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PNCE > Infx Dz JB > Flashcards

Infx Dz JB Flashcards

1
Q

anthrax sx

A

F w/ nonproductive cough, myalgia, fatigue, retrosternal chest pain –> improvement –> rapid deterioration (high F, severe dyspnea, tachypnea, hypoxemia, hematemesis, hemoptysis, chest pain, meningismus, coma)

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2
Q

ascariasis tx

A

mebendazole
albendazole, pyrantel if pregnant
tx whole family

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3
Q

ascariasis sx

A

large worm load: vague abdominal sx
can migrate to pancreatic duct, bile duct, appendix, diverticula
cough, wheezing, hemoptysis, abd pain, diarrhea

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4
Q

ascariasis dx

A

eggs in feces or large worm may be coughed, vomited
worms can leave nose, anus, or mouth
stool O&P
eosinophilia

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5
Q

asplenia immunizations needed

A

pneumoncoccal (strep pneumo)
meningococcal (neisseria/H.flu)
Virus: HPV/influenza/zoster

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6
Q

bacteremia labs

A

F, elevated WBC, blood culture + (unless HACEK)

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7
Q

bartonellosis (cat scratch dz) sx

A

gradual regional lymph nose enlargement (axilla, groin, neck) lasts 2-3mo or longer
distal scratch and/or red-brown papules on skin

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8
Q

bartonellosis (cat scratch dz) tx

A

azithromycin 1st line

doxycycline preferred if optic neuritis or neurologic dz

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9
Q

candidal balanitis tx

A

topical imidazole
clotrimazole 1%
miconazole 2%

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10
Q

catheter associated infx tx

A

BS B lactase and MRSA coverage

very ill: imipenem + vancomycin

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11
Q

Pre-op abx prophylaxis C-section

A

cefazolin within 60m before

decrease risk of endometritis

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12
Q

cryptococcosis presentation

A

HIV pt + patient w/ meningitis

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13
Q

cryptococcosis dx

A

LP: fungal CSF pattern

india ink: encapsulated budding round yeast

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14
Q

cryptococcosis tx

A

amphotericin B + flucytosine ==> PO fluconazole

pneumonia if immunocomp: fluconazole or itraconazole

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15
Q

cryptococcus prophylaxis in HIV

A

fluconazole if CD4<100

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16
Q

CMV retinitis presentation

A

immunocomp w/ decompensating vision

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17
Q

diphtheria sx

A

gray and white patches on tonsils and back of throat, bleeds if scraped
sore throat, F, swollen lymph nodes, bullock, myocarditis

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18
Q

diphtheria dx

A

clinical

PCR to confirm

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19
Q

diphtheria tx

A

antitoxin (horse) supplied by CDC + erythromycin or PCN
clindamycin or rifampin alternatives
PCN + ahminoglycosides for endocarditis

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20
Q

diphtheria prophylaxis and prevention

A

close contact: erythromycin or PCN benzathine G

prevention DTap

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21
Q

dengue staphylococcus prevention

A

permethrin on clothes

DEET on body

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22
Q

HSV2 genital/penis tx

A

acyclovir (IV for encephalitis)
valacyclovir
famciclovir

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23
Q

herpes zoster opthalmicus sx

A

shingles involving 1st division of trigeminal nerve
hutchinson sign: lesion on nose
dendritic lesions on slit lamp if keratoconjunctivitis

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24
Q

herpes zoster opthalmicus tx

A

PO antiviral

may add trifluridine, acyclovir, or vidarabine ophthalmic

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25
Q

histoplasmosis tx

A

mild/mod: itraconazole 1st line

severe: amphotericin B

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26
Q

HIV dx

A

screening: ELISA (blood or saliva)
confirm: western blot
HIV RNA viral load: monitor infectivity and tx effectiveness

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27
Q

AIDS defined as CD4 count of?

A

CD4 <200

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28
Q

HIV/AIDS tx

A

HAART regimen:
NNRTI + 2 NRTI
PI + 2 NRTI
INSTI + 2 NRTI

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29
Q

cytomegalovirus in HIV/AIDS dx

A

clinical dz only in immunocompromised patients

CD4 <50, colitis if CD4 <100

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30
Q

HPV infection types

A

cutaneous: verruca (warts)- common (vulgaris), plantar (planteris), flat (plana)
mucosal: genital warts (condyloma acuminata), cervical dysplasia/cancer, and anogenital carcinoma

31
Q

MMR immunization schedule

A

1st dose 12-15mo

2nd dose 4-6yo

32
Q

shigella dysenteriae infection sx

A

explosive watery diarrhea (mucoid, bloody)

33
Q

lumbricoides infestation

A

giant roundworm

from contaminated soil

34
Q

Cause of liver abscess

A

entamoeba histolytica

35
Q

liver abscess tx

A

metronidazole

36
Q

lyme dz etiology

A

borrelia burgdorfery (gr negative sphirochete)

37
Q

lyme dz dx

A

clinical dx
ELISA –> western blot
false positive ELISA seen w/ syphilis

38
Q

lyme dz tx

A

early: doxycycline (azithromycin or erythromycin if allergic)
amoxicillin TOC in kids or pregnancy
late/severe: IV ceftriaxone

39
Q

lyme dz prophylaxis

A

doxycycline w/in 72h of tick removal, if tick present for >36h, and >20% ticks infected in that area
if allergic, no prophylaxis given

40
Q

malaria etiology

A

plasmodium falciparum

41
Q

diseases that are protective against malaria

A

thalassemia

sickle cell

42
Q

malaria sx

A

cyclical fever, leukopenia, hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia
HA, myalgia, GI sx, splenomegaly
cerebral malaria w/ P. falciparum

43
Q

malaria dx

A

geimsa stain PBS: parasites in RBC

44
Q

MRSA tx

A

bactrim

clindamycin, tetracycline (doxycycline or minocycline)

45
Q

mumps caused by

A

paramyxovirus

46
Q

MCC acute pancreatitis in children

A

Mumps

47
Q

mumps sx

A

F, HA, myalgia, fatigue, anorexia –>
salivary gland swelling w/in 48h
parotitis, obscure angle of mandible

48
Q

mumps dx

A

serology
increased amylase
often clinical dx

49
Q

mumps tx

A

supportive

anti-inflammatories

50
Q

Mycobacterium avium complex

A

not from person to person contact

seen in HIV when CD4 <50

51
Q

mycobacterium avium complex tx

A

if CD4<50 –> clarithromycin, azithromycin, rifabutin

52
Q

neurosyphilis sx

A

Meningitis, dementia, vision/hearing loss, incontinence
tabes dorsalis, ataxia, areflexia, no proprioception
argyll-robertson pupil

53
Q

rabies tx

A

vaccine given pre and post exposure
5 IM doses of HDCV days 0, 3, 7, 14
+ rabies IG: 1/2 in wound, 1/2 IM within 6 days of exposure

54
Q

Ramsay hunt sx

A

triad: ipsilateral facial paralysis (bells palsy CN7), ear pain, vesicles of auditory canal/auricle
ipsilateral altered taste perception and tongue lesions
decreased hearing, tinnitus

55
Q

Ramsay hunt tx

A

oral acyclovir + CS

56
Q

RMSF etiology

A

rickettsia ricketsii

57
Q

RMSF sx

A

F, HA

Rash: small spots of bleeding and starts on wrist/ankles ==> palms and soles ==> spreads centrally over 2-3d

58
Q

RMSF dx

A

clinical dx

do not wait for serologies

59
Q

RMSF tx

A

doxycycline (even in children)

chloramphenicol TOC if pregnant

60
Q

scarlet fever tx

A

penicillin G or VK 1st line

macrolide if PCN allergic

61
Q

secondary syphilis sx

A 
maculopapular fase (diffuse, bilateral, involvement of palms and soles)
condyloma lata: wart like moist lesions involving mucus membranes (contagious)
62
Q

Bacterial sepsis sx

A

fever, hypoTN, AMS, increased RR

63
Q

syphilis tx

A

primary, secondary, early-latent: penicillin G berzathine
tertiary, late latent: penicillin G berzathine
PCN allergy: doxycycline or tetracycline, macrolide, or ceftriaxone

64
Q

Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) tx

A 
pan culture before abx
zosyn + ceftriaxone or imipenem
IV isotonic fluids
vasopressor if no response to fluids 
\+/- IV hydrocortisone
goal MAP > 60mmHg
65
Q

Tetanus etiology

A

clostridium tetani (gram positive rod)

66
Q

Toxic shock syndrome etiology

A

S. aureus or strep pyogenies

67
Q

Toxic shock syndrome sx

A

sudden onset high fever >102.2
tachycardia, hypoTN, N/V/D
pharyngitis, rash (diffuse erythematous macular like sunburn. includes palms/soles)

68
Q

toxoplasmosis sx

A

primary: mono-like illness
chorioretinitis in immunocompromised (CD4<100)
Triad: chorioretinitis, intracranial calcificaitons, hydrocephalus

69
Q

toxoplasmosis dx

A

PCR

head CT/MRI +/- ring enhancing lesions

70
Q

toxoplasmosis prophylaxis

A

CD4<100: bactrim

71
Q

trichomoniasis tx

A

flagyl, safe in pregnancy

tinidazole

72
Q

typhoid fever etiology

A

Salmonella (S. typhi)

73
Q

typhoid fever sx

A

pea soup stools (brown/green color)
intractable F, bradycardia, hepatosplenomegaly
blanching rose spots

PNCE (33 decks)

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