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Pharmacology > ***Practice Midterm*** > Flashcards

***Practice Midterm*** Flashcards

1
Q 
1st generation antihistamines, like diphenydramine, are associated with \_\_?\_\_
A. 	Dry eyes, mouth and throat
B. 	Urinary retention
C. 	Sedation
D. 	Inability to sweat
E. 	All the above
A

All the above

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2
Q 
A 30 year-old client with depression has attempted suicide by overdosing on acetaminophen.  The nurse in the emergency department anticipates the use of which agent in an attempt to limit liver damage due to the acetaminophen?
A. 	Flumazenil
B. 	Neostigmine
C. 	Dantrolene
D. 	Naltrexone
E. 	Acetylcysteine
A

Acetylcysteine

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3
Q 
A 65-year-old client is taking high doses of aspirin for pain related to osteoarthritis of the knee.  Which of these is a toxic effect caused by aspirin that this patient should be made aware of during patient teaching as an immediate signal of overdose?
A. 	Tinnitus or other changes in hearing
B. 	Changes in taste (dysgeusia)
C. 	Sedation
D. 	Photosensitivity
E. 	Increased gestation time
A

Tinnitus or other changes in hearing

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4
Q

A client is prescribed an Advair Diskus for symptoms related to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The education provided by the nurse regarding the use of this inhaler will include:
A. Rinse your mouth out well after each use
B. It may make you sleepy
C. Stay out of the sun
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

A

Rinse your mouth out well after each use

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5
Q 
A client with asthma asks which of these prescribed medications should be used in the event of an acute episode of bronchospasm.  The nurse replies, that for a typical acute asthma attack, use:
A. 	Epinephrine
B. 	Albuterol
C. 	Salmeterol
D. 	Advair Diskus
E. 	Montelukast
A

Albuterol

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6
Q 
A drug name ends in "pril," what is the drug class?
A. 	ACEI
B. 	NSAID
C. 	LOX inhibitor
D. 	LT Receptor blocker
E. 	ARB
A

ACEI

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7
Q 
A high fat meal can substantially reduce the absorption of the DRI drug called \_\_?\_\_.
A. 	Promethazine
B. 	Aliskiren
C. 	Benazepril
D. 	Ibuprofen
E. 	Diphenhydramine
A

Aliskiren

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8
Q 
A trade name like "Benadryl" or "Diovan" is:
A. 	Never on the label
B. 	Not trade marked
C. 	Proprietary
D. 	Always the same as the chemical name
E. 	Nonproprietary
A

Proprietary

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9
Q 
ACEI work better in Caucasians than in \_\_?\_\_
A. 	Polynesians
B. 	African Americans
C. 	Europeans
D. 	Hispanics
E. 	Asians
A

African Americans

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10
Q

Acetylation is a type of Phase II conjugation reaction. There are people who genetically, are fast acetylators and others whose enzymes work slowly. In a fast acetylator, given a normal amount of a drug metabolized by this route, you would expect (assumes drug is NOT a prodrug):
A. Treatment failure
B. Not enough information to answer
C. Toxicity or overdose
D. The drug will be metabolized slower than normal
E. No effect

A

Treatment failure

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11
Q 
ALL sedative hypnotics cause \_\_?\_\_, some more so than others.  Think alcohol intoxication.
A. 	Bad breath
B. 	Steven-Johnson's syndrome
C. 	Drug-induced amnestic state
D. 	Renal failure
E. 	Blindness
A

Drug-induced amnestic state

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12
Q 
An anti-inflammatory agent is ordered to be given IV to a client for pain.  Which of these anti inflammatories is available as an IV?
A. 	Acetaminophen
B. 	Etanercept
C. 	Aspirin
D. 	Ibuprofen
E. 	Celecoxib
A

Ibuprofen

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13
Q

Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitors (ACEI), Angiotensin Receptor Blockers (ARBs) and Direct Renin Inhibitors (DRIs) all have a boxed warning regarding __?__
A. Severe tissue injury regardless of administration route
B. 1st dose anaphylaxis
C. Fatal respiratory depression in kids
D. Fetotoxicity in the 2nd and 3rd trimester
E. Suicide

A

Fetotoxicity in the 2nd and 3rd trimester

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14
Q 
Aspirin is associated with \_\_?\_\_ in kids with viral infections (influenza or chicken pox).
A. 	Respiratory distress syndrome
B. 	Reye's syndrome
C. 	Urticaria
D. 	Constipation
E. 	GIT ulcers
A

Reye’s syndrome

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15
Q 
Benzodiazepines, non-benzodiazepine sedative hypnotics and barbiturates all cause \_\_?\_\_.
A. 	Tolerance
B. 	Dependence
C. 	Withdrawal syndrome
D. 	Some degree of amnesia
E. 	All the above
A

All the above

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16
Q 
Catecholamines are hormones produced by the adrenal medulla.  They include NE, EPI and \_\_?\_\_.
A. 	Dopamine
B. 	Serotonin
C. 	Histamine
D. 	Acetylcholine
E. 	Melatonin
A

Dopamine

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17
Q 
Corticosteroids are associated with causing drug-induced \_\_?\_\_
A. 	Angioedema
B. 	Antimuscarinic effects
C. 	Cataracts
D. 	Sedation
E. 	Gastric ulcers
A

Cataracts

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18
Q 
H1 antagonists are known as \_\_?\_\_
A. 	Antihyupertensive agents
B. 	Antihistamines
C. 	Antidepressants
D. 	Gastric acid reducers
E. 	Anti migraine drugs
A

Antihistamines

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19
Q 
Having the HLA-B 1502 allele (a variant of the HLA-B gene) predisposes patients on carbamazepine to \_\_?\_\_
A. 	Epilepsy
B. 	Steven Johnson's Syndrome
C. 	Heart disease
D. 	Psychosis
E. 	Blood dyscrasias
A

Steven Johnson’s Syndrome

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20
Q 
Isoflurane is a lung irritant and will cause laryngospasm and bronchospasm.   It is contraindicated in \_\_\_?\_\_
A. 	Diabetes mellitus type 2 patients
B. 	Minor surgical procedures
C. 	Dentists
D. 	Asthmatics
E. 	The elderly
A

Asthmatics

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21
Q 
Isoflurane is associated with \_\_?\_\_.
A. 	Post-op nausea and vomiting (PONV)
B. 	Laryngospasm and apnea
C. 	Changes in mood
D. 	Shivering
E. 	All the above
A

All the above

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22
Q 
Lithium causes goiter because it \_\_?\_\_.
A. 	Inhibits the release of thyroid hormone
B. 	Has antimuscarinic symptoms
C. 	Has a narrow therapeutic margin
D. 	Has a withdrawal syndrome
E. 	Causes weight gain
A

Inhibits the release of thyroid hormone

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23
Q 
Loratadine has a long half-life, therefore it is administered less frequently than 1st generation antihistamines like \_\_?\_\_
A. 	Diphenhydramine
B. 	Buspirone
C. 	Fexofenadine
D. 	Valsartan
E. 	Fluoxetine
A

Diphenhydramine

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24
Q

Medications are primarily regulated by:
A. The EPA (Environmental Protection Agency)
B. The OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration)
C. The DHS (Department of Health Services)
D. The DEA (Drug Enforcement Administration)
E. The FDA (Food and Drug Administration)

A

The FDA

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25
Q 
Metabolism may produce metabolites (daughters) that (are):
A. 	More or less toxic than the parent
B. 	Have a new action or effect
C. 	More or less active than the parent
D. 	Similar to the parent
E. 	All the above
A

All the above

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26
Q 
Mirtazapine (Remeron) is an antidepressant that affects a number of CNS receptors including the 5-HT3 receptor.  Mirtazapine inhibits the 5-HT3 receptors found on the CTZ, so you would expect Mirtazapine to be \_\_\_ ? \_\_\_\_.
A. 	Antiemetic like haloperidol
B. 	Antimigraine like sumatriptan
C. 	Antiemetic like scopolamine
D. 	Antiemetic like ondansetron
E. 	Anxiolytic like buspirone
A

Antiemetic like ondansetron

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27
Q

Misoprostol has a boxed warning regarding __?__
A. 1st dose anaphylaxis
B. Suicide
C. Fetoxiticy in the 2nd and 3rd trimester
D. Severe tissue injury regardless of administration route
E. Risk of abortion in pregnant women

A

Risk of abortion in pregnant women

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28
Q 
Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs) are associated with \_\_?\_\_.
A. 	Dependence
B. 	Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
C. 	Serotonin syndrome
D. 	Tolerance
E. 	Malignant hyperthermia
A

Serotonin syndrome

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29
Q 
Morphine, an opioid analgesic, is an example of a drug derived from \_\_?\_\_
A. 	Plants
B. 	Bacteria or yeast
C. 	Animals
D. 	Minerals
E. 	Synthetic chemistry
A

Plants

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30
Q 
NSAIDs are assoicated with \_\_?\_\_
A. 	Myalgia
B. 	Sedation
C. 	Dry mouth, dry eyes
D. 	Gastric ulcers
E. 	Cataracts
A

Gastric ulcars

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31
Q

Part of educating a client about the effects of using an orally inhaled drug such as albuterol should include a warning about:
A. Photophobia
B. Sedation
C. Immediate increase in heart rate which may include palpitations
D. A predisposition to infections
E. Fetotoxicity

A

Immediate increase in heart rate which may include palpitations

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32
Q 
Patients who are already taking a diuretic, who are then given an ACEI, may experience severe:
A. 	Hypotension
B. 	Neutropenia
C. 	Dysgeusia
D. 	Hyperkalemia
E. 	Hepatotoxicity
A

Hypotension

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33
Q 
Patients with a genetic predisposition to developing \_\_\_?\_\_\_ are at particular risk when given the halogenated volatile liquid general anesthetics and inorganic gas general anesthetics.
A. 	Serotonin syndrome
B. 	Megaloblastic anemia
C. 	Malignant hyperthermia
D. 	Steven Johnson's syndrome
E. 	Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
A

Malignant Hyperthermia

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34
Q

Patients with a ___?___ should not use Ester local anesthetics like benzocaine.
A. Risk factor for malignant hyperthermia
B. G6PD deficiency
C. Cold
D. HIstory of heart disease
E. PABA allergy

A

PABA Allergy

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35
Q 
Phenobarbital is a potent \_\_?\_\_
A. 	TCA
B. 	SSRI
C. 	Benzodiazepine
D. 	SNRI
E. 	P450 inducer
A

P450 Inducer

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36
Q

Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone pathways control blood pressure. Renin is an enzyme released from kidney juxtaglomerular epithelial cells in response to __?__
A. Decreased NaCl detected in the kidney
B. Sympathetic (beta 1) stimulation
C. Decreased intra renal pressure
D. Decreased blood pressure
E. All the listed answers are correct

A

All

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37
Q 
Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs) have \_\_?\_\_.
A. 	Control schedule I (CI) listing
B. 	A narrrow therapeutic margin
C. 	A risk of EPS
D. 	Analgesic effects
E. 	A withdrawal syndrome
A

A withdrawal syndrome

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38
Q 
Sufentanil is a potent opioid analgesic indicated for use as part of balanced general anesthesia.  Which of the following products contains an opioid similar to sufentanil? 
A. 	Sublimaze
B. 	Versed
C. 	Ketaset
D. 	Ultane
E. 	Diprivan
A

Sublimaze

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39
Q

The elderly generally require lower doses or more careful monitoring because:
A. Their livers are no longer synthesizing normal amounts or proteins including plasma proteins and metabolic enzymes
B. The kidney function is significantly reduced due to age
C. Their cardiac function is significantly reduced due to age
D. They have experienced alterations in body water and lean body mass
E. All the above

A

All

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40
Q 
The most commonly prescribed antidepressants, including SNRIs and SSRIs, are associated with \_\_?\_\_
A. 	Potential effects on clotting
B. 	Weight gain
C. 	Delayed onset (often times weeks)
D. 	Sexual dysfunction
E. 	All the above
A

All

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41
Q

The Neuromuscular Junction (NMJ) is (are) the __?__
A. Connection point between the somatic motor neuron and the skeletal muscle. The somatic neuron releases ACh, which diffuses across junction (gap) and binds to the receptor on skeletal muscle. This triggers the opening of an ion channel, which depolarizes the skeletal muscle and results in muscle contraction.
B. Receptor type located in autonomic ganglia and at the parasympathetic end organ, on a few sympathetic end organs and on many non-enervated cells.
C. ACh receptors with a very wide distribution, and not all are enervated. Enervated receptors are located in the CNS or PNS. In the PNS, they are at all PSNS end organs, and in the SNS in a few very important locations (SWEAT GLANDS).
D. Sympathetic end organ receptor, either alpha or beta
E. None of these answers is correct

A

Connection point between the somatic motor neuron and the skeletal muscle. The somatic neuron releases ACh, which diffuses across junction (gap) and binds to the receptor on skeletal muscle. This triggers the opening of an ion channel, which depolarizes the skeletal muscle and results in muscle contraction.

42
Q

The nurse administering succinylcholine prior to intubating a patient for mechanical ventilation, knows that this drug causes:
A. Muscle paralysis and deep analgesia
B. Deep muscle relaxation and pain relief
C. Increased alertness, but amnesia
D. Loss of consciousness along with muscle paralysis and anesthesia
E. Muscle paralysis without analgesia or unconsciousness

A

Muscle paralysis without analgesia or unconsciousness

43
Q 
The nurse knows that an order for Valium in an elderly patient is not recommended after consulting the \_\_?\_\_\_, develped by a physcian in the 1990's.
A. 	Drugs.com
B. 	Wikipedia entry for Valium
C. 	WebMD
D. 	Drug Handbook
E. 	Beer's List
A

Beer’s list

44
Q 
The nurse would question which order for an anti inflammatory for arthritis pain?
A. 	Aspirin
B. 	Etanercept
C. 	Celecoxib
D. 	Ibuprofen
E. 	Morphine
A

Morphine

45
Q 
The onset of action for Eszopiclone is so rapid, it must be taken immediately before \_\_?\_\_.
A. 	Getting up in the morning
B. 	Bathing
C. 	Going to bed
D. 	Drinking water
E. 	Eating
A

Going to bed

46
Q 
Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs) are contraindicated with \_\_?\_\_ because the combination may cause hyperpyretic crises, convulsions and fatalities.
A. 	Barbiturates
B. 	BZD
C. 	Non-BZD hypnotics
D. 	MAOIs
E. 	Antihistamines
A

MAOIs

47
Q 
Which is a synthetic opioid analgesic available PO, SC, IV, IM, PR, sublingual, and buccal for moderate to severe pain?  T ½ is 5-7 hours.  It is NOT CONTROLLED.
A. 	Tramadol
B. 	Meperidine
C. 	Buprenorphine
D. 	Pentazocine
E. 	Methadone
A

Tramadol

48
Q 
Which of the following blocks renal tubular reabsorption of urate?  It is used to increase uric acid excretion, to treat gout, and to decrease the renal secretion of penicillin antibiotics.
A. 	Etanercept
B. 	Probenecid
C. 	Allopurinol
D. 	Colchicine
E. 	Rasburicase
A

Probenecid

49
Q 
Which of the following blocks serotonin receptors in the gastrointestinal tract (GIT) and on the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) of the brain making it an excellent antiemetic for chemically-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV) and post-op nausea and vomiting (PONV)?
A. 	Trazodone
B. 	Fluoxetine
C. 	Sumatriptan
D. 	Ondansetron
E. 	Buspirone
A

Odansetron

50
Q 
Which of the following inhibits monoamine oxidase?  It was the first transdermal patch antidepressant and is used to treat Parkinson's disease and senile dementia.
A. 	Selegiline
B. 	Amphetamines
C. 	Venlafaxine
D. 	Fluoxetine
E. 	Donepezil
A

Selegiline

51
Q 
Which of the following inhibits voltage-gated sodium channels and is used as a local anesthetic?
A. 	Botulinum toxin
B. 	Reserpine
C. 	Amlodipine
D. 	Digoxin
E. 	Lidocaine
A

Lidocaine

52
Q 
Which of the following is a 2nd generation antihistamine used to relieve symptoms of seasonal allergic rhinitis and to treat idiopathic urticaria.  It is given PO SID or BID.
A. 	Chlorpheniramine
B. 	Diphenhydramine
C. 	Promethazine
D. 	Fexofenadine
E. 	Fluoxetine
A

Fexofenadine

53
Q 
Which of the following is a 5-lipoxygenase (LOX) inhibitor given PO QID for asthma?
A. 	Monteleukast
B. 	Zileuton
C. 	Zafirlukast
D. 	Salmeterol
E. 	Albuterol
A

Zileuton

54
Q 
Which of the following is a 5-PDE inhibitor used PO to treat erectile dysfunction?  It is also used to treat pulmonary arterial hypertension.
A. 	Aprotinin
B. 	Zileuton
C. 	Enalapril
D. 	Sildenafil
E. 	Montelukast
A

Sildenafil

55
Q 
Which of the following is a 5HT-1A agonist, non-sedating anxiolytic taken PO BID?
A. 	Trazodone
B. 	Sumatriptan
C. 	Ondansetron
D. 	Buspirone
E. 	Fluoxetine
A

Buspirone

56
Q 
Which of the following is a Butyrophenone (typical) antipsychotic given PO and IM to treat schizophrenia and Tourette’s disorder.  It may be used off label as an antiemetic.
A. 	Haloperidol
B. 	Quetiapine
C. 	Olanzapine
D. 	Clozapine
E. 	Chlorpromazine
A

Haloperidol

57
Q 
Which of the following is a C-II Psychostimulant for ADHD and narcolepsy?
A. 	Risperdal
B. 	Ritalin
C. 	Requip
D. 	Rebif
E. 	Rilutek
A

Ritalin

58
Q 
Which of the following is a C-III non-barbiturate parenteral general anesthetic (it is an NMDA antagonist)? It is an excellent analgesic and is indicated as the sole anesthetic agent or as an adjunct especially with nitrous oxide, also as an induction agent.
A. 	Ketaset
B. 	Xylocaine
C. 	Amidate
D. 	Dantrolene
E. 	Diprivan
A

Ketaset

59
Q 
Which of the following is a centrally-active acetylcholinesterase inhibitor?  It is used to treat Alzheimer's disease.
A. 	Venlafaxine
B. 	Amphetamines
C. 	Fluoxetine
D. 	Selegiline
E. 	Donepezil
A

Donepezil

60
Q 
Which of the following is a CII synthetic opioid analgesic available in PO, IV, IM, and SC formulations?  The IM and SC products are not preferred.  It is used to treat chronic pain, it is an antitussive and is used in opioid addiction programs.  The half life is highly variable and is usually between 24-60 hours.
A. 	Pentazocine
B. 	Methadone
C. 	Buprenorphine
D. 	Fentanyl
E. 	Morphine
A

Methadone

61
Q 
Which of the following is a CII synthetic opioid analgesic indicated for chronic pain, pain following a myocardial infarction (MI) and cancer pain, including break-through pain associated with injuries and cancer.  It is available in many formulations including IV, IM, PO, TD, sublingual
A. 	Hydrocodone
B. 	Morphine
C. 	Buprenorphine
D. 	Fentanyl
E. 	Methadone
A

Fentanyl

62
Q 
Which of the following is a CIII semi-synthetic opioid analgesic and antitussive?  In the US, it is always compounded with something else like APAP or Atropine.  It is given PO and the half life is about 4 hours.
A. 	Naltrexone
B. 	Diphenoxylate
C. 	Fentanyl
D. 	Morphine
E. 	Hydrocodone
A

Hydrocodone

63
Q 
Which of the following is a combination product for PD?
A. 	Emsam
B. 	Stalevo
C. 	Eldepryl
D. 	Aricept
E. 	Symmetrel
A

Stalevo

64
Q 
Which of the following is a cyclooxygenase (COX) inhibitor NSAID?
A. 	Promethazine
B. 	Misoprostol
C. 	Chlorpheniramine
D. 	Dexamethasone
E. 	Ibuprofen
A

Ibuprofen

65
Q

Which of the following is a genetic difference that predisposes a person to drug-induced hemolytic anemia?
A. Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency
B. Induction of Phase II enzymes
C. Competition for plasma protein bindig sites
D. Induction of Phase I enzymes
E. All of the above

A

Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency

66
Q 
Which of the following is a glucosaminoglycan indicated to replace naturally occurring glucosaminoglycans in wounds (as wound dressing), and in osteoarthritis and eye surgery as well as to smooth out facial wrinkles and to treat dry, scaly skin?
A. 	Aspirin
B. 	Ibuprofen
C. 	Hyaluronic acid
D. 	Rasburicase
E. 	Acetaminophen
A

Hyaluronic acid

67
Q 
Which of the following is a Halogenated volatile liquid general anesthetic indicated for in and outpatient induction and maintenance of general anesthesia?
A. 	Sublimaze
B. 	Pentothal
C. 	Amidate
D. 	Nitrous oxide
E. 	Ultane
A

Ultane

68
Q 
Which of the following is a Leukotriene (LT) Receptor Blocker given PO SID in the evening for asthma and at any time of the day for allergic rhinitis?
A. 	Celecoxib
B. 	Ibuprofen
C. 	Aspirin
D. 	Zilueton
E. 	Montelukast
A

Montelukast

69
Q 
Which of the following is a long-acting bronchodilator (LABA) that must be co-prescribed with a corticosteroid in the treatment of either asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
A. 	Salmeterol
B. 	Atenolol
C. 	Metoprolol
D. 	Terbutaline
E. 	Albuterol
A

Salmeterol

70
Q 
Which of the following is a Non-barbiturate parenteral general anesthetic indicated as an IV sedative/hypnotic for fast induction and maintenance of anesthesia and for sedation?  It is the most commonly used general parenteral anesthetic and is also used to induce coma. It may be used as a rescue antiemetic.
A. 	Diprivan
B. 	Xylocaine
C. 	Dantrolene
D. 	Amidate
E. 	Ketaset
A

Diprivan

71
Q 
Which of the following is a Non-barbiturate parenteral general anesthetic used as a hypnotic for induction of general anesthesia?  It has no analgesic properties.  Rapid injection leads to severe hypotension.
A. 	Xylocaine
B. 	Dantrium
C. 	Ketaset
D. 	Diprivan
E. 	Amidate
A

Amidate

72
Q 
Which of the following is a non-depolarizing NMJB indicated as a skeletal muscle paralytic agent used as part of balanced anesthesia to aid in the intubation of patients requiring mechanical ventilation?
A. 	Dobutamine
B. 	Pancuronium
C. 	Pilocarpine
D. 	Dopamine
E. 	Scopolamine
A

Pancuronium

73
Q 
Which of the following is a Prostaglandin E (PGE) analog used to reduce the risk of NSAID induced gastric ulcers?  It is given PO QID with food.
A. 	Fluoxetine
B. 	Buspirone
C. 	Aliskiren
D. 	Montelukast
E. 	Misoprostol
A

Misoprostol

74
Q 
Which of the following is a salicylate NSAID?
A. 	Aspirin
B. 	Ibuprofen
C. 	Celecoxib
D. 	Acetaminophen
E. 	All the above
A

Aspirin

75
Q 
Which of the following is a serotonin agonist used to treat migraine or cluster headaches?  It may be given SC or PO, usually only one dose, but a 2nd dose may be given after one hour.  No more than 2 doses/24 hours may be given.
A. 	Desyrel
B. 	Zofran
C. 	BuSpar
D. 	Imitrex
E. 	Prozac
A

Imitrex

76
Q 
Which of the following is a short-acting beta 2 agonist used as a bronchodilator, primarily for asthma, but also for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
A. 	Salmeterol
B. 	Propranolol
C. 	Albuterol
D. 	Isoproterenol
E. 	Atenolol
A

Albuterol

77
Q 
Which of the following is a synthetic antispasmodic indicated to treat PD and EPS.  Given PO only.
A. 	Ativan
B. 	Ambien
C. 	Alprazolam
D. 	Amantadine
E. 	Artane
A

Artane

78
Q 
Which of the following is a synthetic corticosteroid anti-inflammatory?
A. 	Dexamethasone
B. 	Misoprostol
C. 	Enalapril
D. 	Ibuprofen
E. 	Valsartan
A

Dexamethasone

79
Q 
Which of the following is a tissue necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha) inhibitor indicated to treat rheumatoid conditions.  It is only available as a SC injection and has a very long half life averaging between 70-130 hours.
A. 	Etanercept
B. 	Enbrel
C. 	Hyaluronic acid
D. 	All the above
E. 	A & B only
A

A & B only

80
Q 
Which of the following is a Topical cream indicated for PNP?  It is used off label to treat neuropathic pain associated with MS.
A. 	Capsaicin
B. 	Amitriptyline
C. 	Selegiline
D. 	Phenytoin
E. 	Donepezil
A

Capsaicin

81
Q 
Which of the following is an alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist that is used to reverse the effects of catecholamine extravasation and thus protect the surrounding tissue from necrosis?  It is also used to diagnosis and to treat pheochromocytoma and to reverse the effects of epinephrine used in parenteral local anesthetic injections.
A. 	Metoprolol
B. 	Doxazosin
C. 	Labetalol
D. 	Phentolamine
E. 	Tamsulosin
A

Phentolamine

82
Q 
Which of the following is an alpha 1 antagonist indicated only for the treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)?
A. 	Phentolamine
B. 	Labetalol
C. 	Terbutaline
D. 	Metoprolol
E. 	Tamsulosin
A

Tamsulosin

83
Q 
Which of the following is an alpha 2 agonist indicated for hypertension, chronic pain, and alcohol and opiate withdrawal as well as many off label uses?
A. 	Clonidine
B. 	Oxymetazoline
C. 	Dobutamine
D. 	Phenylephrine
E. 	Succinylcholine
A

Clonidine

84
Q 
Which of the following is an Anti spasmodic indicated for chronic spasticity associated with spinal cord injury, cerebral palsy and multiple sclerosis; malignant hyperthermia?
A. 	Thiopental
B. 	Benzocaine
C. 	Lidocaine
D. 	Dantrolene
E. 	Etomidate
A

Dantrolene

85
Q 
Which of the following is an Anti-AChE and anti Alzheimer’s drug?
A. 	Rilutek
B. 	Aricept
C. 	Namenda
D. 	Avonex, Rebif
E. 	Xenazine
A

Aricept

86
Q 
Which of the following is an antipyretic analgesic known by the acronym APAP?
A. 	Paracetamol
B. 	Acetaminophen
C. 	N-acetyl-para-aminophenol
D. 	All of the above
E. 	A & B only
A

All the above

87
Q 
Which of the following is an Inorganic gas general anesthetic?
A. 	Oxygen
B. 	Isoflurane
C. 	Nitrous oxide
D. 	Propofol
E. 	Sevoflurane
A

Nitrous oxide

88
Q 
Which of the following is Lyrica a C-V AED indicated for PNP and diabetic neuropathic pain, partial onset seizures and fibromyalgia?
A. 	Phenobarbital
B. 	Divalproex
C. 	Topiramate
D. 	Pregabalin
E. 	Phenytoin
A

Pregabalin

89
Q 
Which of the following is the L isomer of citalopram (the biologically active form), an SSRI given PO for anxiety and MDD?
A. 	Valium
B. 	Ambien
C. 	Celexa
D. 	Lexapro
E. 	Buspar
A

Lexapro

90
Q 
Which of the following is the number one cause of drug-induced liver failure?
A. 	Acetaminophen
B. 	Morphine
C. 	Etanercept
D. 	Aspirin
E. 	Ibuprofen
A

Acetaminophen

91
Q 
Which of the following is the TCA “Tofranil” given PO for MDD and childhood enuresis? 
A. 	Fluoxetine
B. 	Imipramine
C. 	Mirtazapine
D. 	Citalopram
E. 	Nortriptyline
A

Imipramine

92
Q 
Which of the following is Vasotec given PO SID to treat hypertension and left ventricular dysfunction after myocardial infarction?
A. 	Benazepril
B. 	Irbesartan
C. 	Captopril
D. 	Enalapril
E. 	Valsartan
A

Enalapril

93
Q 
Which of the following is “Seroquel,” an Atypical antipsychotic given PO to treat schizophrenia, MDD and bipolar disorder?  Patients must be monitored for cataract development, a risk with this drug.
A. 	Risperidone
B. 	Clozapine
C. 	Quetiapine
D. 	Haloperidol
E. 	Olanzapine
A

Quetiapine

94
Q 
Which of these is a 2nd generation antihistamine used as a metered nasal spray and as ophthalmic drops to relieve the symptoms of allergic rhinitis? 
A. 	Phenergan
B. 	Sumatriptan
C. 	Benadryl
D. 	Azelastine
E. 	Diphenhydramine
A

Azelastin

95
Q 
Which of these is a nicotinic agonist?  It is used in smoking cessation.
A. 	Bethanechol
B. 	Varenicline
C. 	Albuterol
D. 	Epinephrine
E. 	Clonidine
A

Varenicline

96
Q 
Which of these is an Amide local anesthetic and anti arrhythmic for the relief from the itch, burn or pain of skin inflammation, insect bites, as an anesthetic for dental and minor surgery; tinnitus; jellyfish stings; and is an anti arrhythmic for ventricular tachyarrhythmia control?
A. 	Etomidate
B. 	Thiopental
C. 	Lidocaine
D. 	Dantrolene
E. 	Benzocaine
A

Lidocaine

97
Q 
Which of these orders for acetaminophen should the nurse question?  Pain related to \_\_?\_\_
A. 	Cirrhosis of the liver
B. 	Muscle aches and pains
C. 	Fever
D. 	Head ache
E. 	Cold symptoms
A

Cirrhosis of the liver

98
Q 
Which of these products contains the best selling beta 1 blocker in the world?
A. 	Inderal
B. 	Isuprel
C. 	Proventil
D. 	Lopressor
E. 	Advair Diskus
A

Lopressor

99
Q

The nurse knows that a drug with a high theraputic index is:
A. A drug used for many indications (therapies)
B. Probably very dangerous
C. Probably safe
D. The most effective drug
E. Not as effective as one with a low therapeutic index

A

Probably safe

100
Q 
\_\_?\_\_ is usually lighter sedation so patient is relaxed, but can still follow instructions – often used in dental surgery (e.g., wisdom tooth extraction).
A. 	Analgesia
B. 	SJS
C. 	MAC sedation
D. 	MAC
E. 	Malignant hyperthermia
A

MAC sedation

Pharmacology (30 decks)

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