Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacology > (15) CV2 SLO > Flashcards

(15) CV2 SLO Flashcards

1
Q 
Adenosine is antagonized by methylxanthines including \_\_?\_\_
A. 	Phenytoin
B. 	Furosemide
C. 	Digoxin
D. 	Caffeine
E. 	Dobutamine
A

Caffeine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Digoxin dosages require individualization. Which of the following variables should be taken into account when determining the dose to use?
A. Base dose on Lean body weight
B. Patient’s renal function a factor, base dose on estimated creatinine clearance
C. Age – infants, children and the elderly lower than adults
D. Concomitant diseases or concurrent medications that alter pharmacokinetics (e.g., alter potassium levels)
E. All of the above

A

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Dobutamine is inactivated by alkaline solutions including __?__
A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Hydrochloride in gastric juices
C. Plasma
D. Dobutamine is inactive in all the listed solutions
E. Blood

A

Sodium bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q 
Which of the following is a Calcium channel blocker (CCB) given PO SID?
A. 	Nitroglycerin
B. 	Metoprolol
C. 	Aliskiren
D. 	Ranolazine
E. 	Amlodipine
A

Amlodipine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q 
Which of the following is a CCB given PO SID at bedtime (do not crush for extended release formulation) and TID-QID for other formulations. PO indicated for HTN and angina (all forms of angina) and tachyarrhythmis.  An IV (given as injection over 2 minute period) for tachyarrhythmia conversion.
A. 	Hydralazine
B. 	Ranolazine
C. 	Lidocaine
D. 	Propranolol
E. 	Verapamil
A

Verapamil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q 
Which of the following is a CCB given PO TID or QID (extended-release capsule – SID), or IV (single bolus or for up to 24 hrs as IV Infusion).  The PO form is indicated for HTN & Angina; the IV form is used for tachyarrhythmia control.
A. 	Propranolol
B. 	Diltiazem
C. 	Ranolazine
D. 	Furosemide
E. 	Nitroglycerin
A

Diltiazem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q 
Which of the following is a Class 1a Na+ channel blocker anti arrhythmic for ventricular tachyarrhythmias.  Avail IM/IV and PO?
A. 	Propranolol
B. 	Procainamide
C. 	Amiodarone
D. 	Digoxin
E. 	Adenosine
A

Procainamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q 
Which of the following is a Class 1b Na+ channel blocker anti arrhythmic for ventricular tachyarrhythmias.  Available IV for tachyarrhythmias (and in zillions of other formulations as a topical local anesthetic)?
A. 	Verapamil
B. 	Lidocaine
C. 	Adenosine
D. 	Amiodarone
E. 	Propranolol
A

Lidocaine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q 
Which of the following is a Class 1b Na+ channel blocker anti arrhythmic for ventricular tachyarrhythmias?  It is available PO as an AED and IV to control arrhythmias.
A. 	Digoxin
B. 	Verapamil
C. 	Amiodarone
D. 	Propranolol
E. 	Phenytoin
A

Phenytoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q 
Which of the following is a Class 1c Na+ channel blocker anti arrhythmic for atrial and ventricular tachyarrhythmias.  PO BID, but has a very long t ½ (up to 27 hrs), so steady-state may not be reached for days.  Therefore, don’t change dose within 4 days (no more often than every 4 days)?
A. 	Adenosine
B. 	Diltiazem
C. 	Propranolol
D. 	Digoxin
E. 	Flecainide
A

Flecainide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q 
Which of the following is a Class III antiarrhythmic?  It is available as an IV infusion to control ventricular tachyarrhythmias (high inter-individual variation for dose).  PO requires a LOADING dose of around 1 gram/day for 1-3 weeks.  Maintenance doses usually SID or BID 400 mg/day.
A. 	Amiodarone
B. 	Propranolol
C. 	Digoxin
D. 	Adenosine
E. 	Verapamil
A

Amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q 
Which of the following is a Class V antiarrhythmic that is only available as an IV only (very short t ½) for acute supraventricular tachycardia?
A. 	Propranolol
B. 	Lidocaine
C. 	Adenosine
D. 	Phenytoin
E. 	Diltiazem
A

Adenosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q 
Which of the following is a Class V antiarrhythmic.  It inhibits sodium potassium ATPase and is indicated for mild to moderate HF and atrial fibrillation.  Avail PO and IV (can be given IM, but very painful, IV infusion preferred).
A. 	Diltiazem
B. 	Verapamil
C. 	Propranolol
D. 	Digoxin
E. 	Lidocaine
A

Digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q 
Which of the following is a pFOX (partial fatty acid oxidase) inhibitor for chronic angina?
A. 	Ranolazine
B. 	Verapamil
C. 	Nitroglycerin
D. 	Diltiazem
E. 	Amlodipine
A

Ranolazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q 
Which of the following is a short acting nitrate vasodilator indicated for typical angina or MI?  It is available in PO, transdermal, IV, topical formulations.
A. 	Diltiazem
B. 	Verapamil
C. 	Nitroglycerin
D. 	Amlodipine
E. 	Ranolazine
A

Nitroglycerin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q 
Which of the following is an rDNA form of human B-type natriuretic peptide given IV as a treatment for acute decompensated heart failure?
A. 	Procainamide
B. 	Dobutamine
C. 	Milrinone
D. 	Furosemide
E. 	Nesiritide
A

Nesiritide

17
Q 
\_\_?\_\_ , is associated with numerous serious ADRs including CV collapse secondary to bradycardia and hypotension, blood dyscrasias including Purple Glove Syndrome, drug-induced Lupus, muscle twitches including nastigmus, osteomalacia and connective tissue changes, and SJS.
A. 	Propranolol
B. 	Diltiazem
C. 	Phenytoin
D. 	Ranolazine
E. 	Digoxin
A

Phenytoin

18
Q 
\_\_?\_\_ is a Loop diuretic available PO and IV/IM.  It is indicated PO for edema and HTN.  PO dosage must be individualized and usually only given 2-4 days/week SID or BID, but not more often than QID.  The IV/IM formulation should only be used in patients unable to take the PO form.  The IV must be given slowly to avoid hearing loss. 
A. 	Natrecor
B. 	Primacor
C. 	Lasix
D. 	Novaplus
E. 	Aldactone
A

Lasix

19
Q 
Furosemide will increase the likelihood of digoxin toxicity because it causes the loss of \_\_?\_\_
A. 	Hearing
B. 	Weight
C. 	Vision
D. 	Potassium
E. 	Calcium
A

Potassium

20
Q 
The Class V antiarrhythmic \_\_?\_\_  is associated with arrhythmias, hypotension, nausea, heartburn, flushing, edema, head ache, fatigue, and halo vision.  The risk of toxicity with this drug is increased by low plasma potassium or magnesium as occurs during therapy with diuretics.
A. 	Amiodarone
B. 	Digoxin
C. 	Phenytoin
D. 	Diltiazem
E. 	Propranolol
A

Digoxin

21
Q 
Which of the following is a 3-phosophodiesterase inhibitor (3-PDE) positive inotropic agent given IV (infusion) as a short-term treatment for acute decompensated heart failure?
A. 	Milrinone
B. 	Procainamide
C. 	Furosemide
D. 	Nesiritide
E. 	Dobutamine
A

Milrinone

22
Q 
\_\_?\_\_  is a synthetic catecholamine available as a solution that may be given PO or as an IV infusion to treat cardiac decompensation (heart failure) on a short-term basis.
A. 	Ranolazine
B. 	Verapamil
C. 	Dobutamine
D. 	Furosemide
E. 	Milrinone
A

Dobutamine

23
Q 
\_\_?\_\_ are associated with severe headache, flushing, hypotension and reflex tachycardia.  Tolerance to the vasodilation effects is common, but can be overcome by spacing doses 10-12 hours apart.
A. 	Beta Blockers
B. 	CCBs
C. 	Nitrate and nitrite vasodilators
D. 	Diuretics
E. 	Methyl xanthines like caffeine
A

Nitrate and nitrite vasodilators

Pharmacology (30 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions