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Advanced Pharm Fall 24' > Pharm Final PPT Review > Flashcards

Pharm Final PPT Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is pharmacology?

A

The study of drugs and their effects on living organisms.

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2
Q

Define toxicology.

A

The study of the adverse effects of chemicals on living organisms.

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3
Q

What are agonists?

A

Substances that activate receptors to produce a biological response.

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4
Q

What are antagonists?

A

Substances that block or inhibit the action of agonists at receptors.

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5
Q

Differentiate between competitive and non-competitive antagonists.

A

Competitive antagonists bind reversibly to the same site as agonists; non-competitive antagonists bind to a different site.

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6
Q

What does pharmacodynamics study?

A

The effects of drugs on the body and their mechanisms of action.

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7
Q

What does pharmacokinetics study?

A

The absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination of drugs.

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8
Q

What is pharmacogenomics?

A

The study of how genes affect a person’s response to drugs.

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9
Q

Define ‘receptor’ in pharmacology.

A

A protein molecule that receives and transmits signals in response to drug binding.

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10
Q

What is the difference between endogenous and exogenous substances?

A

Endogenous substances are produced within the body; exogenous substances come from outside the body.

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11
Q

What are poisons?

A

Substances that can cause harm or death when introduced into the body.
Can be organic or inorganic

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12
Q

What are toxins?

A

Poisonous substances produced by living organisms.

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13
Q

Define ‘partial agonist.’

A

A substance that activates a receptor but produces a less than maximal response.

In the presence of a full agonist, it can act like an antagonist

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14
Q

What is an inverse agonist?

A

A substance that binds to a receptor and induces the opposite effect of an agonist. This effect can bring the response lower than the constituent level of activity.

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15
Q

What is stereoisomerism?

A

The existence of molecules with the same molecular formula but different spatial arrangements.

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16
Q

What is a physiologic antagonist?

A

A substance that counteracts the effects of another substance through different mechanisms.

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17
Q

What does the acronym ADME stand for in pharmacokinetics?

A

Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism
Elimination

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18
Q

What is the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation used for?

A

To calculate the pH of a solution based on the concentrations of acid and base. Remember, if pH<pka, the compound will be in its protonated form. If pH>pka, it will be unprotonated.
Protonated acidic drugs will be neutral and more likely cross barriers, while protonated basic drugs will have a positive charge and be less likely to cross barriers.

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19
Q

If pH < pKa, what form is favored?

A

The protonated form.
Protonated acidic drugs will be neutral and more likely cross barriers, while protonated basic drugs will have a positive charge and be less likely to cross barriers.

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20
Q

If pH > pKa, what form is favored?

A

The unprotonated form.
Unprotonated acidic drugs will be negatively charged and less likely to cross barriers, while unprotonated basic drugs will have a neutral charge and be more likely to cross barriers.

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21
Q

What is a dose-response curve?

A

A graph that shows the relationship between drug dose and the magnitude of response.

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22
Q

What is rational dosing?

A

The goal to achieve the desired beneficial effect with minimal adverse effects.

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23
Q

What does the term ‘volume of distribution’ refer to?

A

A pharmacokinetic parameter that describes the distribution of a drug throughout the body’s fluids and tissues.
Higher Vd means that the drug is more likely to leave the vascular space and settle into tissues

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24
Q

What is clearance in pharmacokinetics?

A

The rate at which a drug is removed from the body.

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25
Q

What is meant by ‘first order’ and ‘zero order’ elimination?

A

‘First order’ means the rate of elimination is proportional to the drug concentration; ‘zero order’ means the rate is constant regardless of concentration.

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26
Q

What is half-life?

A

The time required for the concentration of a drug in the blood to decrease by half.

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27
Q

What factors affect passive diffusion?

A

Molecular weight
pKa
Lipid solubility
Plasma protein binding

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28
Q

What are the four basic mechanisms of transmembrane signaling?

A
  • Direct crossing to intercellular receptor
  • Enzymatic action mediated by ligand binding
  • Tyrosine kinase activated receptors
  • G protein-coupled receptors*
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29
Q

What is the function of ligand-gated ion channels?

A

To open or close in response to the binding of a ligand, allowing ions to flow across the membrane.

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30
Q

What is the structure of GPCR?

A

Comprised of seven trans-membrane alpha-helices.

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31
Q

What is pleiotropy in pharmacology?

A

The ability of a drug to produce multiple effects through different mechanisms.

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32
Q

What are drug efflux transporters?

A

Proteins that transport drugs out of cells, often involved in multi-drug resistance.

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33
Q

What is the blood-brain barrier?

A

A selective permeability barrier that protects the brain from harmful substances.

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34
Q

What is biotransformation?

A

The process by which the body chemically alters a drug.

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35
Q

What are the two phases of biotransformation?

A

Phase I: Oxidation, Reduction, Hydrolysis
Phase II: Conjugation

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36
Q

What does cytochrome P450 do?

A

It is a family of enzymes involved in the metabolism of drugs.

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37
Q

What is the effect of P450 induction?

A

Increased metabolism of drugs, which can lead to decreased drug effects.

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38
Q

What is the effect of P450 inhibition?

A

Decreased metabolism of drugs, which can lead to increased drug effects.

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39
Q

What is the enteric nervous system?

A

The nervous system of the gastrointestinal tract.

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40
Q

What are the classes of neurotransmitters?

A

Esters
Monoamines
Amino Acids
Purines
Peptides
Inorganic gases

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41
Q

What is the primary action of sympathetic activity on the heart?

A

Accelerates heart rate via β1 and β2 receptors.

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42
Q

What is the primary action of parasympathetic activity on the heart?

A

Decelerates heart rate via M2 receptors.

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43
Q

What is the effect of alpha-1 receptor activation?

A

Smooth muscle contraction.

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44
Q

What is the mechanism of action of adrenergic agonists?

A

Stimulate adrenergic receptors to produce effects like increased heart rate and vasodilation.

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45
Q

What are direct-acting adrenergic agonists?

A

Albuterol
Clonidine
Dobutamine
Dopamine
Epinephrine
Isoproterenol
Norepinephrine

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46
Q

What are indirect-acting adrenergic agonists?

A

Amphetamine

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47
Q

What is a key characteristic of beta-blockers?

A

They decrease heart rate and cardiac output.

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48
Q

What is the action of nitrates on vascular smooth muscle?

A

They relax vascular smooth muscle by increasing cGMP.

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49
Q

What is the difference between dihydropyridines and non-dihydropyridines in calcium channel blockers?

A

Dihydropyridines are more selective for peripheral vasculature; non-dihydropyridines affect the heart more.

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50
Q

What does SLUDGE-M stand for in toxicology?

A

Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Diarrhea
Gastrointestinal distress
Emesis
Miosis

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51
Q

What is the primary treatment for organophosphate poisoning?

A

Atropine and Pralidoxime.

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52
Q

What is the action of cholinomimetics?

A

They mimic the action of acetylcholine.

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53
Q

What is a common side effect of cholinomimetics?

A

Bradycardia.

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54
Q

What is the primary therapeutic use of cholinomimetics?

A

Treating conditions like myasthenia gravis.

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55
Q

What is an adrenoceptor antagonist?

A

A substance that blocks the action of catecholamines at adrenoceptors

Examples include propranolol, which antagonizes β1 & β2 receptors.

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56
Q

What is the primary action of Propranolol?

A

Lowers blood pressure and prevents reflex tachycardia

It antagonizes β1 & β2 receptors and decreases cardiac output.

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57
Q

Name three α1 blockers.

A
  • Prazosin
  • Terazosin
  • Doxazosin
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58
Q

What do α1 blockers do?

A

Block α1 receptors in arterioles and venules, leading to vasodilation.

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59
Q

What is the mechanism of Minoxidil?

A

Opens K+ channels in smooth muscles, stabilizing potential and reducing contraction.

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60
Q

What does Hydralazine do?

A

Dilates arterioles through nitric oxide production.

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61
Q

What is the toxicity associated with vasodilators?

A

Headache, nausea, sweating, flushing.

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62
Q

What is Sodium Nitroprusside used for?

A

Hypertensive emergencies and cardiac failure.

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63
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Sodium Nitroprusside?

A

Relaxes vascular smooth muscle by breaking down in blood to release NO.

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64
Q

What is Captopril?

A

An ACE inhibitor used to treat heart failure.

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65
Q

What are the two types of heart failure?

A
  • Systolic failure – reduced cardiac function
  • Diastolic failure – reduced cardiac filling
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66
Q

What is the consequence of congestive heart failure?

A

Increased left ventricle pressure at end diastole leading to pulmonary edema.

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67
Q

What are the four factors that affect cardiac performance?

A
  • Preload
  • Afterload
  • Contractility
  • Heart Rate
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68
Q

What does Digoxin do?

A

Inhibits Na+/K+ ATPase, maintaining normal resting potential and acting as a positive inotrope.

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69
Q

What is the therapeutic range for Digoxin toxicity?

A

EC50 – 1 ng/mL, TC50 – 2 ng/mL.

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70
Q

What are phosphodiesterase inhibitors known for?

A

Inactivating cAMP and cGMP, providing positive inotropic effects.

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71
Q

What is the sinoatrial node?

A

The pacemaker of the heart located in the right atrium.

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72
Q

What is required for reentry in cardiac impulse conduction?

A
  • An obstacle (scar tissue)
  • Unidirectional block
  • Long enough conduction time
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73
Q

List the four classes of antiarrhythmic agents.

A
  • Class I – sodium channel blockade
  • Class II – sympatholytic
  • Class III – prolong action potential duration
  • Class IV – block cardiac calcium channel currents
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74
Q

What is Amiodarone known for?

A

The only antiarrhythmic with all four Vaughan-Williams’ class effects.

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75
Q

What is the first-line treatment for bradycardia?

A

Atropine.

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76
Q

What are the effects of H1 receptors?

A
  • Bronchoconstriction
  • Vasodilation
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77
Q

What is Diphenhydramine used for?

A

Type I hypersensitivity reactions.

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78
Q

What do leukotrienes do?

A

Cause bronchospasm, mucous secretion, and airway edema.

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79
Q

What is the action of Montelukast?

A

Inhibits binding of leukotrienes to their receptors.

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80
Q

What is the role of Omalizumab?

A

An anti-IgE monoclonal antibody that reduces asthma severity.

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81
Q

What is serotonin syndrome?

A

A potentially life-threatening condition caused by excessive serotonergic activity.

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82
Q

Name the three major classes of antidepressant medications.

A
  • Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
  • Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
  • Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
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83
Q

What is the therapeutic range for phenytoin?

A

10-20 mcg/ml for therapeutic, >30 mcg/ml for toxic.

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84
Q

What is the main effect of benzodiazepines in seizure treatment?

A

Sedation.

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85
Q

What is the therapeutic plasma level range for phenytoin?

A

10-20 mcg/ml

Free phenytoin levels range from 1-2.5 mcg/ml.

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86
Q

What are the toxic and lethal plasma levels for phenytoin?

A

Toxic: 30-50 mcg/ml; Lethal: >100 mcg/ml

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87
Q

What should be the next option for a status epilepticus patient not responding to Phenytoin or phenobarbital?

A

Benzodiazepines, consider intubation

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88
Q

Why are second generation antihistamines preferred over first generation in allergy symptom relief?

A

They do not cause sedation

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89
Q

Which of the following is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor?

A

Sertraline (Zoloft)

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90
Q

What are the phases of platelet activity in thrombogenesis?

A
  • Adhesion
  • Aggregation
  • Secretion
  • Cross-linking of adjacent platelets
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91
Q

What are the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of blood coagulation?

A

Intrinsic: Collagen, vWF; Extrinsic: TF

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92
Q

What is the treatment for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

A
  • Plasma transfusions
  • Treat underlying cause
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93
Q

What is the therapeutic range for Warfarin defined by INR?

A

Target: 2-3

94
Q

What are the types of insulin preparations?

A
  • Rapid acting: Lispro, aspart, glulisine
  • Short acting: Novolin, humulin
  • Intermediate acting: Neutral protamine Hagedorn, isophane
  • Long acting: Glargine, detemir
95
Q

What do biguanides, such as Metformin, do?

A

Block glucose formation in liver

96
Q

What is the mechanism of action of statins?

A
  • Decrease cellular cholesterol synthesis
  • Increase LDLR
  • Scavenge LDL from blood
97
Q

What type of antibiotic is Vancomycin considered?

A

Drug of last resort

98
Q

What are the adverse reactions of penicillin?

A
  • Hypersensitivity
  • Anaphylactic shock
  • Skin rash
  • Oral lesions
  • Hemolytic anemia
  • Interstitial nephritis
99
Q

What structural motif do penicillins and cephalosporins contain?

A

Beta-lactam ring

100
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Acyclovir?

A

Chain termination when virus mistakes Acyclovir for dGTP

101
Q

List the types of diabetes mellitus.

A
  • Type I: Insulin dependent
  • Type II: Non-insulin dependent
  • Type III: Other causes (e.g., pancreatitis)
  • Type IV: Gestational
102
Q

What is the role of vitamin K in coagulation?

A

Confers activity on prothrombin, factors VII, IX, and X

103
Q

What are the common side effects of fibrates?

A
  • GI upset
  • Arrhythmias
  • Elevated liver enzymes
  • Myopathy
104
Q

True or False: Direct thrombin inhibitors target thrombin in the clot.

A

t

105
Q

Fill in the blank: Aminocaproic acid is a _______.

A

Fibrinolytic inhibitor

106
Q

What is the primary function of HDL?

A

Scavenger of cholesterol from cells, other lipoproteins

107
Q

What are the two main mechanisms of action of antibiotics?

A
  • Inhibiting cell wall synthesis
  • Inhibition of protein synthesis
108
Q

What is the main therapeutic use of Oseltamivir phosphate?

A

Treatment of influenza

109
Q

What type of receptor is the insulin receptor?

A

Tyrosine kinase receptor

110
Q

What is the significance of C-peptide in relation to insulin?

A

No known function

111
Q

What are the common treatments for Parkinson’s disease?

A
  • Levodopa
  • Dopamine receptor agonists
  • MAOIs
  • COMTi
  • CNS antimuscarinics
112
Q

What is Primavanserin used for?

A

It is used for the treatment of Parkinson’s disease psychosis.

Primavanserin is an atypical antipsychotic that specifically targets serotonin receptors.

113
Q

Define Dyskinesia.

A

Dyskinesia refers to involuntary movements that can occur as a side effect of certain medications used to treat Parkinson’s disease.

114
Q

What are On/Off periods in Parkinson’s disease?

A

On periods refer to times when medication is effective and symptoms are controlled, while Off periods are characterized by a return of symptoms.

115
Q

Name two dopamine receptor agonists.

A
  • Pramipexole
  • Ropinirole

These medications mimic dopamine effects in the brain.

116
Q

What are MAOIs and name two examples.

A
  • Selegiline
  • Rasagiline

MAOIs are monoamine oxidase inhibitors used in the treatment of depression and Parkinson’s disease.

117
Q

What is the role of COMT inhibitors?

A

COMT inhibitors, such as Tolcapone and Entacapone, are used to prolong the effect of levodopa in Parkinson’s disease treatment.

118
Q

What are the effects of CNS antimuscarinics?

A

CNS antimuscarinics control dopaminergic release and are used to treat symptoms of Parkinson’s disease.

119
Q

How does Apomorphine function in Parkinson’s disease?

A

Apomorphine is used to treat ‘off’ periods and akinesia in Parkinson’s disease.

120
Q

What is Tetrabenazine and its function?

A

Tetrabenazine depletes dopamine and is used to treat movement disorders such as Huntington’s disease.

121
Q

True or False: Aspirin is used for severe pain.

A

False

Aspirin is widely used for mild to moderate pain, but not for severe pain.

122
Q

What are the clinical uses of Aspirin?

A
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
  • Fever
  • Clot prevention

Aspirin is also used for its antiplatelet effects.

123
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Glucocorticoids?

A

Glucocorticoids suppress inflammation and modulate immune responses.

124
Q

Fill in the blank: The primary action of Methotrexate is to inhibit __________.

A

[dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR)].

125
Q

What are the side effects of glucocorticoids?

A
  • Immunosuppression
  • Diabetes
  • Obesity
  • Muscle wasting
  • Hypertension
126
Q

What is the Gate Control Theory of pain?

A

It suggests that non-painful input closes the gates to painful input, preventing pain sensation.

127
Q

Name three types of opioid receptors.

A
  • μ (mu)
  • δ (delta)
  • κ (kappa)
128
Q

What is the effect of Naloxone?

A

Naloxone completely and dramatically reverses opioid effects.

129
Q

What is the main action of Antineoplastic drugs?

A

They kill rapidly dividing cells, targeting cancer.

130
Q

What does DMARD stand for?

A

Disease Modifying Anti-Rheumatic Drugs.

131
Q

What are the traditional treatments for neoplasia?

A
  • Surgery
  • Radiation
  • Chemotherapy
132
Q

What is Azathioprine used for?

A

It is an immunosuppressive agent that targets rapidly proliferating cells.

133
Q

What are the elements of adaptive immunity?

A
  • B cells
  • T cells
  • Antibodies
134
Q

Define Autoimmunity.

A

Autoimmunity is an immune response against normal, healthy tissue.

135
Q

What is the role of Interferons?

A

Interferons are antiviral proteins that may also act as cytokines.

136
Q

What is the function of Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)?

A

TNF is secreted by macrophages and T cells to kill tumor cells and regulate immune responses.

137
Q

What is the significance of the CYP3A4 enzyme in opioid pharmacokinetics?

A

CYP3A4 is involved in the metabolism of opioids, affecting their efficacy and safety.

138
Q

What does the term ‘hypersensitivity’ refer to?

A

Hypersensitivity is an overreaction of the immune system to innocuous stimuli.

139
Q

What is the primary action of Methotrexate?

A

It inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, interfering with DNA/RNA synthesis.

140
Q

What are the side effects of chemotherapy?

A
  • Nausea & Vomiting
  • Bone marrow depression
  • Alopecia
  • Immunosuppression
141
Q

What is the most commonly used alkylating agent in cancer chemotherapy?

A

Cyclophosphamide

Cyclophosphamide is widely used due to its effectiveness in treating various types of cancer.

142
Q

Which monoclonal antibody is used for RH- mothers who give birth to RH+ children?

A

RhoGAM

RhoGAM is administered to prevent Rh incompatibility in newborns.

143
Q

Fill in the blank: _______ is a strong opioid agonist with a phenylpiperidine structure.

A

Fentanyl

Fentanyl is known for its potency and is often used in pain management.

144
Q

Name one of the additional agents mentioned in the treatment context.

A

Sirolimus

Sirolimus is often used in organ transplantation and certain cancers.

145
Q

What is the role of Adalimumab in medical treatment?

A

TNF-a inhibitor

Adalimumab is used to treat autoimmune diseases by inhibiting tumor necrosis factor-alpha.

146
Q

Which drug is classified as a Thalidomide derivative?

A

Thalidomide

Thalidomide is used for multiple myeloma and certain inflammatory conditions.

147
Q

What type of drug is Omalizumab?

A

Monoclonal antibody

Omalizumab is used to treat asthma and allergic conditions.

148
Q

Which drug is commonly used in chemotherapy and is known as Taxol?

A

Paclitaxel

Paclitaxel is derived from the bark of the Pacific yew tree and is used in various cancer treatments.

149
Q

Identify one alternative to Methadone as an opioid.

A

Morphine

Morphine is one of the oldest opioids used for severe pain relief.

150
Q

True or False: Nitrosourea is the most commonly used alkylating agent in cancer chemotherapy.

A

False

The most commonly used alkylating agent is Cyclophosphamide, not Nitrosourea.

151
Q

What are the four histamine receptors in humans?

A

H1, H2, H3, H4

152
Q

What is the primary effect of H1 receptor activation?

A

Bronchoconstriction and vasodilation

153
Q

What type of drug is diphenhydramine?

A

H1 selective inverse agonist

154
Q

What is the main use of antihistamines?

A

Type I hypersensitivity reactions

155
Q

What are some effects of histamine on the nervous system?

A

Stimulates pain and itching

156
Q

What cardiovascular effects does histamine have?

A

↓ BP (vasodilation) and ↑ HR (reflex tachycardia)

157
Q

What is the ‘Triple Response’ associated with histamine?

A

Wheal and flare reaction

158
Q

What is a characteristic of first-generation H1 receptor antagonists?

A

Sedation

159
Q

Fill in the blank: H1 receptor antagonists resemble _______ drugs.

A

antimuscarinic

160
Q

What are some therapeutic uses of H1 receptor antagonists?

A
  • Sleep aids
  • Antinausea/antiemetic
  • Antiparkinsonism
161
Q

What are leukotrienes associated with in terms of respiratory function?

A

Bronchospasm, mucus secretion, airway edema

162
Q

What is the effect of sympathomimetics in asthma treatment?

A

Bronchodilation

163
Q

What is the role of omalizumab in asthma treatment?

A

Anti-IgE monoclonal antibody

164
Q

What is serotonin’s role in the nervous system?

A

Melatonin precursor and vomiting reflex

165
Q

Which serotonin receptor is targeted by buspirone?

A

5-HT1A

166
Q

What are the three major classes of antidepressant medications?

A
  • Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
  • Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
  • Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
167
Q

What is a common side effect of tricyclic antidepressants?

A

Anticholinergic effects

168
Q

What is the therapeutic range for phenytoin?

A

10-20 mcg/ml

169
Q

What should be administered next for a status epilepticus patient unresponsive to phenytoin?

A

Benzodiazepines

170
Q

What are the phases of thrombogenesis?

A
  • Adhesion
  • Aggregation
  • Secretion
171
Q

What are the two pathways of blood coagulation?

A
  • Intrinsic
  • Extrinsic
172
Q

What is the role of vitamin K in coagulation?

A

Confers activity on prothrombin and factors VII, IX, and X

173
Q

What is the primary action of statins?

A

Decrease cellular cholesterol synthesis

174
Q

What is the mechanism of action for fibrates?

A

Increase lipolysis in liver

175
Q

Fill in the blank: Ezetimibe is an _______ inhibitor.

A

intestinal sterol absorption

176
Q

What is the effect of niacin on lipoproteins?

A

Decreases VLDL, LDL and increases HDL

177
Q

What are the general properties of antimicrobial agents?

A
  • Modes of action
  • Spectrum of activity
  • Side effects
178
Q

What is the primary effect of penicillin?

A

Inhibiting cell wall synthesis

179
Q

What is a common adverse reaction to cephalosporins?

A

Hypersensitivity

180
Q

What is the main use of vancomycin?

A

Treatment of MRSA infections

181
Q

What are the characteristics of first-generation cephalosporins?

A

Better gram (+) activity

Used for UTI and Staph infections, alternative to penicillin with less allergy.

182
Q

What is vancomycin primarily used for?

A

Alternative to penicillin-resistant bacteria (MRSA)

Known as the ‘drug of last resort’ with a 10% rate of adverse reactions.

183
Q

What are common adverse reactions associated with vancomycin?

A

Irritating to tissues, chills/fever, ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, ‘red neck’ syndrome

These reactions can occur due to rapid infusion.

184
Q

What is the mechanism of action of polypeptide antibiotics like polymyxins?

A

Act as detergents, bind to phospholipids

Especially effective against gram-negative bacteria.

185
Q

What is the primary action of tetracyclines?

A

Inhibition of protein synthesis, bacteriostatic

They have the widest spectrum of activity but can destroy normal intestinal microbiota.

186
Q

Which drug is the prototype for macrolides?

A

Erythromycin

Semi-synthetic derivatives include Clarithromycin (Biaxin) and Azithromycin (Zithromax).

187
Q

What is the mechanism of action of rifamycin?

A

Inhibits mRNA synthesis

Important for treating tuberculosis and other infections.

188
Q

What do quinolones inhibit?

A

DNA gyrase (bacterial)

They are effective against both gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria.

189
Q

What is the structural similarity of sulfonamides?

A

Structurally similar to PABA

They act as antimetabolites in the synthesis of folic acid.

190
Q

What are the unique properties of viruses?

A

Infectious particles, obligate intracellular parasites

They cannot multiply unless they invade a specific host cell.

191
Q

What is the mechanism of action of acyclovir?

A

Chain termination is irreversible when virus mistakes acyclovir for dGTP

It is used primarily for HSV, VZV infections and is safe in pregnant women.

192
Q

What is the role of Zidovudine (AZT) in antiviral therapy?

A

Inhibitor of reverse transcriptase

It is used in Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy (HAART).

193
Q

Which antiviral drug is used for treating influenza?

A

Oseltamivir phosphate (Tamiflu)

Others include Zanamivir (Relenza) and Baloxavir marboxil (Xofluza).

194
Q

What are the characteristics of benzodiazepines?

A

Anxiolytics, sleep aids

Examples include Diazepam and Midazolam.

195
Q

What is the primary effect of aspirin?

A

COX-1 > COX-2 inhibition

Used for rheumatoid arthritis, fever, and clot prevention.

196
Q

What type of drug is methotrexate?

A

Non-biologic DMARD

It reduces inflammation and damage to bones and joints.

197
Q

What is the common mechanism of action for opioids?

A

Bind to receptors in brain and spinal cord

They modulate pain by reducing neurotransmitter release.

198
Q

What are the effects of strong opioid agonists?

A

Analgesia, euphoria, sedation

Examples include Morphine and Hydromorphone.

199
Q

What is naloxone used for?

A

Opioid antagonist

It completely reverses opioid effects in 1-3 minutes.

200
Q

What distinguishes proto-oncogenes from tumor suppressors?

A

Proto-oncogenes promote cell division, tumor suppressors inhibit it

Their balance is critical for normal cell growth.

201
Q

What are alkylating agents used for?

A

Cancer treatment, DNA alkylation or crosslinking

They are the largest and most diverse class of chemotherapeutic agents.

202
Q

Which drug inhibits dihydrofolate reductase?

A

Methotrexate

It interferes with DNA/RNA synthesis and has cytotoxic actions primarily on bone marrow.

203
Q

What are the primary organs where the drug concentrates?

A

Kidney, intestine, testes

204
Q

Does the drug penetrate the blood-brain barrier effectively?

A

Poorly penetrates BBB

205
Q

How is the drug excreted?

A

Slowly excreted in urine

206
Q

What is the curative rate of the drug for testicular cancer?

A

85% - 95% curative

207
Q

List three types of cancers treated with this drug.

A
  • Ovarian cancer
  • Lung cancer
  • Esophageal cancer
  • Gastric cancer
208
Q

What is the alternative drug that is better tolerated?

A

Carboplatin

209
Q

What enzyme does Methotrexate inhibit?

A

Dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR)

210
Q

What is the primary action of Methotrexate?

A

Interferes with DNA/RNA synthesis

211
Q

What are the cytotoxic actions of Methotrexate predominantly targeted at?

A

Bone marrow

212
Q

What is one potential effect of Methotrexate on intestinal mucosa?

A

Ulceration of intestinal mucosa

213
Q

Does Methotrexate cross the placenta?

A

Yes, interferes with embryogenesis

214
Q

What immunosuppressive action does Methotrexate have?

A

Prevents clonal expansion of B & T lymphocytes

215
Q

What is the anti-inflammatory action of Methotrexate?

A

Interferes with release of inflammatory cytokines

216
Q

What class of drugs do 6-MP and 5-FU belong to?

A

Antimetabolites

217
Q

Name one plant-based antineoplastic drug.

A

Vincristine or Paclitaxel (Taxol)

218
Q

List two antibiotic antineoplastic drugs.

A
  • Dactinomycin
  • Doxorubicin
  • Bleomycin
219
Q

What is one example of a hormonal agent used in cancer treatment?

A

Corticosteroids or Tamoxifen or Fulvestrant

220
Q

What are chemokines?

A

Chemotactic cytokines that signal leukocytes to move

221
Q

What is a primary immunodeficiency disorder?

A

DiGeorge Syndrome: No Thymus (no T cells)

222
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is associated with anaphylaxis?

A

Type I hypersensitivity

223
Q

What is the immune response against normal, healthy tissue called?

A

Autoimmunity

224
Q

Which condition is characterized by autoantibodies against DNA?

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

225
Q

What are glucocorticoids used for?

A

Suppress immune response, mimic naturally occurring adrenal corticosteroids

226
Q

What is the action of calcineurin inhibitors?

A

T-cell activation pathway

227
Q

What is the main side effect of Azathioprine?

A

Leukocytopenia caused by bone marrow suppression

228
Q

What type of agent is Cyclophosphamide?

A

Alkylating agent

229
Q

What is the most commonly used alkylating agent in cancer chemotherapy?

A

Cyclophosphamide

230
Q

Which drug is used for RH- mothers who give birth to RH+ children?

A

RhoGAM

231
Q

Fill in the blank: _______ is a strong opioid agonist with a phenylpiperidine structure.

A

Fentanyl

Advanced Pharm Fall 24' (17 decks)

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