Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

PNCE > Practice Test > Flashcards

Practice Test Flashcards

1
Q

macular degeneration hallmark

A

drusen bodies
central vision loss
affects detail and color vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Charcot joint

A

destructive neuropathic joint arthropathy, assoc w/ DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

fleck fracture

A

fx at base of 2nd metatarsal
highly suspicious for lisfranc injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

PKD patients are at risk for

A

MVP, diverticulosis, berry aneurisms (subarachnoid hemorrhage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

stills murmur

A

mid systolic, musical, vibratory, noisy, high pitched murmur on inferior aspect of LLSB and apex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

venous hum

A

grade 1 or 2 harsh systolic ejection murmur on LUSB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

graham steell murmur

A

high pitched early diastolic murmur left sternal edge 2nd ICS w/ patient in full inspiration
assoc w/ pulmonary HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

phenelzine can cause hypertensive crisis by combo with

A

tyramine containing foods (aged cheese and wines)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

pill rolling tremor
shuffling gait with lack of arm movements
fixed facial expression
seborrhea of the skin

A

parkinson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Parkinson tx

A

levidopa/ carbidopa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

first line tx idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

A

CCB: reduces pulmonary arterial pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Menkel diverticulum from what embryonic structure

A

vitelline duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

isotrentinoin AE

A

teratogenic, psych AE, hepatitis, inc triglycerides, hypercholesterolemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

increased estrogen
increased LH, increased FSH

A

FH/LSH secreting pituitary adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

decreased estrogen, decreased LH, decreased FSH

A

hypothalamic or pituitary failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

mixing study results in no correlation of increased PTT

A

clotting factor inhibitor (antiphospholipid syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

meds that can be used in severe hypercalcemia

A

furosemide
IV NS
calcitonin, bisphosphonates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

legg calve perthes classic presentation

A

loss of abduction and internal rotation of leg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

MC therapeutic agents that can be used intrapleurally for pleurodesis in recurrent malignant pleural effusions

A

bleomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

diverticulitis MC site

A

sigmoid colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

anthrax causative agent

A

bacillus anthracis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Q fever causative agent

A

coxiella burnetii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

chancroid causative agent

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

conn’s syndrome tx

A

spironolactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

protocol for chemical exposure in eye

A

irrigation -> check pH -> visual acuity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

med that can decrease psychotic episodes in patients w/ resistance to 1st line meds

A

clozapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

blurring of optic disk w/ optic disk swelling + neurologic sx diagnosis

A

head CT to r/o cranial tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

sarcoidosis tx

A

oral prednisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

dubin johnson syndrome labs

A

isolated direct (conjugated) bilirubinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

isolated increased indirect bilirubin

A

gilbert syndrome
criggler najjar syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

poison ivy presentation

A

erythematous pruritic rash arranged in linear or streak like configurations (where plant made contact w/ skin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

tx urge incontinence

A

oxybutinin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

tx stress incontinence

A

pseudoephedrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

dawn phenomenon

A

decreased insulin sensitivity from nightly surge in glucagon and cortisol during nighttime fasting (normal glu evening then increased during late night or early morning, elevated when awake)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

somogyi effect

A

nocturnal hypoglycemia then rebound early morning hyperglycemia. normal evening glucose then early morning hypoglycemia then hyperglycemia when waking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

pronator syndrome

A

median nerve compression at level of proximal forearm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

best treatment modality for patient w/ neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

bromocriptine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

tx trigemical myalgia

A

carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

atrial flutter tx

A

CCB (verapamil)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

mycobacterium avium complex tx

A

clarithromycin + ethambutol or rifampin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Test for lithium induced nephrogenic DI vs central DI

A

Arginine vasopressin challenge test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

high dose dexamethasone suppression test

A

Cushing’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

fluid challenge test

A

suspected prerenal azotemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

PCA occlusion

A

visual hallucinations, ipsilateral cranial nerve deficits, comas, drop attacks
contralateral muscle weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

acute anterolateral infarction PE

A

4th heart sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

empiric management bacterial meningitis

A

IV ceftiaxone + IV vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Bowen’s disease

A

SCC in situ: epidermal and dermal cells w/ large pleomorphic hyper chromatic nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

refractory ITP tx

A

splenectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

patho of positive sx in schizophrenia

A

excess dopamine receptors in mesolimbic pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

patho of negative sx of schizophrenia

A

dopamine dysfunction in mesocortical pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

parkinson pathology

A

idiopathic dopamine depletion in substantial nigra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, noncaseating granuloma

A

sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

swollen painful LN in groin, axilla, and cervical w/ multiple flea bites. safety pin appearance

A

yersinia pestis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

which cell isn’t affected by polycythemia vera

A

lymphocyte line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

med that can cause hypokalemia

A

furosemide (loop diuretic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

most important RF for cervical carcinoma

A

HPV infx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

1st line sickle cell crisis

A

IVF and oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

adrenocortical insufficiency ABG

A

metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

MMR vaccine CI

A

hx of HIV and CD4 of 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

PCP pneumonia presentation

A

immunocomp (CD4<200), F, dyspnea, O2 desat, extremely high LDH, bilateral diffuse interstitial infiltrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

PCP pneumonia tx

A

bactrim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

hypermagnesemia presentation

A

decreased DTR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Panama, F, cough, anorexia, light red spotted maculopapular rash w/ photosensitivity and joint pain

A

rubella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

COPD which pneumonia etiology

A

H. flu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

abnormal gait, weakness leg > arm, abulia, urinary incontinence, which artery occluded

A

anterior cerebral artery occlusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

neuroleptic malignant syndrome sx

A

1-2wks after initiating or increasing dose of DA antagonist (1st gen antipsychotics)
autonomic instability, incontinence, hyper salivation, hyperthermia, lead pipe rigidity, hyporeflexia, possible rhabdo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

serotonin syndrome sx

A

autonomic instability, tremors, hyperthermia
mydriasis, diarrhea, abdominal cramps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

erythema marginatum

A

rheumatic fever: macular, erythematous nonpruritic enlarging annular rash w/ rounded sharp demarcated edges, no central clearing, blanches w/ pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

erythema migrans

A

lyme, target appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

erythema nodosum

A

painful erythematous inflammatory nodules on anterior shins. increased estrogen exposure (pregnancy), sarcoidosis, TB, fungal infx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

erythema multiforme

A

type IV hypersensitivity reaction. dusty violet red purpuric macules w/ vesicles or bull in center (target appearance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

erythema infectiosum

A

5th disease, slapped cheek appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

cryptococcus meningitis test

A

india ink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

MC cancer for smokers

A

adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

huntington disease sx

A

behavioral changes, chorea, dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

parkinsons sx

A

resting tremor. bradykinesia, rigidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

thoracid outlet syndrome test

A

adson test: loss of radial pulse when head is turned to the affected side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

pheochromocytoma test

A

24h urine vanillylmandelic acid levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

aseptic (viral) meningitis CSF

A

increased WBC count, normal glu, lymphocytosis
etiology: enterovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

causative agent hairy leukoplakia

A

EBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Medication used for Parkinson pill rolling tremor in young patients

A

benztropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

auspitz sign

A

psoriasis: punctate bleeding spots when the plaques of psoriasis are unroofed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

guttate psoriasis classic description

A

small erythematous discrete papules w/ fine scales

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

class 2 anti arrhythmic that blocks alpha 1, beta 1, and beta 2

A

carvedilol
labetalol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

cardioselective BB that affect beta 1 receptor only

A

atenolol
metoprolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

nonselective BB that block beta 1 and beta 2

A

propranolol
nadolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

first line tx osteomyelitis w/ beta lactamase positivity

A

IV nafcillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

first line tx TTP

A

plasmapheresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

TOC tumor lysis syndrome from chemotherapy

A

allopurinol + IVF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

ALS sx

A

difficulty swallowing, abn speech w/ hoarseness, progressive weakness. atrophic tongue w/ fasciculations, increased DTR, babinski sign w/ muscle atrophy on head neck and torso (mixed UMN/LMN sx)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

mittelschmertz

A

ovulation pain: low abd or pelvic pain during ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

IT band syndrome sx

A

lateral knee pain and tenderness
runners MC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

chondromalacia sx

A

anterior knee pain behind or around patella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

hematuria test <40yo

A

UA and culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

hematuria test >40yo

A

cystoscopy
IV pyelogram
urine cytology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

RF bladder cancer

A

white male, cyclophosphamide, pioglitazone, dye exposure, rubber and leather, schistosomiasis infx, chronic bladder infx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

close PDA

A

indomethacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

keep PDA open

A

prostaglandins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

aortic stenosis sx

A

pulses parvus et tarsus (weak and delayed pulse)
fixed cardiac output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

aortic regurgitation sx

A

bounding pulses
wide pulse pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

pyloric stenosis test

A

US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

PTSD first line

A

paroxetine (SSRI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

first line tx for long term schizophrenia

A

olanzapine (2nd gen antipsychotic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Parkinson patho

A

idiopathic depletion of dopamine in basal ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

EKG severe chronic bronchitis

A

negative QRS in lead 1, positive QRS lead AVF (RAD from hypoxemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

longstanding systemic HTN or aortic stenosis EKG

A

depth in S wave V1 + height of R wave V6 >35mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

lansoprazole AE

A

macrocytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

tx hepatitis C

A

pegylated alpha interferon + ribavirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

toxoplasmosis presentation

A

hx HIV, F, body aches, HA. ring enhancing lesion on CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

toxoplasmosis RF

A

cat exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

patho psoriasis

A

keratin hyperplasia in stratum basale and spinous due to T cell activation

112
Q

type 2 hypersensitivity in basement membrane

A

bulbous pemphigoid

113
Q

autoimmune disruption of desmosome later

A

bulbous pemphigoid

114
Q

MC benign ovarian neoplasm

A

dermoid cystic teratomas

115
Q

endometrial hyperplasia tx

A

progesterone only if want to preserve possibility of fertility
hysterectomy if do not want to preserve fertility

116
Q

chancroid etiology

A

H. ducreyi

117
Q

thrombocytopenia classic presentation

118
Q

MC clinical presentation in sickle cell

A

episodic hematuria

119
Q

dequervain (subacute) thyroiditis lab

A

positive ESR

120
Q

smooth muscle antibodies

A

autoimmune hepatitis
cirrhosis

121
Q

PANCA

A

UC, microscopic polyangiitis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, churg-strauss

122
Q

anti mitochondrial antibodies

A

primary biliary cirrhosis

123
Q

endomysial antibodies

A

celiac disease

124
Q

streptomycin AE

A

ototoxic
nephrotoxic

125
Q

myersons sign

A

parkinsons
tap bridge of nose causes sustained blink

126
Q

lhermittes sign

A

MS, inc DTR

127
Q

positive ice pack test

A

myasthenia gravis

128
Q

myasthenia gravis sx

A

diplopia, ptosis, generalized weakness (including respiratory), bulbar weakness (slurred speech, dysphasia)

129
Q

best med for lowering isolated triglycerides

130
Q

MC presentation sickle cell

A

dactylitis

131
Q

rash associated w/ celiac

A

dermatitis herpetiformis

132
Q

kawasaki tx

A

aspirin + IVIG

133
Q

MC echo and blood culture findings in endocarditis (no IVDU)

A

streptococcus viridian’s
mitral valve

134
Q

MC echo and blood culture findings in endocarditis w/ IVDU

A

S. aureus
tricuspid valve

135
Q

med that can cause hypothyroidism

A

amiodarone

136
Q

chlamydia pneumophilia sx

A

atypical sx
sinusitis

137
Q

mycoplasma pneumoniae sx

A

bulbous myringitis
pharyngitis

138
Q

klebsiella pneumoniae sx

A

alcoholics and debilitated patients
cavitary lesions
currant jelly sputum

139
Q

lacunar infart sx

A

Hx HTN and DM. dysarthria, clumsy hand syndrome. punched out hypotenuse lesions near basal ganglia

140
Q

MC intrinsic kidney injury in hospitalized patients

A

ATN: oliguria, inc BUN/Cr

141
Q

epithelial cell or muddy brown casts

142
Q

ATN MCC

A

prolonged prerenal azotemia
contrast dye
ahminoglycosides (gentamicin)

143
Q

sunburst
hair on end appearance

A

osteosarcoma

144
Q

glyburide MOA

A

sulfonylureas: stimulates pancreatic beta cell insulin release in non-glucose dependent fashion

145
Q

MOA metformin

A

decreases hepatic glucose production with no effect on pancreatic beta cells (biguanides)

146
Q

acarbose and miglitol MOA

A

delays intestinal absorption of glucose (alpha glucosidase inhibitors)

147
Q

pioglitazone and rosiglitazone MOA

A

increases insulin sensitivity at peripheral receptor sites of adipose and muscle tissues (thiazolidinedione)

148
Q

liraglutide and eventide MOA

A

lowers glucose by mimicking incretin (glucagon like peptide 1 agonst

149
Q

CI use of MTX in ectopic pregnancy

A

serum hCG >5000
ruptured ectopic pregnancy
hx TB
presence of fetal heart activity

150
Q

DOC narrow complex SVT

151
Q

MC etiology from deli meats and unpasteurized cheeses that is gram positive bacilli

A

listeria monocytogenes

152
Q

listeria tx

A

IV ampicillin

153
Q

anthrax sx

A

painless black eschar
widened mediastinum

154
Q

Ludwig angina sx

A

swelling and erythema to upper neck and chin. pus on floor of mouth

155
Q

Vincents angina

A

trench mouth: profuse gingival bleeding, severe gingival pain, interdental papilla w/ ulcerative necrosis

156
Q

zofran MOA

A

serotonin antagonist

157
Q

serotonin syndrome sx

A

tachycardia, BP fluctuations, hyperthermia, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, dilated pupils, agitation, hyperactive GI tract

158
Q

serotonin syndrome tx

A

cyproheptadine
benzo (for hyperthermia)

159
Q

MS CSF

A

increased oligoclonal bands

160
Q

GBS CSF

A

high protein w/ increased WBC (polymorphonuclear neutrophils) w/ dec glucose

161
Q

vibrio cholera sx

A

diarrhea, grey w/ no odor, pus, or blood. ingesting shellfish

162
Q

salmonella sx

A

invasive diarrhea, bloody, pea soup colored

163
Q

Zollinger Ellison syndrome test

A

gastrin secretin in gastronomes not inhibited by secretin

164
Q

management of choice localized renal cell carcinoma

A

radial nephrectomy

165
Q

L4 disc herniation sx

A

pain and paresthesia along anterior leg, weakness w/ ankle dorsiflexion, loss knee jerk reflex

166
Q

S1 disc herniation sx

A

pain and paresthesia posterior calf and plantar surface of foot w/ weakness when plantar flexion, loss ankle jerk reflex, walking on toes harder than on heels

167
Q

TOC mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

fluid filled blisters on TM
macrolide or doxy
if child <8yo, azithromycin

168
Q

patients w/ coarctation of aorta usually has

A

bicuspid aortic valve

169
Q

cyclophosphamide AE

A

hemorrhagic cystitis
increase risk of bladder cancer

170
Q

cimetidine AE

A

CP450 inhibition, gynecomastia, impotence

171
Q

septic arthritis tx for gram negative diplococcus

A

gonorrhea: IV ceftriaxone

172
Q

PE classic presentation tests

A

westermarks sign
hamptons hump

173
Q

mainstay tx long term for chronic asthma

A

inhaled fluticasone

174
Q

screening test for SLE

A

ANA (not specific)

175
Q

anti histone ab

A

drug induced lupus

176
Q

medications that increase incidence of myasthenia gravis

A

gentamicin
BB, FQ, aminoglycosides

177
Q

tx nosocomial pneumonia (HAP)

A

piperacillin/ tazobactam + gentamicin

178
Q

+ ASO titers

A

post streptococcus glomerulonephritis

179
Q

diphtheria tx

A

diphtheria antitoxin + penicillin

180
Q

Tx pleural effusion

A

thoracentesis

181
Q

meds that increase prolactin levels

A

1st gen antipsychotics (haloperidol)

182
Q

organophosphate poisoning tx

A

atropine + pralidoxime

183
Q

organophosphate poisoning sx

A

HA, muscle spasm, tremors, convulsions, visual changes, chest tightness. diffuse wheezing, sweating, lacrimation

184
Q

echo from restrictive cardiomyopathy

A

diastolic dysfunction w/ dilation of both atria

185
Q

HIV med associated w/ vivid dreams and neurologic disturbances

186
Q

tx infectious mastitis

A

warm compress, dicloxacillin
continue to breastfeed

187
Q

MCC myocarditis

A

viral (enteroviruses)

188
Q

neurogenic shock hallmark

A

hypotension w/ bradycardia, decreased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure

189
Q

brown recluse spider bite presentation

A

local burning at site then blanching with red halo around ischemic center -> hemorrhagic bullae -> eschar formation

190
Q

AE beta blockers

A

fatigue, depression, impotence, masks sx hypoglycemia, hypotension, bradycardia, 2nd/ 3rd heart block, bronchospasm

191
Q

first line tx acute active bleeding from esophageal varices

A

endoscopic ligation of bleeding vessel

192
Q

treatment acute dystonia

A

diphenhydramine

193
Q

acute dystonia sx

A

trismus, protruding of tongue, facial grimace, torticollis, difficulty speaking

194
Q

paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria sx

A

hemolytic anemia, venous thrombosis of large vessels, pancytopenia

195
Q

methimazole AE

A

myelosupression (agranulocytosis), hepatotoxicity

196
Q

doxorubicin AE

A

dilated cardiomyopathy, alopecia, bone marrow suppression

197
Q

biots breathing

A

irregular respirations, quick shallow breaths of equal depth w/ irregular periods of apnea (opioid induced respiratory depression)

198
Q

PID tx

A

IV doxycycline + ceftriaxone

199
Q

C diff colitis tx

A

metronidazole
PO vancomycin if severe

200
Q

when to do percutaneous nephrolithotomy

A

stones >10mm, struvite stones, and stag horn calculi

201
Q

first line myesthenia crisis

A

plasmapheresis

202
Q

initial tx HIT

A

argatroban

203
Q

thiazolidinedione AE

A

rosiglitazone and pioglitazone. cardiotoxicity, CHF, hepatotoxicity, fx

204
Q

Tx hypotonic isovolemic hyponatremia

A

fluid restriction and tx underlying cause

205
Q

test for syphilis in presence of chancre or condyloma

A

darkfield microscopy

206
Q

test for nephrogenic DI from central DI

A

desmopressin stimulation test

207
Q

low AFP, high bHCG, low estradiol

A

trisomy 21

208
Q

high alpha fetoprotein in triple screen

A

neural tube defect
multiple gestation
underestimate gestational age

209
Q

low alpha fetoprotein, low estradiol, low bHcG

A

trisomy 18

210
Q

H shaped vertebrae

A

sickle cell anemia

211
Q

tx warm antibody autoimmune hemolytic anemia

212
Q

tx lyme meningitis

A

ceftriaxone

213
Q

glioblastoma multiforme hallmarks

A

non homogenous mass w/ hypotenuse variable ring of enhancement w/ surrounding edema w/ butterfly appearance if it crosses corpus callosum

214
Q

medullary thyroid carcinoma secretes

A

calcitonin

215
Q

herpes simplex virus associated encephalitis CSF

A

increased protein w/ normal glucose and increased lymphocyte count

216
Q

class 1 anti arrhythmic that prolongs ventricular depolarization and refractory period

A

procainamide

217
Q

other electrolyte imbalance associated w/ hypocalcemia

A

hypomagnesemia

218
Q

meningiomas location

A

MC in convex of hemispheres and parasagittal regions. often attached to dura

219
Q

light wisp of cotton to test corneal reflex evaluates which CN

A

CN 5: trigeminal

220
Q

Test abdominal aortic aneurysm

A

abdominal US

221
Q

TOC acute exacerbations of MS

A

IV high dose CS

222
Q

TOC neisseria meningitis

A

IV penicillin G

223
Q

ITP tx

A

IVIG in kids
CS in adults

224
Q

MC indication for hysterectomy

A

leiomyomas

225
Q

which med decrease progression of relapsing remitting form of MS

A

glatiramr acetate

226
Q

clozapine 2 major AE

A

agranulocytosis
myocarditis

227
Q

med given before surgery of pheochromocytoma

A

phenoxybenzamine (nonselective alpha blockers)

228
Q

management nephrogenic DI

A

indomethacin
HCTZ

229
Q

MC pathogen post op surgical sites

230
Q

coal workers pneumoconiosis xray

A

small opacities in upper lung fields

231
Q

silicosis xray

A

small round opacities throughout lungs
calcified hilar lymph nodes

232
Q

asbestosis xray

A

interstitial fibrosis
thickened pleura

233
Q

test intussusception

A

barium enema diagnostic and therapeutic

234
Q

pathogen in stream water
dyspepsia, loose stool

A

giardia lamblia

235
Q

congenital abnormality associated with tracheoesophageal fistula

A

esophageal atresia

236
Q

pertussis tx

A

azithromycin or bactrim

237
Q

dew drop on a rose petal

238
Q

social phobia tx

239
Q

celiac test to confirm diagnosis

A

small bowel biopsy

240
Q

test to confirm hepatitis B vaccination

A

anti- HBs (surface antibody)

241
Q

transmural inflammation

242
Q

increase incidence of hip dysplasia

A

first born
left hip
female, breech

243
Q

myotome triceps and extension of arm

244
Q

warfarin clotting factors

A

2, 7, 9, 10

245
Q

RF preeclampsia

A

multiple gestation, nulliparity, advanced maternal age, AA, obesity

246
Q

medication that affects INR of patient taking warfarin

247
Q

venous hemorrhages, disk swelling, cotton wool spots, dark dusky retinal background

248
Q

pain when extend elbow, arm pronated, and extend fingers and wrist against resistance

A

lateral epicondylitis

249
Q

pain from resisted pronation or flexion of wrist

A

medial epicondylitis

250
Q

vaccine CI in patient undergoing chemo

251
Q

antihypertensive med to avoid in asthma patients

A

non beta 1 selective BB (propranolol)

252
Q

penicillin MOA

A

inhibits cell wall synthesis

253
Q

MC malignant primary tumor of bone

A

osteosarcoma

254
Q

cardiac biomarker that rises in 1-4h, peaks at 6-7h, and returns to normal after 24h

255
Q

endometritis tx

A

clindamycin
gentamicin

256
Q

MOA delays gastric emptying, stimulating pancreatic insulin response to glucose, reducing glucagon release after meals

A

liraglutide (GLP1)

257
Q

reduce breakdown of endogenous GLP1, making higher levels of GLP1

258
Q

lesion right optic tract posterior to chiasm

A

left homonymous hemianopsia

259
Q

RBBB + ST elevation in V1-V3

A

brugada syndrome

260
Q

anti arrhythmic that inhibit T3 to T4 conversion

A

amiodarone

261
Q

nerve root for patellar reflex

262
Q

MC pathogen bullous myringitis

A

mycoplasma pneumonia

263
Q

dacryostenosis tx

A

digital massage
lacrimal duct probing if persistent

264
Q

metformin MOA

A

decreases hepatic glucose production and increases peripheral glucose uptake

265
Q

suppurative complication of GAS pharyngitis

A

peritonsillar abscess

266
Q

ligament injured in gamekeepers thumb

A

ulnar collateral ligament

267
Q

sign associated w/ idiopathic intracranial HTN

A

papilledema

268
Q

furosemide monitor for

A

hypokalemia

269
Q

MRSA abscess tx

A

I&D + clindamycin

270
Q

impairs absorption of iron, avoid immediately before or after taking

271
Q

CI for use of stool DNA test for colorectal cancer

272
Q

tx outpatient diverticulitis

A

metronidazole and cipro

273
Q

pain along joint line with deep squatting

A

meniscal injury

274
Q

anti seizure med with AE gingival hyperplasia

275
Q

MCC erectile dysfunction

A

vascular disease

276
Q

post strep glomerulonephritis UA

277
Q

MCC heart failure in US

A

coronary artery disease q

PNCE (33 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions