(17) Micro 1 SLO Flashcards

1
Q
Adapalene (Differin)  has an unknown mechanism for acne.  It behaves like:
A. 	A corticosteroid
B. 	An alpha 1 blocker
C. 	A retinoid
D. 	An anti-androgen agent
E. 	An anticholinergic antispasmodic
A

A retinoid

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2
Q

Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) coadministered with __?__ is potentially fatal.
A. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
B. None of the listed drugs, Cipro is a very safe drug
C. All the listed drugs are potentially hazardous with Cipro
D. Theophylline (Theo-24)
E. NSAIDs

A

Theophylline (Theo-24)

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3
Q
Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) increases the risk of tendon rupture in patients \_\_?\_\_
A. 	Older than 60 yrs
B. 	Who have had a transplant
C. 	Taking corticosteroids
D. 	With a history of seizures
E. 	A, B & C, not D
A

A, B & C, not D

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4
Q

Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) should be used with caution in patients:
A. Who are older than 60 years
B. With a history of seizures
C. Who have had a transplant surgery or are taking chronic corticosteroids
D. Have Myasthenia gravis
E. All the above

A

All the above

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5
Q
Cocci and bacilli are bacterial shapes, cocci are \_\_?\_\_, bacilli are \_\_?\_\_
A. 	chains/clusters
B. 	spirals/balls
C. 	rods/spheres
D. 	spheres/rods
E. 	groups of 2/groups of four
A

spheres/rods

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6
Q
Coffee and other caffeinated beverages should be discouraged with ciprofloxacin due to the risk of \_\_?\_\_.
A. 	Shock
B. 	Seizures
C. 	Sedation
D. 	Stroke
E. 	Suicide
A

Seizures

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7
Q
Doxazosin (Cardura) & Tamsulosin (Flomax) treat BPH because they are:
A. 	Anticholinergic antispasmodics
B. 	Beta blockers
C. 	Retinoids
D. 	Anti-androgen agents
E. 	Alpha 1 blockers
A

Alpha 1 blockers

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8
Q
Finasteride (Proscar, Propecia) treats BPH because it is:
A. 	A beta blocker
B. 	A retinoid
C. 	An anti-androgen agent
D. 	A corticosteroid
E. 	An alpha-1 blocker
A

An anti-androgen agent

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9
Q

Fluoroquinolones (Cipro) are bactericidal and work by:
A. Inhibiting cell wall formation
B. Directly blocking protein synthesis
C. Inhibiting enzymes involved with DNA synthesis and metabolism
D. Interfering with metabolism
E. Damaging RNA

A

Inhibiting enzymes involved with DNA synthesis and metabolism

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10
Q

Identify the basis of Sulfonamide antibacterial activity:
A. They have local anesthetic action
B. They are analogs and antagonists of PABA. The end result is inhibition of DNA synthesis but they are classified as inhibitors of metabolism.
C. They protect the bladder wall
D. They react with RNA, damage DNA, interfere with cell wall synthesis, and interfere with CBH metabolism…
E. They alter the pH of urine

A

They are analogs and antagonists of PABA. The end result is inhibition of DNA synthesis but they are classified as inhibitors of metabolism.

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11
Q
Isotretinoin (Accutane, Sotret) has an unknown mechanism to treat severe acne.  It is:
A. 	An alpha 1 blocker
B. 	A retinoid
C. 	A beta blocker
D. 	An anti-androgen agent
E. 	An anticholinergic antispasmodic
A

A retinoid

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12
Q
Isotretinoin should be taken with \_\_?\_\_?
A. 	An antacid
B. 	Every meal
C. 	Vitamin A
D. 	Fatty food
E. 	Water
A

Fatty food

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13
Q

Methylene blue is associated with __?__
A. Hypotension
B. Allergic reactions, acute renal failure, and rash.
C. MAOI activity
D. Peripheral neuropathies and GI upset.
E. Heparin-like anticoagulant activity.

A

MAOI activity

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14
Q

Methylene blue works by:
A. Protecting the bladder mucosa
B. Reacting with RNA, damaging DNA, interfering with cell wall synthesis, and interfering with CBH metabolism…
C. Altering urine pH
D. Providing local anesthetic activity
E. Acting as an analog and antagonist of PABA.

A

Altering urine pH

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15
Q

Muscarinic antagonist antispasmodics for overactive bladder are associated with __?__
A. Discoloration of the urine, headache
B. MAOI activity
C. Teratogenicity
D. Impotence
E. Constipation, confusion, headache, dry mouth & eyes

A

Constipation, confusion, headache, dry mouth & eyes

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16
Q

Nitrofurantoin is associated with __?__
A. Peripheral neuropathies, pulmonary interstitial fibrosis, liver dysfunction, hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficient patients and GI upset.
B. Heparin-like anticoagulant activity.
C. Discoloration of urine, GI upset, headache and allergic reactions.
D. MAOI activity
E. Allergic reactions, hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficient patients, acute renal failure, and rash.

A

Peripheral neuropathies, pulmonary interstitial fibrosis, liver dysfunction, hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficient patients and GI upset.

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17
Q

Nitrofurantoin works by:
A. Altering urine pH
B. Protecting the bladder mucosa
C. Acting as an analog and antagonist of PABA.
D. Reacting with RNA, damaging DNA, interfering with cell wall synthesis, and interfering with CBH metabolism…
E. Having local anesthetic activity

A

Reacting with RNA, damaging DNA, interfering with cell wall synthesis, and interfering with CBH metabolism

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18
Q
Of the antibiotics listed, which  is considered to have the  “narrowest spectrum?”
A. 	Penicillins
B. 	Isoniazid
C. 	Aminoglycosides
D. 	Macrolides
E. 	Tetracyclines
A

Isoniazid

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19
Q

Pentosan polysulfate sodium (Elmiron) works by:
A. Altering urine pH
B. Reacting with RNA, damaging DNA, interfering with cell wall synthesis, and interfering with CBH metabolism…
C. Acting as an analog and antagonist of PABA.
D. Local analgesic activity
E. Protecting the bladder wall

A

Protecting the bladder wall

20
Q

Pentosan polysulfate sodium is associated with __?__
A. Hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficient patients.
B. Heparin-like anticoagulant activity
C. Discoloration of urine, GI upset, headache and allergic reactions.
D. MAOI activity
E. Peripheral neuropathies and liver dysfunction.

A

Heparin-like anticoagulant activity

21
Q

Phenazopyridine (Baridium) works by:
A. Acting as a local anesthetic in the bladder
B. Acting as an analog and antagonist of PABA.
C. Altering urine pH
D. Reacting with RNA, damaging DNA, interfering with cell wall synthesis, and interfering with CBH metabolism…
E. Protecting the bladder mucosa

A

Acting as a local anesthetic in the bladder

22
Q

Phenazopyridine is associated with __?__
A. MAOI activity
B. Allergic reactions, acute renal failure and rash.
C. Peripheral neuropathies and GI upset.
D. Discoloration of urine, GI upset, headache and allergic reactions.
E. Heparin-like anticoagulant activity

A

Discoloration of urine, GI upset, headache and allergic reactions.

23
Q
Pregnant women should not ever handle or take:
A. 	Finasteride
B. 	Isotretinoin
C. 	Amoxicillin
D. 	A & B
E. 	A, B and C
A

A & B

24
Q

Quinolones like Cipro are associated with __?__
A. Hemolytic anemia and allergic skin reactions.
B. Tooth discoloration (in developing permanent teeth).
C. Tendon rupture, photosensitivity, CDAD, creating resistant bacterial species, nightmares, tachycardia, and peripheral neuropathies.
D. Discoloration of the urine, GI upset and headache
E. A Disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol, decreased seizure threshold, peripheral neuropathy, increased risk of cancer especially in Crohn’s patients.

A

Tendon rupture, photosensitivity, CDAD, creating resistant bacterial species, nightmares, tachycardia, and peripheral neuropathies.

25
Q

Retinoids taken systemically are associated with __?__
A. Hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficient patients
B. MAOI activity.
C. Discoloration of urine
D. Teratogenicity
E. Impotence

A

Teratogenicity

26
Q

Sulfonamides are associated with __?__
A. Allergic reactions, hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficient patients, acute renal failure, and rash.
B. Heparin-like anticoagulant activity.
C. MAOI activity
D. Peripheral neuropathies, pulmonary interstitial fibrosis, liver dysfunction, hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficient patients and GI upset.
E. Orange discoloration of urine, GI upset, headache and allergic reactions.

A

Allergic reactions, hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficient patients, acute renal failure, and rash.

27
Q
Sulfonamides will increase prothrombin time in combo with:
A. 	TCAs
B. 	Other antibiotics
C. 	Digoxin
D. 	Thiazide diuretics
E. 	Warfarin
A

Warfarin

28
Q

The 5-alpha reductase inhibitors are associated with __?__
A. Impotence and hypotension
B. Peripheral neuropathies
C. Discoloration of urine, GI upset, and allergic reactions
D. Constipation, confusion, headache, dry mouth & eyes.
E. MAOI activity.

A

Impotence and hypotension

29
Q

The alpha 1 blockers for BPH are associated with __?__
A. MAOI activity.
B. Acute renal failure
C. Hypotension and priapism.
D. Teratogenicity
E. Constipation, confusion, headache, dry mouth & eyes.

A

Hypotension and priapism.

30
Q
The efficacy of TCAs is reduced by:
A. 	Nitrofurantoin
B. 	Phenazopyridine
C. 	Doxazosin
D. 	Tamsulosin
E. 	Sulfonamides
A

Sulfonamides

31
Q
The plasmid is a ring of \_\_?\_\_  that carries genes coding for \_\_?\_\_
A. 	DNA/drug resistance
B. 	mRNA/proteins
C. 	tRNA/DNA
D. 	DNA/viruses
E. 	RNA/mRNA
A

DNA/drug resistance

32
Q

The risk of tendon rupture (boxed warning) is increased when Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) is given to a patient already taking __?__.
A. All the listed drugs increase the risk of tendon rupture with Cipro
B. Theophylline
C. Doxycycline
D. NSAIDs
E. Corticosteroids

A

Corticosteroids

33
Q

The systemically administered retinoids are associated with __?__
A. Constipation, headache
B. Dry skin and mucous membranes, benign intracranial hypertension and psychiatric events.
C. MAOI activity.
D. Impotence
E. Heparin-like anticoagulant activity.

A

Dry skin and mucous membranes, benign intracranial hypertension and psychiatric events.

34
Q
Thrombocytopenia is a serious potential side effect of mixing:
A. 	Phenazopyridine and cephalexin
B. 	Methylene blue and atropine
C. 	Isotretinoin and Adapalene
D. 	Sulfonamides and thiazide diuretics
E. 	Finasteride and Doxazosin
A

Sulfonamides and thiazide diuretics

35
Q
What simple strategy can increase the bioavailability of nitrofurantoin by almost 50%?
A. 	Take with a magnesium supplement
B. 	Take with water
C. 	Take on an empty stomach
D. 	Take with food
E. 	Take with an antacid
A

Take with food

36
Q

Which of the following are dyes?
A. Pentosan polysulfate and Istoretinoin
B. Isotretinoin and Nitrofurantoin
C. Trimethoprim and Sulfamethoxazole
D. Methylene blue and Pentosan polysulfate
E. Phenazopyridine and Methylene blue

A

Phenazopyridine and Methylene blue

37
Q
Which of the following classes is considered to be the most “broad spectrum” of the antibiotics listed?
A. 	Tetracyclines
B. 	Penicillins
C. 	Aminoglycosides
D. 	Isoniazid
E. 	Macrolides
A

Tetracyclines

38
Q
Which of the following is an alpha 1 blocker that has indications for BPH and HT?
A. 	Solifenacin
B. 	Methylene blue
C. 	Doxazosin
D. 	Tamsulosin
E. 	Finasteride
A

Doxazosin

39
Q
Which of the following is an antispasmodic?
A. 	VesiCare
B. 	Cardura
C. 	Elmiron
D. 	Macrobid
E. 	Flomax
A

VesiCare

40
Q
Which of the following is only indicated for UTI?
A. 	Nitrofurantoin
B. 	Doxazosin
C. 	Trimethoprim
D. 	Isotretinoin
E. 	Adapalene
A

Nitrofurantoin

41
Q
Which of the following is used to relieve the terrible burning sensation and urgency associated with a UTI?
A. 	Doxazosin
B. 	Adapalene
C. 	Solifenacin
D. 	Phenazopyridine
E. 	Pentosan Polysulfate
A

Phenazopyridine

42
Q
Which of the following is used to treat BPH?
A. 	Adapalene
B. 	Trimethoprim
C. 	Ciprofloxacin
D. 	Tamsulosin
E. 	Isotretinoin
A

Tamsulosin

43
Q
Women taking \_\_?\_\_ must agree to the constraints of the iPLEDGE program which requires the use of birth control while taking this drug.
A. 	Isotretinoin
B. 	Finasteride
C. 	Amoxicillin
D. 	Nitrofurantoin
E. 	Trimethoprim
A

Isotretinoin

44
Q

Probenecid may be given along with nitrofurantoin to:
A. Decrease the metabolism of nitrofurantoin
B. Increase the metabolism of nitrofurantoin
C. Decrease the excretion of nitrofurantoin
D. Increase the absorption of nitrofurantoin
E. Increase the excretion of nitrofurantoin

A

Decrease the excretion of nitrofurantoin

45
Q
Solifenacin (VesiCare) treats incontinence because it is acting as:
A. 	A beta blocker
B. 	An anticholinergic antispasmodic
C. 	An anti-androgen agent
D. 	An alpha 1 blocker
E. 	A retinoid
A

An anticholinergic antispasmodic

46
Q
Which of the following is indicated to treat severe recalcitrant nodular acne, in both men and women, but only women have to sign an iPLEDGE agreement?
A. 	Adapalene
B. 	Phenazopyridine
C. 	Finasteride
D. 	Isotretinoin
E. 	Sulfonamides
A

Isotretinoin