied extensively in the discovery of gene regulation?
A) T. rex B) E. cuniculi C) H. sapiens D) S. aureus E) E. coli
E) E. coli
Which type of cell does NOT contain a nucleus?
A) plant cell B) intestinal cell C) prokaryotic cell D) animal cell E) eukaryotic cell
C) prokaryotic cell
This is a discipline within nutritional genomics that studies the effects of foods on gene expression.
A) Nutrigenomics B) Personalized Nutrition C) Genetic Counseling D) Nutrigenetics E) Food Journaling
A) Nutrigenomics
Which of the following is true of nutrigenetics?
A) None of the answers are correct
B) It is a set of dietary recommendations based on an individual’s genome
C) It looks at how your diet affects your genes
D) It studies how a person’s genetic makeup affects the way they respond to certain foods
E) It studies the effects of foods on gene expression
D) It studies how a person’s genetic makeup affects the way they respond to certain foods
Lactose intolerance is a condition in which a person can’t drink milk because of a problem with a gene. Therefore, it is an example of which discipline of nutritional genomics?
A) Nutrigenomics B) Nutrigenetics C) Inherited Genomics D) Malnutrition E) Nutritional Malabsorption
B) Nutrigenetics
Resveratrol can stimulate genes to protect against free radical damage. This is an example of which of the following disciplines of nutritional genomics.
A) Nutrisystem B) Nutriregimen C) Nutrigenetics D) Nutrigenomics E) Antioxidation
D) Nutrigenomics
This term is used to describe dietary recommendations based on an individual’s genome.
A) Personalized Nutrition B) Private Nutrition C) Designer Nutrition D) Pinnacle Nutrition E) Optimal Nutrition
A) Personalized Nutrition
A person with PKU is missing this enzyme.
A) Pepsin B) Alpha–glactosidase C) Phenylalanine hydroxylase D) Pectinase E) Peptidase
C) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
A person with Phenylketonuria would want to avoid diet soda because it might contain this ingredient.
A) Carbohydrates B) Aspartame C) Protein D) Artificial dyes E) Calories
B) Aspartame
Which of the following is a possible symptom in an infant born with MSUD?
A) Coma B) All of the answers are possible symptoms in an infant with MSUD C) Loss of appetite D) Fussiness E) Seizures
B) All of the answers are possible symptoms in an infant with MSUD
A person with Maple Syrup Urine Disease cannot break down these branched–chain amino acids.
A) Leucine, isoleucine and tyrosine B) Alanine and arginine C) Phenylalanine and tyrosine D) Lysine, leucine and isoleucine E) Leucine, isoleucine and valine
E) Leucine, isoleucine and valine
Which of these statements is true?
A) People with abdominal obesity are not prone to heart disease
B) Hydrostatic weighing uses a column of air to determine a person’s body fat percentage
C) Calipers, in the skinfold measurement test, are used to determine a person’s height
D) People with a pear shaped body due to fat accumulation have to worry about obesity related problems just as much as those with abdominal obesity (apple shaped individuals).
E) BMI is a test that uses a small electrical current to estimate a person’s weight
D) People with a pear shaped body due to fat accumulation have to worry about obesity related problems just as much as those with abdominal obesity (apple shaped individuals).
Men that have a body fat percentage greater than are considered to be obese.
A) 30 B) 20 C) 15 D) 10 E) 5
A) 30
A precise way to measure body fat percentage using underwater weighing is more formally called:
A) Waist to hip ratio B) BMI C) Hydrostatic weighing D) Skinfold measurements using a caliper E) Bioelectrical impedance analysis
C) Hydrostatic weighing
This is a measurement that is calculated from a person’s height and weight in order to come up with a fairly reliable estimate of body fatness (hint: it’s calculated by taking your weight in kilograms and dividing that by the square of your height in meters):
A) Bioelectrical impedance analysis B) Waist to hip ratio C) BMI D) Hydrostatic weighing E) Skinfold measurements using a caliper
C) BMI
This is a technique used to estimate body fat percentage using a small electrical current:
A) BMI B) Waist to hip ratio C) Skinfold measurements using a caliper D) Hydrostatic weighing E) Bioelectrical impedance analysis
E) Bioelectrical impedance analysis
This is the scientific study of human body measurements.
A) Anthropology B) Anthropometry C) Anthrax D) Anthrology E) Depth Perception
B) Anthropometry
A simple tape measure is enough to determine this anthropometric measurement.
A) Bioelectrical Impedance B) Waist–to–Hip Ratio C) Skin Fold Test D) CT Scan E) BMI
B) Waist–to–Hip Ratio
This is the measurement of a person’s weight–to–height ratio.
A) MRI B) DXA C) BEI D) WHR E) BMI
E) BMI
Which of the following could benefit from anthropometric measurements?
A) Athletes B) Researchers C) Coaches D) Health Care Professionals E) All of the answers are correct
E) All of the answers are correct
A man with a high Waist–to–Hip Ratio (.97) would have which of the following?
A) A higher risk of heart disease B) An acceptable amount of belly fat C) None of the answers are correct D) A normal WHR E) A lower risk of heart disease
A) A higher risk of heart disease
Having too much body fat increases your risk of which of the following condition?
A) Gallstones B) All of the answers are correct C) Type 2 Diabetes D) Arthritis E) Heart Disease
B) All of the answers are correct
This describes adipose tissue deposited around the organs of the abdomen.
A) Visceral Fat B) Integumentary Fat C) Subcutaneous Fat D) Intrapelvic Fat E) Subthoracic Fat
A) Visceral Fat
Which of the following best describes body composition?
A) The amount of abdominal fat compared to lower body fat
B) The relative proportions of body fat and lean tissue
C) The change in body size and shape relative to your age
D) A measure of your weight in relation to your height
E) A measure of the amount of fat surrounding your vital organs
B) The relative proportions of body fat and lean tissue
A term for different types of reference values that help to plan the nutrient intake of healthy people is known as:
A) Dietary reference intakes B) None of the answers are correct C) Daily values D) FDA E) USDA F)
A) Dietary reference intakes
The reference value that’s used to set the maximum suggested daily intake of a nutrient is:
A) Estimate average requirement B) Adequate intake C) Tolerable upper intake level D) Daily value E) Recommended dietary allowance
C) Tolerable upper intake level
If an RDA is unavailable, then _ is used:
A) Estimate average requirement B) Tolerable upper intake level C) Recommended dietary allowance D) Daily value E) Adequate intake
E) Adequate intake
Simplified versions of RDAs used on food labels are known as:
A) Reference limits B) Estimated daily averages C) Upper limits D) Daily values E) Dietary reference intakes
D) Daily values
RDAs reference nutritional needs for % of healthy people:
A) 97%–98% B) 57%–58% C) 27%–28% D) 25% E) 50%
A) 97%–98%
