Pathology dep.2 Practice Questions - Semester 2

Question 1

Benign tumors in the lungs are more frequent than malignant tumors. (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 1

FALSE

Question 2

Etiology of peptic ulcer (2 answers correct):

a. ) Mycobacterium
b. ) Candida Albicans
c. ) H. Pylori
d. ) Hyperacidity

Answer 2

c. ) H. Pylori

d. ) Hyperacidity

Question 3

Well differentiated squamous cell carcinoma can be identified by extensive mucin production. (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 3

FALSE

Not specific sign of malignancy

Question 4

Mesothelioma (2 Correct):

a. ) is of squamous cell origine
b. ) is of cuboidal mesothelial cell origin
c. ) may show sarcomatous spindle cell differentiation
d. ) is a benign tumor

Answer 4

b. ) is of cuboidal mesothelial cell origin

c. ) may show sarcomatous spindle cell differentiation

Question 5

select the true statements ( 2 correct ):

a. ) in interstitial pneumonia there is an productive cough
b. ) in lobar pneumonia airspaces are filled with homogenous exudate
c. ) in bronchial pneumonia there is no sputum
d. ) in bronchial pneumonia there is extensive mucous production and suppurative exudation

Answer 5

b. ) in lobar pneumonia airspaces are filled with homogenous exudate
d. ) in bronchial pneumonia there is extensive mucous production and suppurative exudation

Question 6

Primary sclerosing cholangitis is frequently associated with IBDs, especially ulcerative colitis.
(TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 6

TRUE

Question 7

Airway remodelling includes all EXCEPT :

a. ) basement membrane fibrosis and vascularization of submucosa
b. ) hypertrophy of submucosal glands
c. ) fibrosis of submucosa
d. ) goblet cell metaplasia
e. ) hypertrophy and hyperplasia of bronchial smooth muscle

Answer 7

c.) fibrosis of submucosa (False)

Airway Remodelling:

1. Epithelial change- increase glands
2. Increase SMC
3. Increase Fibroblasts / Myofibroblasts
4. Subepithelial fibrosis (BM)
5. Vascularization (angiogenesis)

Question 8

degeneration or absence of ganglion cells in the myenteric plexus is typical in :

a. ) celiac disease
b. ) terminal ileitis
c. ) malabsorption syndrome
d. ) chronic ulcerative colitis
e. ) congenital megacolon

Answer 8

e.) Congenital megacolon (Consequence of Hirschsprung disease)

Question 9

Characteristic for lung TB EXCEPT :

a. ) typical in secondary TB is the apical simones foci
b. ) includes granuloma formation
c. ) eosinophils dominate in the granuloma
d. ) can cause miliary TB through hematogenous spread e.) can form cavitation

Answer 9

c.) eosinophils dominate in the granuloma

Question 10

typical for lung carcinoma : ( 2 correct)

a. ) often given metastasis in skeletal muscle
b. ) diagnosed in early state
c. ) often give metastasis in brain
d. ) often is an occult carcinoma

Answer 10

c.) often give metastasis in brain
d.) often is an occult carcinoma
( cancer cells in sputum but yet no cancer found in lungs )

Question 11

Which carcinoma does NOT exist in the lung ?

a. ) myxoma
b. ) squamous cell carcinoma
c. ) neuroendocrine carcinoma
d. ) small cell carcinoma
e. ) large cell carcinoma

Answer 11

a. ) myxoma

* Heart

Question 12

Important histological difference between tuberculosis and sarcoidosis?

a. ) Caseation
b. ) Presence of Lymphocytes
c. ) Presence of Granulocytes
d. ) Type of langerhans cells

Answer 12

a.) Caseation

Question 13

Blood aspiration and hemorrhagic pneumonia have the same histological appearance (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 13

FALSE

Question 14

True for BASC (bronchioalveolar stem cells):

a. ) at the bronchoalveolar junction
b. ) multipotent stem cells involved in clara cell and alveolar epithelial cell regeneration
c. ) may be precursor for squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma
d. ) all of them

Answer 14

d.) all of them

a. ) at the bronchoalveolar junction
b. ) multipotent stem cells involved in clara cell and alveolar epithelial cell regeneration
c. ) may be precursor for squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma

Question 15

Possible cause of pulmonary hypertension ( 2 correct):

a. ) bronchopneumonia
b. ) emphysema
c. ) chronic renal failure
d. ) pulmonary fibrosis

Answer 15

b. ) emphysema

d. ) pulmonary fibrosis

Question 16

in which tumor there is hoarseness (2 correct) :

a. ) laryngeal papilloma
b. ) glottis carcinoma
c. ) bronchial carcinoma
d. ) tongue tumor

Answer 16

a. ) laryngeal papilloma

b. ) glottis carcinoma

Question 17

which carcinoma is typical in non-smokers ?

a. ) large cell carcinoma
b. ) adenocarcinoma
c. ) small cell carcinoma
d. ) neuroendocrine carcinoma
e. ) squamous cell carcinoma

Answer 17

b.) adenocarcinoma

Question 18

Characteristic for carcinoid tumors (2 correct) :

a. ) penetrate bronchial wall and fan out in pulmonary interstitium
b. ) given frequent distal metastasis
c. ) are nests of uniform , regular round cells with salt and pepper appearance
d. ) are usually peripheral lesions of the pleura

Answer 18

a. ) penetrate bronchial wall and fan out in pulmonary interstitium
c. ) are nests of uniform , regular round cells with salt and pepper appearance

Question 19

Possible Cause of Macronodular Cirrhosis:

a. ) PBC
b. ) Mushroom Poisoning
c. ) Alcoholic Liver Disease
d. ) Chronic Congestion

Answer 19

b.) Mushroom Poisoning

Question 20

Pneumothorax can be caused by :

a. ) rib fracture
b. ) thoracic trauma
c. ) bullae emphysema
d. ) all true

Answer 20

d.) all true

a. ) rib fracture
b. ) thoracic trauma
c. ) bullae emphysema

Question 21

Hypersensitivity pneumonia ( 2 correct):

a. ) is an allergic reaction involving bronchial and alveolar tissue
b. ) is an allergic reaction involving alveolar tissue and pulmonary interstitium
c. ) includes hypersensitivity type III and IV
d. ) includes hypersensitivity type I and II

Answer 21

b. ) is an allergic reaction involving alveolar tissue and pulmonary interstitium
c. ) includes hypersensitivity type III and IV

Question 22

common site of metastasis from Lung carcinoma : (2 correct)

a. ) adrenal glands
b. ) brain
c. ) kidney
d. ) spleen

Answer 22

a. ) adrenal glands

b. ) brain

Question 23

An erosion of the stomach mucosa is a defect reaching as far as the submucosa. (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 23

FALSE

*Not deeper than muscularis mucosa

Question 24

Typical for barrett’s esophagus (2):

a. ) Caused by HPV infection
b. ) leads to squamous cell carcinoma
c. ) leads to adenocarcinoma
d. ) Caused by Reflux

Answer 24

c. ) leads to adenocarcinoma

d. ) Caused by Reflux

Question 25

Characteristic for laryngeal papilloma EXCEPT :

a. ) mainly in real vocal cords
b. ) regular stratified squamous epithelium
c. ) greater than 1 cm
d. ) benign tumor
e. ) gives metastasis

Answer 25

e.) gives metastasis

Benign

Question 26

Small cell carcinomas typically : ( 3 correct )

a. ) grow in the submucosa around bronchi in a circumferential fashion
b. ) cells are of cuboidal shape with prominent nuclei
c. ) cells are of small round or spindle like shape
d. ) the most common mutations found are : MYC, p53 and Rb

Answer 26

a. ) grow in the submucosa around bronchi in a circumferential fashion
c. ) cells are of small round or spindle like shape
d. ) the most common mutations found are : MYC, p53 and Rb

Question 27

Lung abscess ( 3 correct ):

a. ) Involves extensive anaerobic bacterial replication within lung parenchyma
b. ) usually involves anaerobic bacteria
c. ) can be due to aspiration pneumonia , necrotizing pneumonia or septic embolism
d. ) commonly in right upper lobe, posterior segment

Answer 27

b. ) usually involves anaerobic bacteria
c. ) can be due to aspiration pneumonia , necrotizing pneumonia or septic embolism
d. ) commonly in right upper lobe, posterior segment

*we talk about unconscious hospitalized and lying patients here !

Question 28

It can be a cause of pulmonary atelectasis, EXCEPT?

a. ) Bronchial Obstruction
b. ) Emphysema
c. ) Compression
d. ) Contraction

Answer 28

b.) Emphysema

Question 29

Which organ is typically affected by tumor embolism of renal carcinoma ?

a. ) lung
b. ) brain
c. ) contralateral kidney
d. ) liver
e. ) spleen

Answer 29

a.) lung

Question 30

NSIP : nonspecific interstitial pneumonia ( 2 correct )

a. ) is a transient pneumonia
b. ) is a chronic , fibrosing patchy or uniformly distributing interstitial diseases
c. ) lesions show temporal homogeneity
d. ) its of idiopathic origin

Answer 30

b. ) Is a chronic, fibrosing patchy or uniformly distributing interstitial diseases
d. ) its of idiopathic origin

Question 31

The most common type of tumor of the peritoneum is

a. ) Metastatic Sarcoma
b. ) Mesothelioma
c. ) Hemangioma
d. ) Lipoma
e. ) Metastatic Carcinoma

Answer 31

b.) Mesothelioma

Question 32

Characteristic for hypersensitivity pneumonia (2 correct):

a. ) consolidation of a whole lobe
b. ) peribronchial accentuation
c. ) damage caused is irreversible
d. ) mononuclear infiltrate and non-caseating granuloma formation

Answer 32

b.) peribronchial accentuation
d.) mononuclear infiltrate and non-caseating granuloma formation
(This is Pneumonitis)

Question 33

Common manifestation of post-primary TB ( 2 correct) :

a. ) Ghon complex
b. ) tuberculin reaction
c. ) tuberculotic osteomyelitis
d. ) Miliary TB

Answer 33

c.) tuberculotic osteomyelitis (Aka - Pott’s Disease)
d.) Miliary TB
( hematogenous spread -> caseous necrosis foci in all parenchymal organs)

Question 34

The most important cause of reflux esophagitis is H. pylori infection. (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 34

FALSE

*GERD

Question 35

Crohn’s diseases cannot occur in the rectum.(TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 35

FALSE

Question 36

The pneumonia caused by S. aureus is an atypical pneumonia (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 36

FALSE

Question 37

What is the most possible location of TB reactivation in lung ?

a. ) basis
b. ) bronchial cartilage
c. ) apex
d. ) hilus

Answer 37

c.) apex

Question 38

Morphological types of Cirrhosis EXCEPT:

a. ) Mixed
b. ) Micronodular
c. ) Focal
d. ) Macronodular

Answer 38

c.) Focal

FALSE

Question 39

Chronic esophagitis most commonly due to viral infection. (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 39

FALSE

*most common is GERD

Question 40

Adenocarcinoma can be of mucinous differentiation type producing copious amounts of mucus sputum. (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 40

TRUE

Question 41

Obstructive lung diseases are (2 correct) :

a. ) chronic bronchitis and bronchiectasis
b. ) ARDS and pneumoconiosis
c. ) emphysema and asthma
d. ) chest wall disorders and interstitial lung diseases

Answer 41

a. ) chronic bronchitis and bronchiectasis

c. ) emphysema and asthma

Question 42

Which change causes NO cor pulmonale ?

a. ) emphysema
b. ) lung fibrosis
c. ) stenosis of tricuspid valve
d. ) lung embolism
e. ) chronic bronchitis

Answer 42

c.) stenosis of tricuspid valve

Question 43

pneumonia caused by S.aureus:

a. ) has a risk of progressing to respiratory failure
b. ) is a common pathogen of healthy adults
c. ) is a common nosocomial and pediatric pathogen
d. ) complications are empyemas, abscess formation and endocarditis

Answer 43

c. ) is a common nosocomial and pediatric pathogen

d. ) complications are empyemas, abscess formation and endocarditis

Question 44

Typical composition of pleomorphic adenoma, EXCEPT:

a. ) epithelial cells : ductal and myoepithelial cells
b. ) myxoid , chondroid or mucoid ground substance
c. ) fibrous capsule
d. ) goblet cells

Answer 44

d.) goblet cells

*Pleomorphic adenoma is composed of:
Epithelial cells (duct / clumps or even spindle)
Myoepithelial cells
Mucoid ground substance (surround it)

Question 45

Leukoplakia in the oral cavity is a precancerous state (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 45

TRUE

*It is a squamous cell dysplasia of the tongue that most likely to progress to squamous cell metaplasia.

Question 46

in which tumor there is an intra and extracellular mucin accumulation ?

a. ) signet ring tumor
b. ) GIST
c. ) neuroendocrine tumor
d. ) adenocarcinoma

Answer 46

a.) signet ring tumor

Question 47

Match the numbers with the letters:

a. ) Silicosis
b. ) Asbestosis
c. ) both
d. ) neither

1) Bronchial carcinoma
2) Mesothelioma
3) Increased susceptibility to TB
4) Pneumoconiosis
5) Induce cor pulmonale

Answer 47

1) Bronchial carcinoma + c.) both
2) Mesothelioma +b.) Asbestosis
3) Increased susceptibility to TB + c.) both
4) Pneumoconiosis + c.) both
5) Induce cor pulmonale + c.) both

Question 48

In general the peptic ulcer are localized in the vicinity of the pylorus. (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 48

TRUE

More specifically - Mostly in the proximal duodenum but also in the pyloric antrum

Question 49

What type of Necrosis occurs in Pancreatitis?

a. Fat Necrosis
b. Coagulative Necrosis
c. Liquefactive Necrosis
d. Fibrinoid Necrosis

Answer 49

a.Fat Necrosis (of peripancreatic fat)

Official Answer from the department if 2 options choose Liquefactive as well

Question 50

Can cause dysentery :

a. ) e.coli
b. ) candida
c. ) shigella
d. ) salmonella
e. ) adenovirus

Answer 50

c.) shigella

Question 51

Low 1/3 rectal cancer gives most likely gives metastasis via:

a) the vena porta
b) the vena hepatica
c) the vena cava
d) the baston vein

Answer 51

Low 1/3 rectal cancer gives most likely gives metastasis via:

c) the vena cava
d) the baston vein (Prostate)

Question 52

A 40 year old man comes to the hospital with vomiting, fever etc. During his last hospitalization he was diagnosed with pancreatitis. What does that show?

a) Liquefactive necrosis
b) enzymatic necrosis
c) coagulative necrosis
d) Fibrinoid Necrosis

Answer 52

a) Liquefactive necrosis

b) enzymatic necrosis (Fat)

Question 53

what disease is NOT present in the small intestine ?

a. ) whipple diseases
b. ) dysentery
c. ) tuberculosis
d. ) crohn’s disease
e. ) abdominal typhus

Answer 53

b.) dysentery

Question 54

Which type of pneumonia is caused by COVID-19?(1)

a. ) Aspiration Pneumonia
b. ) Necrotizing Pneumonia
c. ) Pneumonia in the immunocompromised host
d. ) Community acquired acute Pneumonia
e. ) Community acquired atypical Pneumonia
f. ) Nosocomial Pneumonia
g. ) Chronic Pneumonia

Answer 54

e.) Community acquired atypical Pneumonia

Question 55

Which of the following belong to the neuroendocrine tumors? (2)

a. ) Papillary Thyroid Carcinoma
b. ) Pheochromocytoma
c. ) Papillary Renal Carcinoma
d. ) Small Cell Carcinoma

Answer 55

b. ) Pheochromocytoma

d. ) Small Cell Carcinoma

Question 56

Cor pulmonale is caused by:

a. ) pulmonary fibrosis
b. ) tricuspid stenosis
c. ) lobar bronchitis
d. ) viral pneumonia

Answer 56

a. ) pulmonary fibrosis

c. ) lobar bronchitis

Question 57

The pneumonia caused by the influenza virus is of fibrinous inflammatory type (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 57

FALSE
*atypical pneumonia - “known viral causes of atypical pneumonia include respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), influenza A and B, parainfluenza” Wiki

Question 58

What is the most common site for diverticula formation?

a. ) stomach
b. ) sigmoid colon
c. ) Colon
d. ) Small intestine

Answer 58

b.) sigmoid colon (and Rectum)

Question 59

Most common 2 causes of pancreatitis:

a. ) cholelithiasis
b. ) alcoholism
c. ) ischemia
d. ) bacterial infection

Answer 59

a. ) cholelithiasis

b. ) alcoholism

Question 60

Which condition can cause severe pulmonary bleeding ?

a. ) tuberculotic granuloma
b. ) bronchopneumonia
c. ) infarction
d. ) sarcoidosis

Answer 60

a. ) tuberculotic granuloma

* In bronchopneumonia there are sporadic minor bleedings

Question 61

Resolution ( 2 correct) :

a. ) enzymatic degradation of cell debris and fibroblast mediated organization
b. ) pulmonary edema
c. ) neutrophils in the interstitium
d. ) phagocytotic infiltration

Answer 61

a. ) enzymatic degradation of cell debris and fibroblast mediated organization
d. ) phagocytotic infiltration

Question 62

Select the true statement ( 2 correct ):

a. ) in bronchopneumonia the inflammation spreads around the biggest bronchi in the lobe
b. ) in bronchopneumonia the inflammation spreads diffusely along the bronchial tree
c. ) in lobar pneumonia the parenchyma of a lobe is diffusely inflamed
d. ) in lobar pneumonia the inflammation leads to segmental or lobar consolidation it affects the whole lobe

Answer 62

b. ) in bronchopneumonia the inflammation spreads diffusely along the bronchial tree
d. ) in lobar pneumonia the inflammation leads to segmental or lobar consolidation it affects the whole lobe

Question 63

Forms of alcoholic liver damage (2):

a) steatosis
b) PSC
c) acute fulminant hepatitis
d) hepatitis

Answer 63

a) steatosis

d) hepatitis

Question 64

Typical for grey hepatisation:

a. ) the infection shows temporal homogeneity
b. ) there is fibrinous exudate in the alveoli
c. ) happens on day 6 of lobar pneumonia
d. ) the alveoli are filled with neutrophils

Answer 64

b. ) there is fibrinous exudate in the alveoli

* Technically happens on day 5

Question 65

In response to pneumonia the pleura ( 2 correct):

a. ) remains usually unaffected except in infections with S.aureus
b. ) secretes copious amounts of pleural fluid rich in defensins
c. ) develops a fibrinous , fibrinopurulent pleuritis
d. ) organization of fibrous tissue may lead to scar formation and chronic restrictive pleuritis

Answer 65

c. ) develops a fibrinous , fibrinopurulent pleuritis
d. ) organization of fibrous tissue may lead to scar formation and chronic restrictive pleuritis
* Most likely in S. Pneumoniae Infection

Question 66

What disease is not present in the small intestine?
A. Whipple disease
B. Dysentery
C. tuberculosis
D. Crohn's disease
E. Abdominal typhus

Answer 66

B. Dysentery

Question 67

Which of the following confirm the diagnosis of PBC(2)?

a. ) segmental stenosis of hepatic duct on ERCP examination.
b. ) Inflammation of interlobular bile ducts in liver core biopsy.
c. ) Hepatocyte degeneration in the fine needle aspiration specimen
d. ) AMA positivity

Answer 67

b. ) Inflammation of interlobular bile ducts in liver core biopsy.
d. ) AMA positivity

Question 68

Restrictive diseases are characterized by limited airflow, increased resistance and obstruction (TRUE/FALSE).

Answer 68

FALSE

*Obstructive diseases

Question 69

which is the most common appendix tumor ?

a. ) adenocarcinoma
b. ) neuroendocrine tumor
c. ) schwannoma
d. ) malignant melanoma
e. ) lymphoma

Answer 69

b.) neuroendocrine tumor

Question 70

Multiple erosions in the gastric mucosa can be the reason for massive gastrointestinal bleeding. (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 70

FALSE

*Not massive - but bleeding do occur

Question 71

Autopsy of a patient who died in status asthmaticus shows:

a. ) panlobular emphysema
b. ) compensatory emphysema
c. ) hepatisation
d. ) increased lung volume

Answer 71

d.) increased lung volume

COPD = TLC rise

Question 72

Congestive Heart failure is the cause of pleural transudate. (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 72

TRUE

meaning Hydrothorax

Question 73

Which organs are involved in TB ?

a. ) skeletal muscle
b. ) heart muscle
c. ) pancreas
d. ) thyroid gland

Answer 73

b.) heart muscle

Also Lungs and Intestines

Question 74

shigella dysenteriae usually affects :

a. ) muscles
b. ) small intestine
c. ) large intestine
d. ) large vessels
e. ) peripheral nerves

Answer 74

c.) large intestine

Question 75

Can cause granulomatous infection of cervical lymph nodes EXCEPT:

a. ) sarcoidosis
b. ) TB
c. ) yersinia pestis
d. ) rheumatic fever

Answer 75

d. ) rheumatic fever

* Sarcoidosis is non-infectious but affects lymph nodes

Question 76

Esophageal cancer has a good prognosis. (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 76

FALSE

Question 77

Characteristic for adenocarcinoma : (2 correct)

a. ) growth peripherally
b. ) follows the same developmental sequence as squamous cell carcinoma
c. ) develops from atypical adenomatous hyperplasia over adenocarcinoma in situ to invasive adenocarcinoma
d. ) may arise from bronchoalveolar stem cells

Answer 77

a. ) growth peripherally
c. ) develops from atypical adenomatous hyperplasia over adenocarcinoma in situ to invasive adenocarcinoma

*d.) is yet an assumption: “It is postulated that BASCs
incur the initiating hit (for example, a somatic KRAS mutation) that enables these cells to escape normal checkpoint mechanisms and results in pulmonary adenocarcinomas.” Robbins 10E 539

Question 78

what is NOT a complication of peptic ulcer in the stomach ?

a. ) malabsorption
b. ) perforation
c. ) malignant transformation
d. ) bleeding
e. ) penetration

Answer 78

a.) malabsorption

Question 79

Prognostic Factor for Barrett’s Esophagus:

a. ) Gender
b. ) Size of the confluent lesions
c. ) Presence of Dysplasia
d. ) Size of the separate lesions

Answer 79

c.) Presence of Dysplasia

Question 80

lung carcinoma can be derived from both bronchial and alveolar epithelium. (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 80

TRUE

Question 81

where does the colon cancer gives its first metastasis via hematogenous spread:

a. ) in the brain
b. ) in the liver
c. ) in the lung
d. ) in the mesenteric lymph nodes
e. ) in the vertebrae

Answer 81

b.) in the liver

Question 82

Chronic bronchiolitis:(2)

a. ) is associated with asthma
b. ) is associated with chronic bronchitis
c. ) is a fibrous change in small airways
d. ) is goblet cell metaplasia in small airways

Answer 82

b. ) is associated with chronic bronchitis

d. ) is goblet cell metaplasia in small airways

Question 83

In chronic bronchiectasis ( 2 correct) :

a. ) there is an acute superimposed inflammation
b. ) there is peribronchial and bronchial fibrosis
c. ) the damage is reversible
d. ) complications are : bronchial wall destruction and abscess formation

Answer 83

b. ) there is peribronchial and bronchial fibrosis

d. ) complications are : bronchial wall destruction and abscess formation

Question 84

Characteristic for atypical pneumonia ( 2 correct ) :

a. ) Macrophagic and neutrophilic infiltration
b. ) Infiltration of : lymphocytes , plasma cells and histiocytes
c. ) Epithelial cell damage inhibits ciliary clearance in upper respiratory tract
d. ) Fibrous reaction of pulmonary interstitium

Answer 84

b. ) Infiltration of : lymphocytes , plasma cells and histiocytes
c. ) Epithelial cell damage inhibits ciliary clearance in upper respiratory tract

Question 85

Interstitial pneumonia is caused by ( 2 correct ) :

a. ) viral pneumonia
b. ) streptococcal pneumonia
c. ) pneumocystis carinii
d. ) staphylococcus

Answer 85

a. ) viral pneumonia

c. ) pneumocystis carinii

Question 86

Esophageal squamous cell carcinoma : ( 2 correct )

a. ) in the upper 1/3 of the esophagus
b. ) most common tumor of the esophagus
c. ) has a good prognosis
d. ) gives metastasis to abdominal lymph nodes.

Answer 86

a. ) in the upper 1/3 of the esophagus
b. ) most common tumor of the esophagus (Worldwide)

*ddx: Esophageal adenocarcinoma - lower 1/3, most common in the west

Question 87

Which one is correct for Adenocarcinoma in situ:

a. ) shows linistic growth
b. ) shows lipidic growth along the alveolar septa
c. ) provokes extensive desmoplastic reaction
d. ) is invasive

Answer 87

b.) shows lipidic growth along the alveolar septa

-> bronchoalveolar adenocarcinoma !

Question 88

Characteristic complication of lobar pneumonia:

a. ) glomerulonephritis
b. ) purulent lymphadenitis
c. ) pleuritis fibrinosa
d. ) pneumothorax
e. ) pulmonary embolism

Answer 88

c. ) pleuritis fibrinosa

* Fibrinous Inflammation of Pleura (can lead to adhesions)

Question 89

True for Crohn’s disease EXCEPT:

a. ) It can occur in childhood
b. ) Surgical complications commonly occur
c. ) Extraintestinal manifestations are uncommon
d. ) Any area of the GI tract can be affected

Answer 89

c.) Extraintestinal manifestations are uncommon

FALSE

Question 90

Fatty degeneration occurs most often in the liver, which plays an important part in fat metabolism, but it can be seen in the kidney and in skeletal muscles, as well.
(TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 90

TRUE

Question 91

In lung congestion (2) :

a. ) liver like consistency of the lung
b. ) RBC lysis
c. ) enzymatic degradation of cell debris
d. ) vascular congestion and neutrophil infiltration

Answer 91

b. ) RBC lysis

c. ) enzymatic degradation of cell debris

Question 92

In which region of the larynx is a carcinoma most common ?

a. ) in sinus piriformis
b. ) on the epiglottis
c. ) on aryepiglottic folds
d. ) on the vocal cords

Answer 92

d.) on the vocal cords

Question 93

Complete rupture of the wall of the esophagus is dominant feature of the following disease:

a. ) Achalasia
b. ) Mallory Weiss syndrome
c. ) Esophageal Varicosity
d. ) Boerhaave Syndrome
e. ) Barrett’s Esophagus

Answer 93

d.) Boerhaave Syndrome

Question 94

Bronchiectasis is dilation of bronchi and bronchioles due to destruction of muscle and elastic tissue associated with necrotizing infections (TRUE/FALSE).

Answer 94

TRUE

Question 95

Which neoplastic cells secrete mucus?:

a) clear cells
b) signet cells
c) small cell
d) squamous cell

Answer 95

b)signet cells

Question 96

where do abscesses occur in Thypus abdominalis ?

a. ) in the subserosa
b. ) in the mesenteric veins
c. ) in the lieberkühnsche crypts
d. ) in lamina muscularis
e. ) over the payer patches

Answer 96

e.) over the payer patches

Question 97

which statement is FALSE : the colon cancer

a. ) can give hematogenous metastasis especially to lung and liver.
b. ) can cause stenosis
c. ) can be palpable by digital rectal examination
d. ) most commonly occurs in the appendix
e. ) can be polypoid

Answer 97

d.) most commonly occurs in the appendix

Question 98

Characteristic in grey hepatisation :

a. ) fibrinous exudate in alveoli
b. ) seen on 6th day of pneumonia
c. ) the inflammation is equalized along the whole lobe
d. ) masses of neutrophils are seen in the alveoli

Answer 98

a.) fibrinous exudate in alveoli

seen on 6th day of pneumonia could be also true

Question 99

ARDS can occur due to intoxication, metabolic – and circulatory problems (TRUE/FALSE).

Answer 99

TRUE

Question 100

typical for bronchopneumonia : (2 correct)

a. ) directly attacks a lung lobe
b. ) fragile parenchyma
c. ) lung biopsy is necessary for diagnosis
d. ) purulent inflammation foci

Answer 100

b. ) fragile parenchyma

d. ) purulent inflammation foci

Question 101

A yellow hepatisation can be seen in :

a. ) tuberculosis
b. ) lobar pneumonia
c. ) bronchopneumonia
d. ) influenza pneumonia
e. ) aspiration pneumonia

Answer 101

b.) lobar pneumonia

Question 102

choose the pathogens causing atypical pneumonia ( 3 correct) :

a. ) mycoplasma
b. ) influenza virus , adenovirus, rubeola virus
c. ) S. aureus
d. ) chlamydia pneumoniae
e. ) klebsiella

Answer 102

a. ) mycoplasma
b. ) influenza virus , adenovirus, rubeola virus
d. ) chlamydia pneumoniae

*klebsiella=lobar

Question 103

Typical for grey hepatisation:

a. ) proteinus exudate in alveolar spaces
b. ) neutrophils in alveolar spaces
c. ) RBC lysis and persisting fibrinopurulent exudate
d. ) phagocytic clearance

Answer 103

c.) RBC lysis and persisting fibrinopurulent exudate

Question 104

Of the lung cancers the worst prognosis has ….

a. ) small cell carcinoma
b. ) bronchoalveolar carcinoma
c. ) adenocarcinoma
d. ) non-keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma
e. ) keratinizing squamous cell carcinoma

Answer 104

a.) small cell carcinoma

Question 105

Surfactant production is positively influenced by : (3 correct)

a. ) type II pneumocytes
b. ) thyroxine
c. ) insulin
d. ) corticosteroids

Answer 105

a. ) type II pneumocytes
b. ) thyroxine
d. ) corticosteroids

Question 106

Malignant mesothelioma:

a. ) is related to asbestos inhalation
b. ) spreads along pleural surfaces
c. ) direct invasion of thoracic wall
d. ) all of them

Answer 106

d.) all of them

a. ) is related to asbestos inhalation
b. ) spreads along pleural surfaces
c. ) direct invasion of thoracic wall

Question 107

Typical for TB EXCEPT :

a. ) typical for the secondary form of TB is the simonsche foci
b. ) includes granuloma formation
c. ) may result in formation of caverna
d. ) can result in military TB by hematogenous spread
e. ) eosinophils are the dominant cells in the granulomas

Answer 107

e.) eosinophils are the dominant cells in the granulomas

Question 108

Which one is a NOT a pneumoconiosis?

a. ) Anthracosis
b. ) Silicosis
c. ) Sarcoidosis
d. ) Asbestosis

Answer 108

c.) Sarcoidosis

Question 109

In cervicofacial actinomycosis there is a broadlike infiltration (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 109

TRUE

Question 110

Which conditions may cause compression atelectasis(2)?

a. ) Pneumothorax
b. ) Pulmonary Edema
c. ) Pleural Carcinosis
d. ) Emphysema

Answer 110

a. ) Pneumothorax
c. ) Pleural Carcinosis
* Any mass in the pleural cavity that presses the lungs

Question 111

Paraneoplastic syndromes are MOST likely caused by : ( 2 correct)

a. ) small cell carcinoma
b. ) large cell carcinoma
c. ) carcinoid ( neuroendocrine) tumors
d. ) adenocarcinomas

Answer 111

a. ) small cell carcinoma

c. ) carcinoid ( neuroendocrine) tumors

Question 112

Kidney tuberculosis usually results from :

a. ) hematogenous spread from the lung
b. ) non is correct
c. ) lymphogenic spread from the intestines
d. ) fracture of a vertebral tuberculosis
e. ) ascending from the ureters

Answer 112

a.) hematogenous spread from the lung

Question 113

In achalasia the cardia is unable to close.

TRUE/FALSE

Answer 113

FALSE

*LES cant relax

Question 114

Cause of ARDS is edema in alveolar wall which impairs gas exchange. (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 114

FALSE

Hyaline is the cause of impaired gas exchange

Question 115

Cause of bronchiectasis can be (2 correct) :

a. ) bronchial asthma
b. ) bronchial pneumonia
c. ) mucoviscidosis
d. ) chronic bronchitis

Answer 115

c. ) mucoviscidosis

d. ) chronic bronchitis

Question 116

Shigella dysentery usually involves:

a. ) muscles
b. ) peripheral nerves
c. ) small intestine
d. ) large vessels
e. ) large intestine

Answer 116

e.) large intestine

Question 117

typical for small cell carcinoma of the lung ( 2 correct )

a. ) most have metastasized by the time of diagnosis
b. ) grow on the epithelial cells lining the alveolar space
c. ) histologically they show a scant cytoplasm , granular chromatin , frequent mitotic figures and crush-artifacts
d. ) they are smaller than T-lymphocytes

Answer 117

a. ) most have metastasized by the time of diagnosis

c. ) histologically they show a scant cytoplasm , granular chromatin , frequent mitotic figures and crush-artifacts

Question 118

Precancerous lesions of the stomach(2):

a. ) Intestinal Metaplasia
b. ) Erosion
c. ) Fundic Gland Polyp
d. ) G- Cell Hyperplasia

Answer 118

a. ) Intestinal Metaplasia

d. ) G- Cell Hyperplasia

Question 119

True for chronic bronchitis EXCEPT :

a. ) mucous gland hyperplasia
b. ) goblet cell metaplasia in small airways
c. ) associated with emphysema and smoking
d. ) smooth muscle hyperplasia

Answer 119

d.) smooth muscle hyperplasia

Question 120

Typical for barrett’s esophagus :

a. ) HPV infection
b. ) leads to squamous cell carcinoma
c. ) leads to adenocarcinoma
d. ) leads to erosions

Answer 120

c. ) leads to adenocarcinoma
* Esophageal squamous cell carcinoma has other multiple risk factors involving irritation - Alcohol, Tobacco, Very Hot drinks, etc.

Question 121

Consequences of H. Pylori Infection. EXCEPT (1):

a. ) H. Pylori Infection damages directly the chief cells and parietal cells
b. ) H. Pylori Infection may lead to gastric ulceration
c. ) H. Pylori Infection may be a predisposing factor to gastric MALToma
d. ) H. Pylori Infection may lead to chronic gastritis
e. ) H. Pylori Infection may have a role in gastric cancer development.

Answer 121

a.) H. Pylori Infection damages directly the chief cells and parietal cells
(FALSE)

Question 122

Common complications of lung tumors EXCEPT(1) :

a. ) pleural and pericardial effusion
b. ) swollen virchow’s lymph node
c. ) endocarditis
d. ) hemoptysis , cough , chest pain
e. ) paraneoplastic lesions

Answer 122

c.) endocarditis

Question 123

Granulocytic ,fibrinous alveolar exudate due to :

a. ) viral pneumonia
b. ) mycoplasma pneumonia
c. ) bacterial pneumonia
d. ) caseous pneumonia
e. ) pneumocystic carcnii pneumonia

Answer 123

c.) bacterial pneumonia

Question 124

most common cause of lobar pneumonia :

a. ) streptococcus pneumoniae
b. ) staphylococcus aureus
c. ) legionella
d. ) klebsiella

Answer 124

a.) streptococcus pneumoniae

Question 125

Small cell carcinoma ( 2 correct) :

a. ) centrally located solid gray masses extending in lung parenchyma
b. ) respond well to chemotherapy
c. ) are easily resectable
d. ) grow slowly and give extensive metastasis

Answer 125

a. ) centrally located solid gray masses extending in lung parenchyma
b. ) respond well to chemotherapy

Question 126

Characteristic for squamous cell carcinoma:

a. ) lepidic growth
b. ) linistic growth
c. ) keratin pearls in well differentiated squamous cell carcinoma
d. ) gives early and widespread metastasis

Answer 126

c.) keratin pearls in well differentiated squamous cell carcinoma

(lepidic = AIS)

Question 127

Typical location for empyema formation:

a) Spleen
b) Brain
c) Gallbladder
d) Testicle

Answer 127

c)Gallbladder

Question 128

Most of the laryngeal tumors are subglottic (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 128

FALSE

*Vocal Cords

Question 129

Whipple’s diseases causes malabsorption. (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 129

TRUE

Question 130

Most neuroendocrine tumors originate from the appendix and the ileum. (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 130

TRUE

Question 131

Correct for atypical pneumonia :

a. ) extensive productive cough / sputum
b. ) patchy infiltration in alveolar septa and pulmonary interstitium
c. ) diffuse consolidation
d. ) homogenous eosinophilic alveolar exudate

Answer 131

b. ) patchy infiltration in alveolar septa and pulmonary interstitium
* Atypical = Interstitial

Question 132

In compression atelectasis:

a. ) air is absorbed from the alveoli
b. ) an foreign body compresses the main bronchi
c. ) pleural effusion or hemothorax compresses the pleural cavity and the lung
d. ) the damage is potentially irreversible

Answer 132

c.) pleural effusion or hemothorax compresses the pleural cavity and the lung

Question 133

Budd-Chiari Syndrome revolves around Thrombosis of intrahepatic branches of the Portal vein (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 133

FALSE

Hepatic Veins of IVC

Question 134

Obstructive diseases are characterised by reduced expansion and reduced total lung capacity .(TRUE/FALSE).

Answer 134

FALSE

*Restrictive diseases

Question 135

Which disease can cause cavernous pulmonary lesions (2)?

a. ) Sarcoidosis
b. ) Hamartoma
c. ) Wegener’s Granulomatosis
d. ) Squamous cell carcinoma

Answer 135

c. ) Wegener’s Granulomatosis

d. ) Squamous cell carcinoma

Question 136

characteristic for carcinoid syndrome EXCEPT :

a. ) is caused by neuroendocrine tumor of the lung and colon.
b. ) is due to secretion of ADH, ACTH and glucocorticoids
c. ) is due to secretion of serotonin, bradykinin ,histamine and tachycardin
d. ) causes , flushing , diarrhea , increased heart rate and low blood pressure

Answer 136

b.) is due to secretion of ADH, ACTH and glucocorticoids

Question 137

Which is NOT a characteristic histological finding for lung adenocarcinoma?

a. ) Lymphovascular Invasion
b. ) Papillary structures
c. ) Keratin Pearls
d. ) Lepidic Growth pattern

Answer 137

c. ) Keratin Pearls

* Typical for squamous cell carcinomas only

Question 138

Can the Liver go through true anemic Infarction? (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 138

TRUE - Very rare because of Dual Blood supply - Robbins 9E page 93. Also Zahn Infarct (Intrahepatic) = Pseudo-Anemic Infarct - No Necrosis, only Atrophy.

Question 139

characteristic for bronchopneumonia (2 correct):

a. ) multifocal purulent inflammation
b. ) affects 1 lobe only
c. ) lung biopsy is necessary for diagnosis
d. ) parenchyma becomes breakable

Answer 139

a.) multifocal purulent inflammation
d.) parenchyma becomes breakable
(not only 1 lobe, could be more)

Question 140

In which diseases enlarged alveolar spaces and destruction of alveolar septa can be seen ?

a. ) alveolar proteinosis
b. ) chronic bronchitis
c. ) pulmonary hypertension
d. ) lung infarction
e. ) emphysema

Answer 140

e.) emphysema

Question 141

which carcinoma has the strongest association with smoking ?

a. ) large cell carcinoma
b. ) adenocarcinoma
c. ) small cell carcinoma
d. ) neuroendocrine carcinoma
e. ) squamous cell carcinoma

Answer 141

e.) squamous cell carcinoma

Small cell is associated as well but not as strongly

Question 142

what can be the complication of an prolonged antibiotic therapy ?

a. ) dysentery
b. ) acute atrophic gastritis
c. ) achalasia
d. ) acute gastroenteritis
e. ) pseudomembranous colitis

Answer 142

e. ) pseudomembranous colitis

* Allowed by killing normal flora giving advantage to clostridium difficile.

Question 143

Common metastasis of lung cancer EXCEPT (1) :

a. ) hilar and mediastinal lymph nodes
b. ) brain bone and liver
c. ) brain , pancreas and liver
d. ) adrenal gland

Answer 143

c.) brain , pancreas and liver

Question 144

Meckel’s diverticulum can sometimes be found in the gastric mucosa. (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 144

FALSE
*t can contain gastric or pancreatic heterotopia : so tissue that should not be there , but its always in the small intestine , inflammation may mimic appendicitis.

Question 145

in this organ the most common tumor is of stratified squamous origin:

a. ) stomach
b. ) appendix
c. ) large colon
d. ) esophagus
e. ) pancreas

Answer 145

d.) esophagus

Question 146

Most typical histological structure of HCC?

a. ) Papillary
b. ) Glandular
c. ) Nested
d. ) Trabecular

Answer 146

d.) Trabecular

according to robbins - green box about pathophysiology of HCC

Question 147

Primary and metastatic lung adenocarcinoma are always distinguishable by histological appearance.(TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 147

FALSE

Immunocytohisotology is needed

Question 148

Correct for hepatocellular carcinoma:

a) composed of alternating rows of hepatocytes and sinusoids
b) oral contraceptive contributes to its initiation
c) constitute the most frequent tumor of the liver
d) Bile canaliculi within the tumor mass

Answer 148

Correct for hepatocellular carcinoma:

c) constitute the most frequent tumor of the liver

Question 149

Possible cause of Bronchiectasis ?

a. ) obstruction and infection
b. ) dilation and infection
c. ) compression and infection
d. ) emphysema and infection

Answer 149

a.) obstruction and infection

Question 150

Pancost tumors ( 2correct):

a. ) are located in the base of the lung
b. ) are located in the apex of the lung
c. ) compress intercostal nerves causing diffuse dermatome pain
d. ) compress the cervical plexus causing ulnar nerve pain

Answer 150

b.) are located in the apex of the lung
d.) compress the cervical plexus causing ulnar nerve pain
Pancoast Tumors = located at the apex of lungs

Question 151

Typical for squamous cell carcinoma of the lung (2 correct):

a. ) generally associated with HPV infections
b. ) generally a form of central bronchial carcinoma
c. ) this lung cancer has the worst prognosis
d. ) occurs due to squamous metaplasia

Answer 151

b. ) generally a form of central bronchial carcinoma
d. ) occurs due to squamous metaplasia

( small cell is the worst! )

Question 152

Characteristic for Löfflers pneumonia

a. ) it’s an pulmonary eosinophilia
b. ) it’s a transient autoimmune disease
c. ) it involves eosinophilic infiltration , alveolar septal thickening
d. ) all of them

Answer 152

d.) all of them

a. ) it’s an pulmonary eosinophilia
b. ) it’s a transient autoimmune disease
c. ) it involves eosinophilic infiltration , alveolar septal thickening

Question 153

Complication of chronic bronchitis may be:

a. ) chronic cor pulmonale
b. ) bronchiectasis
c. ) respiratory failure
d. ) chronic congestion of lung

Answer 153

a.) chronic cor pulmonale

Question 154

peptic ulcer are caused exclusively in the stomach (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 154

FALSE

More specifically - Mostly in the proximal duodenum but also in the pyloric antrum

Question 155

typical for carcinoid tumor EXCEPT (1):

a. ) arises from alveolar epithelial cell
b. ) arises from diffuse neuroendocrine cell population
c. ) is easily resectable
d. ) shows obstructive, intraluminal growth pattern

Answer 155

a.) arises from alveolar epithelial cell

Question 156

Does not cause Melena:

a. ) Esophageal varices
b. ) Gastric ulcer
c. ) Gastric cancer
d. ) Chronic atrophic gastritis
e. ) Colon cancer

Answer 156

d. ) Chronic atrophic gastritis

* Right sided colon cancer can result in melena

Question 157

The synonym of barrett’s esophagus is hiatus hernia.

TRUE/FALSE

Answer 157

FALSE

*metaplasia in lower part of oesophagus

Question 158

is NOT included in the possible complications of intestinal helminthiasis:

a. ) eosinophilia
b. ) anemia
c. ) perforation
d. ) ileus
e. ) icterus

Answer 158

c. ) perforation

* Very rare, the rarest among the list

Question 159

In the background of a typical tracheobronchitis is usually an acute viral infect (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 159

TRUE

Question 160

Pneumothorax is cause by atelectasis (TRUE/FALSE).

Answer 160

FALSE

Opposite - Atelectasis is cause by pneumothorax

Question 161

Horners syndrome ( 2 correct) :

a. ) contralateral en-opthalmus , ptosis , miosis , anhidrosis.
b. ) ipsilateral en-opthalmus (eyeball depression) , ptosis, miosis ,anhidrosis.
c. ) due to compression of sympathetic trunk by a lung carcinoma
d. ) due to compression of cervical sympathetic nerves by a pantumor

Answer 161

b.) ipsilateral en-opthalmus (eyeball depression) , ptosis, miosis ,anhidrosis.
d.) due to compression of cervical sympathetic nerves by a pantumor
(Pancoast tumor pressing Cervical Sympathetic Trunk!)

Question 162

Which microscopic feature is characteristic for ARDS ?

a. ) hyaline membrane
b. ) necrosis
c. ) granuloma
d. ) intra-alveolar mucin

Answer 162

a.) hyaline membrane

Question 163

BOOP : bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia ( 2 correct)

a. ) subpleural , peribronchial patchy consolidations
b. ) affects a whole lobe
c. ) diffuse mucous plug obliteration of small airways
d. ) polypoid plugs of loose organizing connective tissue within the alveolar ducts

Answer 163

a. ) subpleural , peribronchial patchy consolidations

d. ) polypoid plugs of loose organizing connective tissue within the alveolar ducts

Question 164

Large cell carcinoma ( 2 correct) :

a. ) shows mainly squamous cell differentiation
b. ) does not show squamous or glandular differentiation
c. ) responds well to chemotherapy
d. ) ample cytoplasm , large nuclei and vesicular chromatin

Answer 164

b. ) does not show squamous or glandular differentiation

d. ) ample cytoplasm , large nuclei and vesicular chromatin

Question 165

In chronic atrophic gastritis the gastric mucosa shows paving stone appearance (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 165

FALSE

*Crohn Disease presents with Cobblestone patterns could be the misleading element here.

Question 166

Most Common complication of Gastric Ulcer:

a) Perforation
b) Bleeding
c) Malignant Transformation
d) Penetration

Answer 166

b) Bleeding

Question 167

Cause of bronchiectasis can be (2 good)

a. ) chronic bronchitis
b. ) ARDS
c. ) mucoviscidosis
d. ) pulmonary hypertension

Answer 167

a. ) chronic bronchitis

c. ) mucoviscidosis

Question 168

Complication of esophageal carcinoma EXCEPT :

a. ) achalasia
b. ) perforation
c. ) dysphagia
d. ) aspiration
e. ) tracheoesophageal

Answer 168

a. ) achalasia

* LES cant relax

Question 169

characteristic for clostridium difficile EXCEPT :

a. ) has mild often asymptomatic course
b. ) infects the colon
c. ) causes fibrinous inflammation
d. ) is generally iatrogenic
e. ) causes acute inflammation

Answer 169

a.) has mild often asymptomatic course

Question 170

Where can we normally see squamous cell carcinoma ?

a. ) pleura
b. ) salivary gland
c. ) lymph nodes
d. ) bronchus epithelium

Answer 170

d.) bronchus epithelium

Pathoma - Small/Squamous = Central / Large/others = Peripheral

Question 171

Bronchial carcinoma (2 correct) :

a. ) leiomyosaercoma is a special form of it
b. ) can cause paraneoplastic syndrome
c. ) can originate from scars
d. ) are mainly in Peripheral locations

Answer 171

b. ) can cause paraneoplastic syndrome

c. ) can originate from scars

Question 172

Candida is a part of the normal flora (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 172

TRUE

Question 173

parotid gland tumor EXCEPT :

a. ) warthin tumor
b. ) pleomorphic adenoma
c. ) mucoepithelial cyst
d. ) squamous cell carcinoma

Answer 173

d. ) squamous cell carcinoma

* Skin / Tongue / Esophagus / Thyroid / Lung depends on context

Question 174

Characteristic for sarcoidosis (3 correct):

a. ) lesions are bilateral
b. ) lesions are rarely calcified
c. ) granuloma formation
d. ) can lead to interstitial lung diseases

Answer 174

a.) lesions are bilateral
c.) granuloma formation
d.) can lead to interstitial lung diseases
( massive pulmonary fibrosis -> honey comb lung !)

Question 175

The 4 main histological groups of lung carcinomas are adenocarcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, small cell carcinoma and large cell carcinoma. (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 175

TRUE

Question 176

Which lesions affect characteristically the peripheral lung ?(2)

a. ) tuberculotic lymphadenitis
b. ) Infarct
c. ) squamous cell carcinoma
d. ) adenocarcinoma

Answer 176

b. ) Infarct

d. ) adenocarcinoma

Question 177

In contraction atelectasis ( 2 correct) :

a. ) air is absorbed from alveoli
b. ) overproduction of elastic tissue leads to lung contraction
c. ) localized or generalized fibrosis decreases ability to expand the lungs
d. ) damage is potentially irreversible

Answer 177

c. ) localized or generalized fibrosis decreases ability to expand the lungs
d. ) damage is potentially irreversible

Question 178

complications of antibiotic therapy :

a. ) achalasia
b. ) diffuse scleroderma
c. ) esophageal stricture
d. ) esophageal candidiasis

Answer 178

d. ) esophageal candidiasis

* Allowed by killing normal flora

Question 179

True for sarcoidosis ( 3 correct):

a. ) multisystemic non-caseating granulomatous disease
b. ) unilateral lesion
c. ) higher incidence in non-smokers
d. ) involves tracheal, para-bronchial and hilar lymph nodes

Answer 179

a. ) multisystemic non-caseating granulomatous disease
c. ) higher incidence in non-smokers
d. ) involves tracheal, para-bronchial and hilar lymph nodes

Question 180

Adenocarcinoma ( 2 correct):

a. ) is typically in smoking men
b. ) is typical in non-smoking women
c. ) growth slowly but gives early and widespread metastasis
d. ) its major mutation is p53 mutation

Answer 180

b. ) is typical in non-smoking women

c. ) growth slowly but gives early and widespread metastasis

Question 181

Match the numbers with the letters:

a. ) Hypercalcemia
b. ) Cushing
c. ) Antidiuretic hormone release
d. ) Carcinoid syndrome

1) ACTH secreting small cell carcinoma or adenocarcinoma
2) PTH secreting small cell carcinoma
3) Carcinoid / neuroendocrine tumor secreting serotonin, histamin , PG
4) Small cell carcinoma

Answer 181

a. ) Hypercalcemia + 2) PTH secreting small cell carcinoma
b. ) Cushing + 1) ACTH secreting small cell carcinoma or adenocarcinoma
c. ) Antidiuretic hormone release + 4) Small cell carcinoma
d. ) Carcinoid syndrome +3) Carcinoid / neuroendocrine tumor secreting serotonin, histamin , PG

Question 182

the most common localization of colon cancer :

a. ) hepatic flexure
b. ) splenic flexure
c. ) rectosigmoid junction
d. ) ascending colon
e. ) appendix

Answer 182

c.) rectosigmoid junction

Question 183

Meckel’s Diverticulum occurs in:

a. ) Duodenum
b. ) Jejunum
c. ) Ileum
d. ) Colon
e. ) Esophagus

Answer 183

c.) Ileum

Question 184

Mucous plug in bronchi induces bronchiectasis (TRUE/FALSE).

Answer 184

TRUE

*Any obstruction

Question 185

Possible complications of acute pancreatitis:

a. ) Neuroendocrine Tumor
b. ) Pseudocyst
c. ) Choledocholithiasis
d. ) Hypercalcemia

Answer 185

b.) Pseudocyst

Question 186

Specific Tumor marker of HCC:

a. ) CA19-9
b. ) LDH
c. ) AFP
d. ) HCG

Answer 186

c. ) AFP

* aka α-Fetoprotein

Question 187

In cystic fibrosis bronchiectasis is often because the viscous mucus clogs up the bronchial tree (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 187

TRUE

Question 188

Which of the following is a characteristic complication of silicosis (3 correct) ?

a. ) susceptible to TB
b. ) mesothelioma
c. ) chronic cor pulmonale
d) bronchial Carcinoma

Answer 188

a. ) susceptible to TB
c. ) chronic cor pulmonale
d) bronchial Carcinoma

Question 189

Triggered by mycobacterium TB histological changes correspond to hypersensitivity type I. (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 189

FALSE

Type IV

Question 190

Which state predisposes the least frequently for diffuse purulent peritonitis ?

a. ) torsion of ovarian cyst
b. ) acute perforation of appendix
c. ) direct thrombosis of mesenteric artery
d. ) lymphadenitis
e. ) sepsis

Answer 190

d.) lymphadenitis

Question 191

Asthma involves:

a. ) IgE
b. ) curschmanns spirals
c. ) hyperplasia of mucous glands
d. ) bronchospasm
e. ) all

Answer 191

e.) all

a. ) IgE
b. ) curschmanns spirals ( whorles of shed epithelium )
c. ) hyperplasia of mucous glands
d. ) bronchospasm

Question 192

Which organs can be affected in Primary Tuberculosis? (2 correct answers)

a) Lung
b) Liver
c) Spleen
d) Small intestine

Answer 192

a) Lung
d) Small intestine
* More common as complication of Secondary TB (P. 497)

Question 193

Consequence of smoking EXCEPT :

a. ) emphysema + chronic bronchitis
b. ) desquamative interstitial pneumonia (DIP)
c. ) Bronchiolitis
d. ) ARDS

Answer 193

d.) ARDS

Question 194

What is the Mallory-Body consists of?

a. ) Nucleic Acid
b. ) Calcium Crystals
c. ) Protein
d. ) Lipid

Answer 194

c. ) Protein

* damaged intermediate filaments

Question 195

Predisposing factors for peptic ulcer are( 2 correct answers):

a. ) Zollinger Ellison syndrome
b. ) Blood group ‘‘o’’
c. ) Peutz Jegher Syndrome
d. ) Autoimmunity

Answer 195

a. ) Zollinger Ellison syndrome (gastrin secreting tumor, hyperacidity)
b. ) Blood group ‘‘o’’ (for duodenal ulcers)

Question 196

True for EARLY gastric cancer:

a. ) Non invasive
b. ) Low level of Metastasis
c. ) Macroscopically, linitis plastica is seen
d. ) confined to mucosa and submucosa

Answer 196

d.) confined to mucosa and submucosa

Question 197

In atypical adenomatous hyperplasia:

a. ) squamous cell hyperplasia
b. ) cuboidal cell hyperplasia
c. ) EGFR , ALK ,cMET and K-Ras are the most common mutations
d. ) shows lepidic growth

Answer 197

b. ) cuboidal cell hyperplasia

c. ) EGFR , ALK ,cMET and K-Ras are the most common mutations

Question 198

Commonly affects pulmonary hilar lymph nodes EXCEPT:

a. ) primary TB
b. ) metastasis of squamous cell carcinoma
c. ) aspergilloma
d. ) sarcoidosis

Answer 198

c. ) aspergilloma

* Affects the bronchus (causes Bronchiectasis)

Question 199

Acute bronchiectasis ( 2 correct)

a. ) is associated with fibrosis
b. ) is associated with acute infection
c. ) bronchioles are ulcerated
d. ) bronchioles show reactive epithelial proliferation

Answer 199

b. ) is associated with acute infection

c. ) bronchioles are ulcerated

Question 200

Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency is common in (2 correct):

a. ) panlobular emphysema
b. ) panacinar emphysema
c. ) asthma
d. ) bronchitis

Answer 200

a.) panlobular emphysema
b.) panacinar emphysema
(panacinar = panlobular )

Question 201

In reabsorption atelectasis ( 2 correct) :

a. ) a foreign body obstructs the airways
b. ) the damage is potentially irreversible
c. ) air is reabsorbed from the alveoli
d. ) pleural effusion compresses the lung

Answer 201

a. ) a foreign body obstructs the airways

c. ) air is reabsorbed from the alveoli

Question 202

Can cause inflammation with pseudomembrane formation EXCEPT :

a. ) e.coli
b. ) candida
c. ) uremia
d. ) clostridium difficile
e. ) shigella

Answer 202

a.) e.coli

Question 203

which has NO association with smoking ?

a. ) emphysema
b. ) desquamative Interstitial Pneumonia
c. ) chronic bronchitis
d. ) sarcoidosis
e. ) squamous cell carcinoma

Answer 203

d.) sarcoidosis

Question 204

Bronchiolitis obliterans ( 2 correct ):

a. ) is associated with chronic bronchitis
b. ) obliteration of small airways by inhalation of a foreign body
c. ) obliteration of small airways due to mucus plug formation
d. ) obliteration of small airways due to submucosal fibrosis

Answer 204

a. ) is associated with chronic bronchitis

d. ) obliteration of small airways due to submucosal fibrosis

Question 205

Typical for red hepatisation:

a. ) red, bogged , heavy appearance of the lung
b. ) liver like consistency , alveolar spaces filled with RBC and neutrophils
c. ) semisolid debris is coughed up
d. ) ingrowing fibroblasts

Answer 205

b.) liver like consistency , alveolar spaces filled with RBC and neutrophils

Question 206

Typical for squamous cell carcinoma ( 3 correct ):

a. ) arises peripherally
b. ) arises centrally
c. ) developmental sequence : basal cell hyperplasia , squamous metaplasia , dysplasia , cancer in situ , squamous cell carcinoma
d. ) most common mutation : K-RAS

Answer 206

b. ) arises centrally
c. ) developmental sequence : basal cell hyperplasia , squamous metaplasia , dysplasia , cancer in situ , squamous cell carcinoma
d. ) most common mutation : K-RAS

Question 207

Typical manifestation of extrapulmonary TB ( 2 correct):

a. ) skin sarcoidosis
b. ) Marantic endocarditis
c. ) basilar meningitis
d. ) potts diseases

Answer 207

c. ) basilar meningitis ( via infective embolism)

d. ) potts diseases (TB in vertebral body )

Question 208

True for Prostate Cancer (2 correct answers):

a. ) Generally derived from Peripheral Parenchyma
b. ) It ancient name is “Hypernephroma”
c. ) Its precancerous lesion is prostate hyperplasia
d. ) Rectal digital examination itself is not specific enough to confirm the diagnosis of prostate cancer

Answer 208

a. ) Generally derived from Peripheral Parenchyma
d. ) Rectal digital examination itself is not specific enough to confirm the diagnosis of prostate cancer

According to Pathoma - Prostate

Question 209

Most common histological type of malignant urinary bladder tumors is urothelial cell carcinoma.(TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 209

TRUE

According to Pathoma - Lower UT Carcinoma

Question 210

What is Krukenberg Tumor?

a. ) Primary tumor of the ovary
b. ) Ovarian Metastasis of signet ring cell carcinoma
c. ) Metastasis of small cell carcinoma in the body of the uterus
d. ) Ovarian Metastasis of small cell carcinoma
e. ) Metastasis of signet ring cell carcinoma in the body of the uterus

Answer 210

b.) Ovarian Metastasis of signet ring cell carcinoma

According to Pathoma - Ovary
Most commonly from Diffuse Gastric Carcinoma origin

Question 211

Glomerular disease with crescent formation in glomeruli:

a. ) Diabetic Glomerulosclerosis
b. ) Minimal change disease
c. ) Membranous Nephropathy
d. ) PSGN

Answer 211

d.) PSGN

According to Pathoma - Nephritic Syndrome, PSGN can progress to RPGN -presents classically as Crescent + Robbins 10E Page 560 mentions PSGN can also presents Crescent.

Question 212

Testicular Tumors occur commonly in cryptorchidism. (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 212

TRUE

According to Pathoma - Testis.
Cryptorchidism: Higher Temp in Abdomen→ Seminoma Risk↑

Question 213

Chronic Renal Failure might cause the Hyperplasia of:

a. ) Pancreas
b. ) Thyroid
c. ) Adrenal
d. ) Parathyroid

Answer 213

d.) Parathyroid

According to Pathoma - Chronic Renal Failure.
(Hypocalcemia→Stimulus for Parathyroid↑ → Renal Osteodystrophy + Parathyroid Hyperplasia)

Question 214

Which histological element is the Gleason system based on?

a. ) Morphological Structure of Malignant Glands
b. ) Number of Mitosis
c. ) Degree of Cellular Atypia
d. ) Ratio of Necrosis

Answer 214

a.) Morphological Structure of Malignant Glands

According to Robbins 10E page 700

Question 215

Mostly affected age group of seminoma?

a. ) 20-40 yrs
b. ) <20yrs
c. ) >40 yrs

Answer 215

c.) >40 yrs

According to Robbins 10E page 694

Question 216

True for ovarian high grade serous carcinoma, EXCEPT:

a. ) Low grade serous carcinoma is its precursor lesion
b. ) Most of them are p53 Positive
c. ) STIC in the fimbrial end of the fallopian tube is its precursor lesion
d. ) Often occurs in carriers of BRCA germ cell mutation

Answer 216

c.) STIC in the fimbrial end of the fallopian tube is its precursor lesion

According to Robbins 10E Page 732 - Serous Tumors of Ovary. In Page 727 There is a reference to STIC but only as the precursor of FALLOPIAN tube serous high grade Carcinoma

Question 217

Type of metastasis formation of renal cell carcinoma:

a. ) Transperitoneal
b. ) Hematogenous, Portal type
c. ) Lymphogenous
d. ) Hematogenous, Caval type

Answer 217

d.) Hematogenous, Caval type

According to Pathoma - Renal Cancer. This is the reason for Left-sided Varicocele as a complication - the tumor backs up to the left gonadal vein.

Question 218

What are the koilocytes?(2 answers)

a. ) Inclusion containing cells
b. ) Invasive cancer cells
c. ) Cells with clear halo around the nucleus
d. ) Dissociated tumor cells
e. ) HPV infected cells

Answer 218

c. ) Cells with clear halo around the nucleus
e. ) HPV infected cells

According to Pathoma -Cervix Pathology:
HPV Infection→Persistent Infection→CIN with Koilocytic Change:”Cells with clear halo around the nucleus”

Question 219

Most common congenital anomaly of the kidney:

a. ) Hypoplasia
b. ) Oligomeganephronia
c. ) Horseshoe kidney
d. ) Agenesis

Answer 219

c.) Horseshoe kidney

According to Pathoma - Congenital Renal Pathology

Question 220

Most important acute complication of tubal pregnancy:

a. ) Inflammation
b. ) Infertility
c. ) Rupture of fallopian tube and intra-abdominal bleeding
d. ) Tuboovarian abscess

Answer 220

c.) Rupture of fallopian tube and intra-abdominal bleeding

According to Pathoma - Gestational Pathology; Ectopic Pregnancy. This is the reason it is a surgical emergency

Question 221

Predispose for pyelonephritis, EXCEPT:

a. ) Traumas of urethra during sexual intercourse in women
b. ) Sepsis
c. ) Glomerulonephritis
d. ) Lower UTI
e. ) Vesicoureteric Reflux

Answer 221

c.) Glomerulonephritis

According to a Urologist: “Glomerulonephritis is always contained in the Nephron and cannot reach the Renal Pelvis. Sepsis is a complication of Pyelonephritis but can sometimes at rare cases can be the cause of it”
Also Robbins 10E page 565 upper right corner confirms it!

Question 222

Abdominal CT scan reveals a solid roundish lesion of 3 cm within the kidney. The lesion is most probably:

a. ) Abscess
b. ) Benign Tumor
c. ) Infarct
d. ) Malignant Tumor

Answer 222

d.) Malignant Tumor

According to Robbins 10E Pages 578-580.
“Clear cell Carcinoma (Most common form of renal carcinoma) usually are solitary and large when symptomatic (Spherical masses 3-15 cm in diameter” , “These neoplasm represent 80-85% of renal neoplasms”, “benign neoplasms …. (<0.5 cm in diameter)”.

Question 223

Most common tumor of the body of the uterus:

a. ) Leiomyoma
b. ) Adenocarcinoma
c. ) Stromal Sarcoma
d. ) Adenosquamous carcinoma
e. ) Brenner tumor

Answer 223

a.) Leiomyoma

According to Robbins 10E Page 725 - “Leiomyomas are the most common benign tumor in females affecting 30%-50% …” This is not a definitive confirmation but that’s what I also remember from class.

Question 224

Can cause abnormal uterine bleeding, EXCEPT:

a. ) Leiomyoma
b. ) Endometrial Polyp
c. ) Endometrial Hyperplasia
d. ) Small Cell Carcinoma

Answer 224

d.) Small Cell Carcinoma

According to Robbins 10E page 722, also small cell carcinoma is a lung tumor and uterine is a less probable metastatic site.

Question 225

Can cause abnormal uterine bleeding (2):

a. ) Leiomyoma
b. ) Adenomyosis
c. ) Paraovarian cyst
d. ) Endosalpingiosis

Answer 225

a. ) Leiomyoma
b. ) Adenomyosis

According to Robbins 10E page 722 Table 19.2

Question 226

Condyloma Accuminatum is a malignant epithelial tumor (a) because it originates from the endometrium (b):

a. ) The first statement is correct, the second is not
b. ) The second statement is correct, the first is not
c. ) Both are correct, but (b) does not explain (a)
d. ) Both are correct, but (a) does not explain (b)
e. ) Both are false

Answer 226

d.) Both are false

According to Pathoma - Vulva Pathology
Condyloma Accuminatum is a lesion of Vulvar or Anal skin that arises from HPV 6/11 infection and is Benign warty lesion that rarely progresses to Carcinoma.

Question 227

Typical macroscopic appearance of clear cell kidney cancer:

a. ) Firm grey, infiltrative tumor
b. ) Soft yellowish tumor with expansive growth
c. ) Cauliflower-shaped tumor, filling the lumen of the pyelon
d. ) Soft yellowish tumor with infiltrative growth

Answer 227

b.) Soft yellowish tumor with expansive growth

According to Robbins 10E page 579 (Green - Morphology Part)

Question 228

Risk factor of Cystitis, EXCEPT:

a. ) Diabetes
b. ) Pregnancy
c. ) Hypertension
d. ) Urinary Tract Obstruction
e. ) Female Gender

Answer 228

c.) Hypertension

According to Pathoma - UTI - risk factors include: Female Gender, Urinary Stasis.
Also According to NHS - Diabetes and Pregnancy are a risk factor - https://www.nhs.uk/conditions/cystitis/

Question 229

1. The first site of metastases from uterine cervix cancer:
   a. Inguinal lymph nodes
   b. Paraaortic lymph nodes
   c. Omentum
   d. Pelvic Lymph nodes

Answer 229

d. Pelvic Lymph nodes

According to Robbins 10E - Page 720(Green morphology part)

Question 230

2. Which clinical features rise the possibility of inherited BRCA mutation (2 answers)?
   a. Metachronous breast and ovarian cancers
   b. Postmenopausal lobular carcinoma of the breast
   c. Positive Familial history for breast cancer
   d. Congenital ovarian teratoma

Answer 230

a. Metachronous breast and ovarian cancers
c. Positive Familial history for breast cancer

According to Pathoma - Breast Cancer: Suggesting clinical features are Familial history, Multiple tumors and tumors in premenopausal age.

Question 231

3. What causes the “chocolate cyst”?
   a. Endometriosis of the Ovary
   b. Anemic infarction of the ovary
   c. Bleeding of the dermoid cyst in the ovary
   d. Hemorrhagic infarction of the ovary

Answer 231

a. Endometriosis of the Ovary

According to Pathoma - Endometrium Pathology

Question 232

Inflammation of the glans of the penis:

a. Phallitis
b. Glansitis
c. Balanitis
d. Penitis

Answer 232

c. Balanitis

https: //www.nhs.uk/conditions/balanitis/

Question 233

Predispose to endometrial adenocarcinoma:

a. Extrauterine gravidity
b. Postmenopausal estrogen replacement therapy
c. HPV infection
d. Leiomyoma

Answer 233

b. Postmenopausal estrogen replacement therapy

According to Pathoma - Endometrium Pathology: Estrogen is the cause of the Hyperplastic pathway towards carcinoma which is typical for 50+ age.

Question 234

The Paget-disease of the breast:

a. Breast cancer with exulceration of the skin
b. Breast cancer with diffuse lymphogenic invasion
c. In-situ carcinoma spreading into the epidermis of the nipple
d. In situ squamous cell carcinoma of the skin of the breast

Answer 234

c. In-situ carcinoma spreading into the epidermis of the nipple

According to Pathoma - Breast Cancer

Question 235

Testicular tumor with benign behavior:

a. Seminoma
b. Yolk sac tumor
c. Postpubertal Teratoma
d. Prepubertal Teratoma

Answer 235

d. Prepubertal Teratoma

According to Robbins 10E 696 green morphology part

Question 236

Endometriosis of the colon can mimic cancer. (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 236

TRUE

https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2768254/

Question 237

Nodular hyperplasia of the prostate is a precancerosis. (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 237

FALSE

According to Pathoma - Prostate Pathology

Question 238

Histological features of breast cancer indicating typically poor prognosis (2 answers):

a. Lymphovascular Invasion
b. High Mitotic Count
c. Intense mucin production
d. High rate of tubulus formation

Answer 238

a. Lymphovascular Invasion
b. High Mitotic Count

According to Pathoma - Breast Cancer :TNM staging

Question 239

Which cell type composes the mole disease?

a. Endometrial glandular epithelium
b. Decidual stroma cell
c. Trophoblasts
d. Smooth muscle cell of the myometrium

Answer 239

c. Trophoblasts

According to Pathoma - Gestational Pathology

Question 240

The most serious acute complication of extrauterine gravidity:

a. Intraabdominal abscess
b. Choriocarcinoma
c. Torsion of the ovary
d. Intra-abdominal bleeding

Answer 240

d. Intra-abdominal bleeding

According to Pathoma - Gestational Pathology

Question 241

Which ovarian tumor can cause pseudomyxoma peritonei?

a. Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
b. Dermoid cyst
c. Brenner tumor
d. Serous cystadenofibroma

Answer 241

a. Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

https: //en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pseudomyxoma_peritonei
* But more common from appendix adenocarcinoma ( also mentioned in pathoma as a metastatic ovarian tumor)

Question 242

Which microscopic features are characteristic for simplex endometrial hyperplasia?

a. Papillary epithelium without atypia
b. Cystic Glands, proliferative epithelium without atypia
c. Confluent glands with necrosis
d. Normal glands without mitoses

Answer 242

b. Cystic Glands, proliferative epithelium without atypia

https: //en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Endometrial_hyperplasia
* According to Pathoma - Endometrium, the atypia is the most important prognostic factor here hence the simplex part since there is no atypia.

Question 243

Premalignant lesion in the breast:

a. Adenosis
b. LCIS
c. Apocrine metaplasia
d. Florid ductal hyperplasia

Answer 243

d. Florid ductal hyperplasia

According to Pathoma - Breast Pathology
Ductal Hyperplasia is a benign lesion of breast that increases the chances of malignancy by 2. Also the following wiki-link explains that “Florid” is a synonym- https://librepathology.org/wiki/Florid_epithelial_hyperplasia

Question 244

Typical symptom of mastitis carcinomatosa:

a. Retraction of the mamilla
b. Palpable lump in the breast
c. Bloody discharge from the mamilla
d. Peau d’orange sign

Answer 244

d. Peau d’orange sign

Mastitis carcinomatosa is actually Inflammatory Breast Carcinoma (Ductal) and It has the “Peel of Orange sign”

https: //en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Peau_d%27orange
https: //www.researchgate.net/figure/59-year-old-patient-with-mastitis-carcinomatosa-inflammatory-carcinoma-finally_fig2_259337672

Question 245

Which of the following tumor types can NOT occur in the testes?

a. Teratoma
b. Krukenberg Tumor
c. Choriocarcinoma
d. Yolk sac tumor
e. Seminoma

Answer 245

b. Krukenberg Tumor

According to Pathoma - Ovary: This is a Metastatic Tumor of the Ovary

Question 246

In the adult apparently differentiated mature teratomas, especially in males, should be treated as a malignant tumor. (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 246

TRUE

According to Pathoma - Testis

Question 247

Invasive ductal carcinoma of the breast grows in “indian file”. (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 247

FALSE

According to Pathoma - Breast Cancer: “ Single File” or “Indian File” refers to Invasive LOBULAR carcinoma.
https://www.researchgate.net/figure/A-detail-of-the-typical-Indian-file-growth-pattern-of-breast-lobular-invasive-carcinoma_fig2_6932050

Question 248

what is the criteria for borderline tumor of the ovary:

a. has benign and malignant component, as well
b. shows malignant or benign behavior in 50% - 50% of the cases, respectively
c. the histological appearance is malignant without invasion of the stroma.
d. contains surface epithelium and others
e. Never affects tissues beyond the ovaries

Answer 248

c. the histological appearance is malignant without invasion of the stroma.

According to Robbins 10E page 729 Green Morphology part

Question 249

Dysgerminoma of the ovary is identical with seminoma of the testis. (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 249

TRUE

According to Pathoma - Testis

Question 250

Most common tumors in the ovary are the germ cell tumors. (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 250

FALSE

According to Pathoma - Ovary: Surface Epithelial Tumors are the most common.

Question 251

Breast cancer with good prognosis:

a. Mucinous Carcinoma
b. Invasive ductal carcinoma grade 1
c. Metaplastic carcinoma
d. Invasive micropapillary carcinoma

Answer 251

a. Mucinous Carcinoma

According to Pathoma - Breast Cancer

Question 252

Which infection is frequently associated with CIN?

a. Herpes virus type II
b. Human Papillomavirus 33
c. Chlamydia trachomatis
d. Gardnerella vaginalis
e. Trichomonas vaginalis

Answer 252

b. Human Papillomavirus 33

According to Pathoma - Cervix Pathology: The high risk types are 16,18,31,33.

Question 253

Condyloma latum is caused by the most infectious HPV strains. (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 253

FALSE

According to Sketchy Micro: Treponema Pallidum (Syphilis) is the cause of Condyloma latum while Condyloma Accuminatum is caused by HPV 6 and 11 which are the LOW risk strain.

Question 254

Caused by chlamydia, EXCEPT:

a. Trachoma
b. Psittacosis
c. Lymphgranulosum venereum
d. Q- Fever
e. Non-gonococcal urethritis

Answer 254

d. Q- Fever

According to Sketchy Micro: Coxiella burnetii is the cause of Q- Fever

Question 255

41. Complications of tubal gravidity, EXCEPT:
    a. Hematosalpinx
    b. Hematoma rectouterina
    c. Myoma Uteri
    d. Acute abdomen

Answer 255

c. Myoma Uteri

According to Wikipedia : Tubal Gravidity (Fallopian Tube ectopic Pregnancy) is no a risk factor for Myoma (Leiomyoma) of the uterus.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Uterine_fibroid

Question 256

Typical for condyloma accuminatum (2 answers)

a. Macroscopically it is only papillary
b. Koilocytes
c. Has a berry-like appearance
d. Is caused by an infection by HBV

Answer 256

a. Macroscopically it is only papillary
b. Koilocytes

According to Pathoma - Vulva pathology

Question 257

HPV virus causes (2 answers)

a. Cervical Carcinoma
b. Condyloma latum
c. Verruca vulgaris
d. Trachoma

Answer 257

a. Cervical Carcinoma
c. Verruca vulgaris

According to Pathoma - Vulva and Cervix.
Verruca vulgaris is a synonym for common wart simillar to Condyloma Accuminatum. Through Persistent HPV infection the CIN pathway could yield a Cervical Carcinoma.
Wiki extra for Wart - https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wart

Question 258

46. Germinal ovarian tumor (2 answers)
    a. Teratoma
    b. Dysgerminoma
    c. Androblastoma
    d. Serous cystadenocarcinoma

Answer 258

a. Teratoma
b. Dysgerminoma

According to Pathoma - Ovary
Also Wiki for Androblastoma - Sex Cord Stromal Tumor: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sertoli%E2%80%93Leydig_cell_tumour
Serous cystadenocarcinoma - Epithelial Ovarian Tumor

Question 259

HPV 16 and 18 play a role in the development of cervical carcinoma (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 259

TRUE

According to Pathoma - Cervix.
also HPV 31 AND 33.

Question 260

Among the following, the testicular tumor is:

a. Granulosa cell tumor
b. Choriocarcinoma
c. Papillary carcinoma
d. Yolk Sac Tumor

Answer 260

b. Choriocarcinoma
d. Yolk Sac Tumor

According to Pathoma - Testis
Papillary carcinoma is a type of Thyroid Carcinoma
Granulosa Cell Tumor is an Ovarian Carcinoma

Question 261

True for peau d’orange

a. Often occurs in estrogen-receptor positive breast cancers
b. Happens in intraductal carcinoma
c. Shows good prognosis
d. Occurs due to a sclerosing adenosis
e. Is a sign of Invasive Breast cancer

Answer 261

e. Is a sign of Invasive Breast cancer

According to Wiki: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Peau_d%27orange
This is more specifically a sign of Invasive Ductal Carcinoma of inflammatory Type.

Question 262

Most common of the benign changes of the breast (2 answers):

a. Fibrocystic Changes
b. Juvenile papillomatosis
c. Fibroadenoma
d. Galactorrhea

Answer 262

a. Fibrocystic Changes
c. Fibroadenoma

According to Pathoma - Breast.
Fibrocystic Changes - Most common Change*
Fibroadenoma - Most common Benign Tumor

Question 263

The most common histological type of ovarian carcinoma:

a. Brenner tumor
b. Clear cell carcinoma
c. Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
d. Serous Adenocarcinoma
e. Endometrioid carcinoma

Answer 263

d. Serous Adenocarcinoma

According to Pathoma - Ovary

Question 264

Call-Exner bodies are typical for:

a. Serous cystadenocarcinoma
b. Dysgerminoma
c. Granulosa cell tumor
d. Sertoli cell tumor
e. Malignant teratoma

Answer 264

c. Granulosa cell tumor

According to Wiki - Call-Exner bodies
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Call-Exner_bodies

Question 265

Main risk factor for urothelial carcinoma:

a. Bacterial infection
b. Sexually transmitted diseases
c. HPV infection
d. Smoking

Answer 265

d. Smoking

According to Pathoma - Lower Urinary Tract Carcinoma

Question 266

Histological characteristic of end-stage-kidney, EXCEPT:

a. Glomerulus Hypertrophy
b. Interstitial fibrosis
c. Glomerulosclerosis
d. Thyroidisation

Answer 266

a. Glomerulus Hypertrophy

According to Pathoma - Chronic Renal Failure

Question 267

Causes Nephritic syndrome, EXCEPT:

a. IgA-Nephropathy
b. Minimal Change Disease
c. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
d. Crescentic glomerulonephritis

Answer 267

b. Minimal Change Disease

According to Pathoma - Nephrotic Syndrome, MCD is a Nephrotic Syndrome.

Question 268

Urothelial carcinoma has high risk of local recurrence. (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 268

TRUE

According to Pathoma - Lower Urinary Tract Carcinoma

Question 269

Possible causes of secondary membranous glomerulonephritis (2 correct):

a. Hepatorenal syndrome
b. Malignancy
c. SLE
d. Shock

Answer 269

b. Malignancy
c. SLE

According to Pathoma - Nephrotic Syndrome

Question 270

Characteristic microscopic alterations in Kimmelstiel-Wilson syndrome (2 correct):

a. Nodular Glomerulosclerosis
b. Arteriolosclerosis
c. Granular IgG positivity
d. Mesangial Proliferation

Answer 270

a. Nodular Glomerulosclerosis
b. Arteriolosclerosis

According to Pathoma - Nephrotic Syndrome. Diabetic Nephropathy = Kimmelstiel-Wilson syndrome.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Diabetic_nephropathy

Question 271

True for rapidly progressive (crescentic) glomerulonephritis, EXCEPT:

a. Progresses rapidly
b. Associated exclusively with Nephrotic Syndrome
c. May occur as a manifestation of systemic disorders
d. May be preceded by postinfectious glomerulonephritis
e. Anti-GBM antibodies may be demonstrated in some cases

Answer 271

b. Associated exclusively with Nephrotic Syndrome

According to Pathoma - Nephritic Syndrome: RPGN

Question 272

Schistosomiasis may be associated with the formation of:

a. Renal cell carcinoma
b. Squamous cell carcinoma of the urinary bladder
c. Adenocarcinoma of the urinary bladder
d. Wilms tumor
e. Neuroblastoma

Answer 272

b. Squamous cell carcinoma of the urinary bladder

According to Pathoma - Lower Urinary Tract Carcinoma

Question 273

Components of Nephrotic syndrome are, EXCEPT:

a. Proteinuria
b. Hypertension
c. Hypoalbuminemia
d. Hyperlipidemia
e. Edema

Answer 273

b. Hypertension

According to Pathoma - Nephrotic Syndrome
It is common in Nephritic Syndrome

Question 274

90% of malignant tumors encountered in the urinary bladder are:

a. Large cell carcinoma
b. Transitional cell papilloma
c. Squamous cell carcinoma
d. Adenocarcinoma
e. Transitional Cell Carcinoma

Answer 274

e. Transitional Cell Carcinoma

According to Pathoma - Lower Urinary Tract Carcinoma

Question 275

68. Linear deposition of IgG and/or C3 along the glomerular basement membrane is seen in:
    a. Membranous GN
    b. Anti-GBM Nephritis
    c. Minimal change nephropathy
    d. Goodpasture Syndrome

Answer 275

b. Anti-GBM Nephritis
d. Goodpasture Syndrome

According to Pathoma - Nephritic Syndrome
GBM = Glomerular Basement Membrane

Question 276

The autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease usually manifests in the neonatal period and rapidly leads to acute renal failure.(TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 276

FALSE

According to Pathoma -Congenital Renal Pathology
ADPKD=ADult PKD

Question 277

Which structure is impaired by tissue hypoxia in the kidney?

a) Interstitium
b) Glomerulus
c) Arteriola
d) Tubules

Answer 277

d) Tubules

* More specifically PCT and TAL

Question 278

High levels of estrogen are not involved in the etiology of endometrial hyperplasia.
(TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 278

FALSE

Pathoma - Endometrium Pathology

Question 279

The first site of metastases from Malignant testicular tumors:

a. Inguinal lymph nodes
b. Paraaortic lymph nodes
c. Omentum
d. Pelvic Lymph nodes

Answer 279

b. Paraaortic lymph nodes

Question 280

True for Renal cell Carcinoma:

a) Derives from the tubular epithelium
b) It is generally diagnosed for hematuria
c) commonly occurs in familial cancers
d) affects mainly young women

Answer 280

a) Derives from the tubular epithelium

Pathoma - Renal Cancer

Question 281

What is the currently used histological grading system for prostatic cancer?

a) Nottingham grade
b) ISUP grade/Gleason Grade
c) Marsh classification
d) Van Nuys prognostic index

Answer 281

b)ISUP grade/Gleason Grade

Question 282

Always occurs in MEN2 syndrome:

a) Carcinoid of small intestine
b) Medullary Carcinoma of Thyroid
c) Follicular Carcinoma of Thyroid
d) Carcinoid of Lung

Answer 282

b)Medullary Carcinoma of Thyroid

Pathoma - Thyroid Cancer

Question 283

2 Testicular Tumors of Germ cell origin:

a) Lymphoma
b) Embryonal Carcinoma
c) Sertoli cell tumor
d) Yolk sac Tumor

Answer 283

b) Embryonal Carcinoma
d) Yolk sac Tumor

Pathoma - Testicular Cancer

Question 284

2 Tumors that spread hematogenously:

a) Pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma
b) Follicular thyroid carcinoma
c) Hepatocellular Carcinoma
d) Papillary Carcinoma

Answer 284

b) Follicular thyroid carcinoma
c) Hepatocellular Carcinoma

Pathoma - Liver Pathology and Thyroid Neoplasm

Question 285

Hypertension often causes acute renal failure due to acute tubular necrosis (FALSE/TRUE)

Answer 285

TRUE

Pathoma - Hypertension:
Malignant HTN causes Fibrinoid Necrosis of Renal Artery leading to renal ischemia/Infarction

Question 286

PSA can be elevated in non neoplastic prostate disorders (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 286

TRUE

Pathoma- Prostate:
In BPH it can rise above 4 which is still irregular. In cancer it rises above 10.

Question 287

Most important diagnostic histological findings of papillary thyroid carcinoma:

a) Special alteration of cytoplasm
b) Papillary structures
c) Special alteration of nuclei
d) Psammoma body

Answer 287

d)Psammoma body

Pathoma - Thyroid Neoplasm

Question 288

Goodpasture syndrome most commonly affects the kidney and liver (TRUE/FALSE)

Answer 288

FALSE
*
Goodpasture syndrome most commonly affects the kidney and LUNGS:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Goodpasture_syndrome