Pharm Final PPT Review Flashcards
1
Q
What is pharmacology?
A
The study of drugs and their effects on living organisms.
2
Q
Define toxicology.
A
The study of the adverse effects of chemicals on living organisms.
3
Q
What are agonists?
A
Substances that activate receptors to produce a biological response.
4
Q
What are antagonists?
A
Substances that block or inhibit the action of agonists at receptors.
5
Q
Differentiate between competitive and non-competitive antagonists.
A
Competitive antagonists bind reversibly to the same site as agonists; non-competitive antagonists bind to a different site.
6
Q
What does pharmacodynamics study?
A
The effects of drugs on the body and their mechanisms of action.
7
Q
What does pharmacokinetics study?
A
The absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination of drugs.
8
Q
What is pharmacogenomics?
A
The study of how genes affect a person’s response to drugs.
9
Q
Define ‘receptor’ in pharmacology.
A
A protein molecule that receives and transmits signals in response to drug binding.
10
Q
What is the difference between endogenous and exogenous substances?
A
Endogenous substances are produced within the body; exogenous substances come from outside the body.
11
Q
What are poisons?
A
Substances that can cause harm or death when introduced into the body.
Can be organic or inorganic
12
Q
What are toxins?
A
Poisonous substances produced by living organisms.
13
Q
Define ‘partial agonist.’
A
A substance that activates a receptor but produces a less than maximal response.
In the presence of a full agonist, it can act like an antagonist
14
Q
What is an inverse agonist?
A
A substance that binds to a receptor and induces the opposite effect of an agonist. This effect can bring the response lower than the constituent level of activity.
15
Q
What is stereoisomerism?
A
The existence of molecules with the same molecular formula but different spatial arrangements.
16
Q
What is a physiologic antagonist?
A
A substance that counteracts the effects of another substance through different mechanisms.
17
Q
What does the acronym ADME stand for in pharmacokinetics?
A
Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism
Elimination
18
Q
What is the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation used for?
A
To calculate the pH of a solution based on the concentrations of acid and base. Remember, if pH<pka, the compound will be in its protonated form. If pH>pka, it will be unprotonated.
Protonated acidic drugs will be neutral and more likely cross barriers, while protonated basic drugs will have a positive charge and be less likely to cross barriers.
19
Q
If pH < pKa, what form is favored?
A
The protonated form.
Protonated acidic drugs will be neutral and more likely cross barriers, while protonated basic drugs will have a positive charge and be less likely to cross barriers.
20
Q
If pH > pKa, what form is favored?
A
The unprotonated form.
Unprotonated acidic drugs will be negatively charged and less likely to cross barriers, while unprotonated basic drugs will have a neutral charge and be more likely to cross barriers.
21
Q
What is a dose-response curve?
A
A graph that shows the relationship between drug dose and the magnitude of response.
22
Q
What is rational dosing?
A
The goal to achieve the desired beneficial effect with minimal adverse effects.
23
Q
What does the term ‘volume of distribution’ refer to?
A
A pharmacokinetic parameter that describes the distribution of a drug throughout the body’s fluids and tissues.
Higher Vd means that the drug is more likely to leave the vascular space and settle into tissues
24
Q
What is clearance in pharmacokinetics?
A
The rate at which a drug is removed from the body.
25
What is meant by 'first order' and 'zero order' elimination?
'First order' means the rate of elimination is proportional to the drug concentration; 'zero order' means the rate is constant regardless of concentration.
26
What is half-life?
The time required for the concentration of a drug in the blood to decrease by half.
27
What factors affect passive diffusion?
*Molecular weight*
*pKa*
*Lipid solubility*
*Plasma protein binding*
28
What are the four basic mechanisms of transmembrane signaling?
* Direct crossing to intercellular receptor
* Enzymatic action mediated by ligand binding
* Tyrosine kinase activated receptors
* G protein-coupled receptors*
29
What is the function of ligand-gated ion channels?
To open or close in response to the binding of a ligand, allowing ions to flow across the membrane.
30
What is the structure of GPCR?
Comprised of seven trans-membrane alpha-helices.
31
What is pleiotropy in pharmacology?
The ability of a drug to produce multiple effects through different mechanisms.
32
What are drug efflux transporters?
Proteins that transport drugs out of cells, often involved in multi-drug resistance.
33
What is the blood-brain barrier?
A selective permeability barrier that protects the brain from harmful substances.
34
What is biotransformation?
The process by which the body chemically alters a drug.
35
What are the two phases of biotransformation?
*Phase I: Oxidation, Reduction, Hydrolysis*
*Phase II: Conjugation*
36
What does cytochrome P450 do?
It is a family of enzymes involved in the metabolism of drugs.
37
What is the effect of P450 induction?
Increased metabolism of drugs, which can lead to decreased drug effects.
38
What is the effect of P450 inhibition?
Decreased metabolism of drugs, which can lead to increased drug effects.
39
What is the enteric nervous system?
The nervous system of the gastrointestinal tract.
40
What are the classes of neurotransmitters?
*Esters*
*Monoamines*
*Amino Acids*
*Purines*
*Peptides*
*Inorganic gases*
41
What is the primary action of sympathetic activity on the heart?
Accelerates heart rate via β1 and β2 receptors.
42
What is the primary action of parasympathetic activity on the heart?
Decelerates heart rate via M2 receptors.
43
What is the effect of alpha-1 receptor activation?
Smooth muscle contraction.
44
What is the mechanism of action of adrenergic agonists?
Stimulate adrenergic receptors to produce effects like increased heart rate and vasodilation.
45
What are direct-acting adrenergic agonists?
*Albuterol*
*Clonidine*
*Dobutamine*
*Dopamine*
*Epinephrine*
*Isoproterenol*
*Norepinephrine*
46
What are indirect-acting adrenergic agonists?
*Amphetamine*
47
What is a key characteristic of beta-blockers?
They decrease heart rate and cardiac output.
48
What is the action of nitrates on vascular smooth muscle?
They relax vascular smooth muscle by increasing cGMP.
49
What is the difference between dihydropyridines and non-dihydropyridines in calcium channel blockers?
Dihydropyridines are more selective for peripheral vasculature; non-dihydropyridines affect the heart more.
50
What does SLUDGE-M stand for in toxicology?
*Salivation*
*Lacrimation*
*Urination*
*Diarrhea*
*Gastrointestinal distress*
*Emesis*
*Miosis*
51
What is the primary treatment for organophosphate poisoning?
Atropine and Pralidoxime.
52
What is the action of cholinomimetics?
They mimic the action of acetylcholine.
53
What is a common side effect of cholinomimetics?
Bradycardia.
54
What is the primary therapeutic use of cholinomimetics?
Treating conditions like myasthenia gravis.
55
What is an adrenoceptor antagonist?
A substance that blocks the action of catecholamines at adrenoceptors
## Footnote
Examples include propranolol, which antagonizes β1 & β2 receptors.
56
What is the primary action of Propranolol?
Lowers blood pressure and prevents reflex tachycardia
## Footnote
It antagonizes β1 & β2 receptors and decreases cardiac output.
57
Name three α1 blockers.
* Prazosin
* Terazosin
* Doxazosin
58
What do α1 blockers do?
Block α1 receptors in arterioles and venules, leading to vasodilation.
59
What is the mechanism of Minoxidil?
Opens K+ channels in smooth muscles, stabilizing potential and reducing contraction.
60
What does Hydralazine do?
Dilates arterioles through nitric oxide production.
61
What is the toxicity associated with vasodilators?
Headache, nausea, sweating, flushing.
62
What is Sodium Nitroprusside used for?
Hypertensive emergencies and cardiac failure.
63
What is the mechanism of action of Sodium Nitroprusside?
Relaxes vascular smooth muscle by breaking down in blood to release NO.
64
What is Captopril?
An ACE inhibitor used to treat heart failure.
65
What are the two types of heart failure?
* Systolic failure – reduced cardiac function
* Diastolic failure – reduced cardiac filling
66
What is the consequence of congestive heart failure?
Increased left ventricle pressure at end diastole leading to pulmonary edema.
67
What are the four factors that affect cardiac performance?
* Preload
* Afterload
* Contractility
* Heart Rate
68
What does Digoxin do?
Inhibits Na+/K+ ATPase, maintaining normal resting potential and acting as a positive inotrope.
69
What is the therapeutic range for Digoxin toxicity?
EC50 – 1 ng/mL, TC50 – 2 ng/mL.
70
What are phosphodiesterase inhibitors known for?
Inactivating cAMP and cGMP, providing positive inotropic effects.
71
What is the sinoatrial node?
The pacemaker of the heart located in the right atrium.
72
What is required for reentry in cardiac impulse conduction?
* An obstacle (scar tissue)
* Unidirectional block
* Long enough conduction time
73
List the four classes of antiarrhythmic agents.
* Class I – sodium channel blockade
* Class II – sympatholytic
* Class III – prolong action potential duration
* Class IV – block cardiac calcium channel currents
74
What is Amiodarone known for?
The only antiarrhythmic with all four Vaughan-Williams’ class effects.
75
What is the first-line treatment for bradycardia?
Atropine.
76
What are the effects of H1 receptors?
* Bronchoconstriction
* Vasodilation
77
What is Diphenhydramine used for?
Type I hypersensitivity reactions.
78
What do leukotrienes do?
Cause bronchospasm, mucous secretion, and airway edema.
79
What is the action of Montelukast?
Inhibits binding of leukotrienes to their receptors.
80
What is the role of Omalizumab?
An anti-IgE monoclonal antibody that reduces asthma severity.
81
What is serotonin syndrome?
A potentially life-threatening condition caused by excessive serotonergic activity.
82
Name the three major classes of antidepressant medications.
* Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
* Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
* Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
83
What is the therapeutic range for phenytoin?
10-20 mcg/ml for therapeutic, >30 mcg/ml for toxic.
84
What is the main effect of benzodiazepines in seizure treatment?
Sedation.
85
What is the therapeutic plasma level range for phenytoin?
10-20 mcg/ml
## Footnote
Free phenytoin levels range from 1-2.5 mcg/ml.
86
What are the toxic and lethal plasma levels for phenytoin?
Toxic: 30-50 mcg/ml; Lethal: >100 mcg/ml
87
What should be the next option for a status epilepticus patient not responding to Phenytoin or phenobarbital?
Benzodiazepines, consider intubation
88
Why are second generation antihistamines preferred over first generation in allergy symptom relief?
They do not cause sedation
89
Which of the following is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor?
Sertraline (Zoloft)
90
What are the phases of platelet activity in thrombogenesis?
* Adhesion
* Aggregation
* Secretion
* Cross-linking of adjacent platelets
91
What are the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of blood coagulation?
Intrinsic: Collagen, vWF; Extrinsic: TF
92
What is the treatment for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
* Plasma transfusions
* Treat underlying cause
93
What is the therapeutic range for Warfarin defined by INR?
Target: 2-3
94
What are the types of insulin preparations?
* Rapid acting: Lispro, aspart, glulisine
* Short acting: Novolin, humulin
* Intermediate acting: Neutral protamine Hagedorn, isophane
* Long acting: Glargine, detemir
95
What do biguanides, such as Metformin, do?
Block glucose formation in liver
96
What is the mechanism of action of statins?
* Decrease cellular cholesterol synthesis
* Increase LDLR
* Scavenge LDL from blood
97
What type of antibiotic is Vancomycin considered?
Drug of last resort
98
What are the adverse reactions of penicillin?
* Hypersensitivity
* Anaphylactic shock
* Skin rash
* Oral lesions
* Hemolytic anemia
* Interstitial nephritis
99
What structural motif do penicillins and cephalosporins contain?
Beta-lactam ring
100
What is the mechanism of action of Acyclovir?
Chain termination when virus mistakes Acyclovir for dGTP
101
List the types of diabetes mellitus.
* Type I: Insulin dependent
* Type II: Non-insulin dependent
* Type III: Other causes (e.g., pancreatitis)
* Type IV: Gestational
102
What is the role of vitamin K in coagulation?
Confers activity on prothrombin, factors VII, IX, and X
103
What are the common side effects of fibrates?
* GI upset
* Arrhythmias
* Elevated liver enzymes
* Myopathy
104
True or False: Direct thrombin inhibitors target thrombin in the clot.
t
105
Fill in the blank: Aminocaproic acid is a _______.
Fibrinolytic inhibitor
106
What is the primary function of HDL?
Scavenger of cholesterol from cells, other lipoproteins
107
What are the two main mechanisms of action of antibiotics?
* Inhibiting cell wall synthesis
* Inhibition of protein synthesis
108
What is the main therapeutic use of Oseltamivir phosphate?
Treatment of influenza
109
What type of receptor is the insulin receptor?
Tyrosine kinase receptor
110
What is the significance of C-peptide in relation to insulin?
No known function
111
What are the common treatments for Parkinson's disease?
* Levodopa
* Dopamine receptor agonists
* MAOIs
* COMTi
* CNS antimuscarinics
112
What is Primavanserin used for?
It is used for the treatment of Parkinson's disease psychosis.
## Footnote
Primavanserin is an atypical antipsychotic that specifically targets serotonin receptors.
113
Define Dyskinesia.
Dyskinesia refers to involuntary movements that can occur as a side effect of certain medications used to treat Parkinson's disease.
114
What are On/Off periods in Parkinson's disease?
On periods refer to times when medication is effective and symptoms are controlled, while Off periods are characterized by a return of symptoms.
115
Name two dopamine receptor agonists.
* Pramipexole
* Ropinirole
## Footnote
These medications mimic dopamine effects in the brain.
116
What are MAOIs and name two examples.
* Selegiline
* Rasagiline
## Footnote
MAOIs are monoamine oxidase inhibitors used in the treatment of depression and Parkinson's disease.
117
What is the role of COMT inhibitors?
COMT inhibitors, such as Tolcapone and Entacapone, are used to prolong the effect of levodopa in Parkinson's disease treatment.
118
What are the effects of CNS antimuscarinics?
CNS antimuscarinics control dopaminergic release and are used to treat symptoms of Parkinson's disease.
119
How does Apomorphine function in Parkinson's disease?
Apomorphine is used to treat 'off' periods and akinesia in Parkinson's disease.
120
What is Tetrabenazine and its function?
Tetrabenazine depletes dopamine and is used to treat movement disorders such as Huntington's disease.
121
True or False: Aspirin is used for severe pain.
False
## Footnote
Aspirin is widely used for mild to moderate pain, but not for severe pain.
122
What are the clinical uses of Aspirin?
* Rheumatoid arthritis
* Fever
* Clot prevention
## Footnote
Aspirin is also used for its antiplatelet effects.
123
What is the mechanism of action of Glucocorticoids?
Glucocorticoids suppress inflammation and modulate immune responses.
124
Fill in the blank: The primary action of Methotrexate is to inhibit __________.
[dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR)].
125
What are the side effects of glucocorticoids?
* Immunosuppression
* Diabetes
* Obesity
* Muscle wasting
* Hypertension
126
What is the Gate Control Theory of pain?
It suggests that non-painful input closes the gates to painful input, preventing pain sensation.
127
Name three types of opioid receptors.
* μ (mu)
* δ (delta)
* κ (kappa)
128
What is the effect of Naloxone?
Naloxone completely and dramatically reverses opioid effects.
129
What is the main action of Antineoplastic drugs?
They kill rapidly dividing cells, targeting cancer.
130
What does DMARD stand for?
Disease Modifying Anti-Rheumatic Drugs.
131
What are the traditional treatments for neoplasia?
* Surgery
* Radiation
* Chemotherapy
132
What is Azathioprine used for?
It is an immunosuppressive agent that targets rapidly proliferating cells.
133
What are the elements of adaptive immunity?
* B cells
* T cells
* Antibodies
134
Define Autoimmunity.
Autoimmunity is an immune response against normal, healthy tissue.
135
What is the role of Interferons?
Interferons are antiviral proteins that may also act as cytokines.
136
What is the function of Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)?
TNF is secreted by macrophages and T cells to kill tumor cells and regulate immune responses.
137
What is the significance of the CYP3A4 enzyme in opioid pharmacokinetics?
CYP3A4 is involved in the metabolism of opioids, affecting their efficacy and safety.
138
What does the term 'hypersensitivity' refer to?
Hypersensitivity is an overreaction of the immune system to innocuous stimuli.
139
What is the primary action of Methotrexate?
It inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, interfering with DNA/RNA synthesis.
140
What are the side effects of chemotherapy?
* Nausea & Vomiting
* Bone marrow depression
* Alopecia
* Immunosuppression
141
What is the most commonly used alkylating agent in cancer chemotherapy?
Cyclophosphamide
## Footnote
Cyclophosphamide is widely used due to its effectiveness in treating various types of cancer.
142
Which monoclonal antibody is used for RH- mothers who give birth to RH+ children?
RhoGAM
## Footnote
RhoGAM is administered to prevent Rh incompatibility in newborns.
143
Fill in the blank: _______ is a strong opioid agonist with a phenylpiperidine structure.
Fentanyl
## Footnote
Fentanyl is known for its potency and is often used in pain management.
144
Name one of the additional agents mentioned in the treatment context.
Sirolimus
## Footnote
Sirolimus is often used in organ transplantation and certain cancers.
145
What is the role of Adalimumab in medical treatment?
TNF-a inhibitor
## Footnote
Adalimumab is used to treat autoimmune diseases by inhibiting tumor necrosis factor-alpha.
146
Which drug is classified as a Thalidomide derivative?
Thalidomide
## Footnote
Thalidomide is used for multiple myeloma and certain inflammatory conditions.
147
What type of drug is Omalizumab?
Monoclonal antibody
## Footnote
Omalizumab is used to treat asthma and allergic conditions.
148
Which drug is commonly used in chemotherapy and is known as Taxol?
Paclitaxel
## Footnote
Paclitaxel is derived from the bark of the Pacific yew tree and is used in various cancer treatments.
149
Identify one alternative to Methadone as an opioid.
Morphine
## Footnote
Morphine is one of the oldest opioids used for severe pain relief.
150
True or False: Nitrosourea is the most commonly used alkylating agent in cancer chemotherapy.
False
## Footnote
The most commonly used alkylating agent is Cyclophosphamide, not Nitrosourea.
151
What are the four histamine receptors in humans?
H1, H2, H3, H4
152
What is the primary effect of H1 receptor activation?
Bronchoconstriction and vasodilation
153
What type of drug is diphenhydramine?
H1 selective inverse agonist
154
What is the main use of antihistamines?
Type I hypersensitivity reactions
155
What are some effects of histamine on the nervous system?
Stimulates pain and itching
156
What cardiovascular effects does histamine have?
↓ BP (vasodilation) and ↑ HR (reflex tachycardia)
157
What is the 'Triple Response' associated with histamine?
Wheal and flare reaction
158
What is a characteristic of first-generation H1 receptor antagonists?
Sedation
159
Fill in the blank: H1 receptor antagonists resemble _______ drugs.
antimuscarinic
160
What are some therapeutic uses of H1 receptor antagonists?
* Sleep aids
* Antinausea/antiemetic
* Antiparkinsonism
161
What are leukotrienes associated with in terms of respiratory function?
Bronchospasm, mucus secretion, airway edema
162
What is the effect of sympathomimetics in asthma treatment?
Bronchodilation
163
What is the role of omalizumab in asthma treatment?
Anti-IgE monoclonal antibody
164
What is serotonin's role in the nervous system?
Melatonin precursor and vomiting reflex
165
Which serotonin receptor is targeted by buspirone?
5-HT1A
166
What are the three major classes of antidepressant medications?
* Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
* Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
* Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
167
What is a common side effect of tricyclic antidepressants?
Anticholinergic effects
168
What is the therapeutic range for phenytoin?
10-20 mcg/ml
169
What should be administered next for a status epilepticus patient unresponsive to phenytoin?
Benzodiazepines
170
What are the phases of thrombogenesis?
* Adhesion
* Aggregation
* Secretion
171
What are the two pathways of blood coagulation?
* Intrinsic
* Extrinsic
172
What is the role of vitamin K in coagulation?
Confers activity on prothrombin and factors VII, IX, and X
173
What is the primary action of statins?
Decrease cellular cholesterol synthesis
174
What is the mechanism of action for fibrates?
Increase lipolysis in liver
175
Fill in the blank: Ezetimibe is an _______ inhibitor.
intestinal sterol absorption
176
What is the effect of niacin on lipoproteins?
Decreases VLDL, LDL and increases HDL
177
What are the general properties of antimicrobial agents?
* Modes of action
* Spectrum of activity
* Side effects
178
What is the primary effect of penicillin?
Inhibiting cell wall synthesis
179
What is a common adverse reaction to cephalosporins?
Hypersensitivity
180
What is the main use of vancomycin?
Treatment of MRSA infections
181
What are the characteristics of first-generation cephalosporins?
Better gram (+) activity
## Footnote
Used for UTI and Staph infections, alternative to penicillin with less allergy.
182
What is vancomycin primarily used for?
Alternative to penicillin-resistant bacteria (MRSA)
## Footnote
Known as the 'drug of last resort' with a 10% rate of adverse reactions.
183
What are common adverse reactions associated with vancomycin?
Irritating to tissues, chills/fever, ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, 'red neck' syndrome
## Footnote
These reactions can occur due to rapid infusion.
184
What is the mechanism of action of polypeptide antibiotics like polymyxins?
Act as detergents, bind to phospholipids
## Footnote
Especially effective against gram-negative bacteria.
185
What is the primary action of tetracyclines?
Inhibition of protein synthesis, bacteriostatic
## Footnote
They have the widest spectrum of activity but can destroy normal intestinal microbiota.
186
Which drug is the prototype for macrolides?
Erythromycin
## Footnote
Semi-synthetic derivatives include Clarithromycin (Biaxin) and Azithromycin (Zithromax).
187
What is the mechanism of action of rifamycin?
Inhibits mRNA synthesis
## Footnote
Important for treating tuberculosis and other infections.
188
What do quinolones inhibit?
DNA gyrase (bacterial)
## Footnote
They are effective against both gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria.
189
What is the structural similarity of sulfonamides?
Structurally similar to PABA
## Footnote
They act as antimetabolites in the synthesis of folic acid.
190
What are the unique properties of viruses?
Infectious particles, obligate intracellular parasites
## Footnote
They cannot multiply unless they invade a specific host cell.
191
What is the mechanism of action of acyclovir?
Chain termination is irreversible when virus mistakes acyclovir for dGTP
## Footnote
It is used primarily for HSV, VZV infections and is safe in pregnant women.
192
What is the role of Zidovudine (AZT) in antiviral therapy?
Inhibitor of reverse transcriptase
## Footnote
It is used in Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy (HAART).
193
Which antiviral drug is used for treating influenza?
Oseltamivir phosphate (Tamiflu)
## Footnote
Others include Zanamivir (Relenza) and Baloxavir marboxil (Xofluza).
194
What are the characteristics of benzodiazepines?
Anxiolytics, sleep aids
## Footnote
Examples include Diazepam and Midazolam.
195
What is the primary effect of aspirin?
COX-1 > COX-2 inhibition
## Footnote
Used for rheumatoid arthritis, fever, and clot prevention.
196
What type of drug is methotrexate?
Non-biologic DMARD
## Footnote
It reduces inflammation and damage to bones and joints.
197
What is the common mechanism of action for opioids?
Bind to receptors in brain and spinal cord
## Footnote
They modulate pain by reducing neurotransmitter release.
198
What are the effects of strong opioid agonists?
Analgesia, euphoria, sedation
## Footnote
Examples include Morphine and Hydromorphone.
199
What is naloxone used for?
Opioid antagonist
## Footnote
It completely reverses opioid effects in 1-3 minutes.
200
What distinguishes proto-oncogenes from tumor suppressors?
Proto-oncogenes promote cell division, tumor suppressors inhibit it
## Footnote
Their balance is critical for normal cell growth.
201
What are alkylating agents used for?
Cancer treatment, DNA alkylation or crosslinking
## Footnote
They are the largest and most diverse class of chemotherapeutic agents.
202
Which drug inhibits dihydrofolate reductase?
Methotrexate
## Footnote
It interferes with DNA/RNA synthesis and has cytotoxic actions primarily on bone marrow.
203
What are the primary organs where the drug concentrates?
Kidney, intestine, testes
204
Does the drug penetrate the blood-brain barrier effectively?
Poorly penetrates BBB
205
How is the drug excreted?
Slowly excreted in urine
206
What is the curative rate of the drug for testicular cancer?
85% - 95% curative
207
List three types of cancers treated with this drug.
* Ovarian cancer
* Lung cancer
* Esophageal cancer
* Gastric cancer
208
What is the alternative drug that is better tolerated?
Carboplatin
209
What enzyme does Methotrexate inhibit?
Dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR)
210
What is the primary action of Methotrexate?
Interferes with DNA/RNA synthesis
211
What are the cytotoxic actions of Methotrexate predominantly targeted at?
Bone marrow
212
What is one potential effect of Methotrexate on intestinal mucosa?
Ulceration of intestinal mucosa
213
Does Methotrexate cross the placenta?
Yes, interferes with embryogenesis
214
What immunosuppressive action does Methotrexate have?
Prevents clonal expansion of B & T lymphocytes
215
What is the anti-inflammatory action of Methotrexate?
Interferes with release of inflammatory cytokines
216
What class of drugs do 6-MP and 5-FU belong to?
Antimetabolites
217
Name one plant-based antineoplastic drug.
Vincristine or Paclitaxel (Taxol)
218
List two antibiotic antineoplastic drugs.
* Dactinomycin
* Doxorubicin
* Bleomycin
219
What is one example of a hormonal agent used in cancer treatment?
Corticosteroids or Tamoxifen or Fulvestrant
220
What are chemokines?
Chemotactic cytokines that signal leukocytes to move
221
What is a primary immunodeficiency disorder?
DiGeorge Syndrome: No Thymus (no T cells)
222
What type of hypersensitivity is associated with anaphylaxis?
Type I hypersensitivity
223
What is the immune response against normal, healthy tissue called?
Autoimmunity
224
Which condition is characterized by autoantibodies against DNA?
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
225
What are glucocorticoids used for?
Suppress immune response, mimic naturally occurring adrenal corticosteroids
226
What is the action of calcineurin inhibitors?
T-cell activation pathway
227
What is the main side effect of Azathioprine?
Leukocytopenia caused by bone marrow suppression
228
What type of agent is Cyclophosphamide?
Alkylating agent
229
What is the most commonly used alkylating agent in cancer chemotherapy?
Cyclophosphamide
230
Which drug is used for RH- mothers who give birth to RH+ children?
RhoGAM
231
Fill in the blank: _______ is a strong opioid agonist with a phenylpiperidine structure.
Fentanyl
