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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Study of disease

A

Pathology

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2
Q

any abnormal condition which impairs the normal functioning of the body. Local disease and genetic diseases can occur.

A

Disease

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3
Q

was the leading cause of death in the early 1900’s

A

TB

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4
Q

the leading cause of death TODAY

A

CVD- Cardiovascular Disease

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5
Q

Another name for CAUSE

A

Etiology

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6
Q

The cause of disease is divided into what 2 categories?

A

Immediate (exciting) &Predisposing

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7
Q

The beginning of disease. The manner in which a particular disease develops.

A

Pathogenesis

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8
Q

3 parts of disease that we study

A
  1. Cause (Etiology) 2. Pathogenesis 3. Changes and final effects brought about in the body.
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9
Q

Study of general disease processes, such as inflammation, degeneration, necrosis (localized area of dead tissue in a living body), repair (i.e.: scar tissue), etc.

A

General Pathology

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10
Q

The body’s total response to any injury

A

inflammation

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11
Q

Study of disease in relation to a particular organ or the organs system. Ie., disease of the digestive track.

A

Special Pathology

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12
Q

5 Divisions of Pathology

A
  1. Pathological Anatomy (Morbid Anatomy)
  2. Surgical Pathology
  3. Clinical Pathology
  4. Medico - Legal Pathology (forensic pathology)
  5. Physiological Pathology
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13
Q

The study of the structure of the human body as affected by disease.

A

Pathological Anatomy (Morbid Anatomy)

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14
Q

localized area of dead tissue in a living body

A

necrosis

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15
Q

Study of disease by means of biopsies.

A

Surgical Pathology

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16
Q

The study of disease by means of:body secretions (useful substances produced within the body), body excretions (waste substances rid from the body), & other body fluids.

A

Clinical Pathology

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17
Q

Legal Pathology (forensic pathology) the study of disease, death, and injuries with medical/legal potential.

A

Medico

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18
Q

2 methods to study Pathological Anatomy (Morbid Anatomy)

A
  1. ) Gross Inspection

2. ) Histopathology

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19
Q

See changes of the structure of the body with the unaided eye.

A

Gross inspection

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20
Q

A study of the structure of the cell as affected by disease, by means of microscope. Disease at cellular levels.

A

Histopathology

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21
Q

The study of the functions of the body as affected by disease.

A

Physiological Pathology

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22
Q

A study of disease by samples of tissue removed surgically from a living person.

A

Biopsy

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23
Q

useful substances produced within the body

A

body secretions

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24
Q

waste products that are rid from the body

A

body excretions

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25
Q

The study of deaths and injuries of medical and legal significance

A

Medico-Legal Pathology

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26
Q

The study of the function of the human body as affected by disease.

A

Physiological Pathology

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27
Q

Medico-Legal Pathology is also known as…

A

Forensic Pathology

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28
Q

Importance of autopsy

A
  1. Confirm medical diagnosis
  2. Amplify or reject the clinical diagnosis
  3. Advancement of medical knowledge
  4. Medico-legal cases
  5. Medical statistics
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29
Q

Autopsy is also known as…

A

necropsy or postmortem exam

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30
Q

Differences between Coroner vs. Medical Examiner

A
  1. Determination of jurisdiction (county where death occurred)
  2. Qualifications
  3. Inquest
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31
Q

a formal legal proceeding into the events and circumstances surrounding a particular death.

A

Inquest

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32
Q

Coroner is a carry over from the…..

A

English common law system

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33
Q

Inquest are needed in cases of….

A

unknown deaths ordeaths caused by violence

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34
Q

Elected county officer who investigates and holds inquests over unknown deaths or deaths caused by violence.

A

J.P./Coroner

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35
Q

Appointed…must have gone to school (MD) works with the police officers; works under coroner.

A

Medical examiner

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36
Q

Texas does NOT use the term__________________, but has _______________ in those counties not large enough to have a ME’s office.

A

Coroner Justice of the Peace (J.P.)

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37
Q

Difference with ordinary clinical autopsy (relation to clinical findings and diagnosis) vs. forensic autopsy. Forensic Autopsy will provide…

A

A. Absolute identification of the body.
B. A description of the body and scene.
C. A description of the clothing
D. An unrestricted autopsy (prevention of future legal actions) a complete autopsy.

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38
Q

Types of Unrestricted autopsy

A

Biochemical
Microbiological scans
Radiological scans

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39
Q

toxicological

A

Biochemical

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40
Q

Primary need of a forensic autopsy is to determine…

A

cause of death

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41
Q

A minimum of ___________ must be listed on a death certificate.

A

One cause of death

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42
Q

Three types or parts of death

A

Immediate
Basic
Contributory

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43
Q

the thing responsible for death at the time of the terminal event (peritonitis)

A

Immediate cause of death

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44
Q

the thing prior to and leading up to the terminal event (stab wounds)

A

basic cause of death

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45
Q

the thing involved in but not causing the terminal event (leukemia) persons with leukemia have less blood clotting ability.

A

contributory cause of death

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46
Q

GOK means

A

God only knows

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47
Q

Failure to thrive means

A

infant not sucking on breast

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48
Q

DIS

A

dead in the saddle

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49
Q

the circumstances surrounding a particular death

A

manner of death

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50
Q

Types of Mannerrs of death

A
  1. Natural
  2. Homicide
  3. Suicide
  4. Accident
  5. Unexplained (SIDS)
  6. Undetermined (decomposed)
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51
Q

An explanation of the sequence of events leading up to the death.

A

mechanism of death

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52
Q

recover and preserve this_____________

A

Evidence

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53
Q

any abnormal condition which impairs the normal functioning of the body. It can affect the entire body or only one part of the body.

A

Definition of disease

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54
Q

presence of microorganisms in or on the body.

A

Microbiological scans

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55
Q

x-rays

A

Radiological scans

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56
Q

The doctrine of cellular pathology was written by who? He is considered the father of pathology.

A

Virchow

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57
Q

What does the doctrine of cellular pathology state?

A

“Just like the cell is the structural and functional unit of life. The cell is also the structural and functional unit of disease.”

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58
Q

any disease of impaired function without change in structure. i.e. mental illness, color blindness.

A

Functional disease

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59
Q

any disease in which definite structural changes accompany it.

A

Organic disease

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60
Q

Any structural or functional change due to disease.

A

Lesion

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61
Q

The identification of a specific disease.

A

Diagnosis

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62
Q

Any disease in which the fever accompanying it is either excessively high and or lasts a prolonged period of time. Ex: Rickettsia infections- Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever - 107 15 - 20 days (2-3 weeks).

A

Febrile disease

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63
Q

Disease state which occur at the same time or concurrently with another disease. Often times they are infectious in nature.

A

Complications

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64
Q

Alcohol, steroids, poisoning, the exposure of the body to poisonous substances.

A

Intoxications

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65
Q

Disease states which occur on second or subsequent exposure to the same allergen.

A

Allergies

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66
Q

A forecast of the outcome of a particular disease.

A

Prognosis

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67
Q

Subjective manifestation of a disease. They accompany the disease but are not measurable. Pain, headache.

A

Symptoms

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68
Q

Objective manifestation of a disease. These are measurable. Vital signs, blood pressure, breathing.

A

Signs

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69
Q

Any disease caused by a microorganism.

A

Infectious disease

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70
Q

Any disease that occurs every now and then.

A

Sporadic disease

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71
Q

Any disease that turns into a worldwide epidemic, flu.

A

Pandemic disease

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72
Q

A disease that attacks a large number of people in a short period of time, i.e. chicken pox.

A

Epidemic

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73
Q

Any disease that is continuously present i.e. common cold.

A

Endemic disease

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74
Q

A set of both signs and symptoms accompanying a disease, i.e. Down’s syndrome (mongolism) SIDS.

A

Syndrome

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75
Q

A sudden increase in the severity of a disease. “The patient has made a turn for the worse.” Conditions of patients are rated; good, fair, critical, grave condition. If a patient goes from fair to critical condition

A

Exacerbation

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76
Q

Temporary absence of a particular disease. ie: Cancer

A

Remission (abatement)

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77
Q

Any disease transmitted genetically - through the genes, i.e. hemophilia, dwarfism.

A

Hereditary disease

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78
Q

Any disease caused by dietary or metabolic deficiency, i.e. diabetes mellitus scurvy (lack of vitamin C) Goiter (lack of iodine).

A

Deficiency disease

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79
Q

Any disease with slow on set and long duration. ex: Carcinoma (cancer). Gout

A

Chronic

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80
Q

Any disease present at birth. Does not have to be life threatening, i.e. cleft palate, polydactylism (more digits on hand or feet than normal).

A

Congenital disease

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81
Q

Any disease obtained after birth.

A

Acquired disease

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82
Q

Any disease that reappears now and then, fever blisters, cold sores.

A

Recurrent disease

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83
Q

Any disease of unknown origin or cause. Essential hypertension.

A

Idiopathic disease

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84
Q

Any disease in which a person’s occupation or profession makes them more susceptible to develop a particular disease. Hepatitis B, scrotal cancer, (chimney sweeps) anthrocosis (black lung disease) silicosis (sandblasting).

A

Occupational disease

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85
Q

Any disease of sudden onset and short duration. ex: MI

A

Acute

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86
Q

the study of the causes of disease

A

Etiology

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87
Q

The divisions of the causes of disease

A

predisposing conditions exciting (immediate causes)

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88
Q

conditions that make a person more susceptible or inclined to develop a particular disease.ex: Age (MS/Meningitis-children’s disease) (Alzheimer’s disease-elderly) (Sarcoma vs. Carcinoma-most 40-65) Sex (Prostate cancer-male) (Uterine & Ovarian cancer-female) (Gallbladder attack-mostly in women) Nutrition (Kwashiokor - protein deficiency) Race (Sickle cell anemia-Blacks) (TB-less in Eskimos) Occupation (Hepatitis B-Embalmers) (Scrotal cancer- chimney sweeps)

A

Predisposing conditions

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89
Q

Any cause of disease that has established a cause/effect relationship

A

Exciting (immediate) causes

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90
Q

coal miners disease…black lung diseaseIt is a type of occupational disease

A

Anthrocosis

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91
Q

Hepatitis B is what type of disease?

A

Occupational

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92
Q

Scrotal cancer is commonly a Recurrent Disease…TRUE OR FALSE?

A

FALSE…it is commonly an occupational disease

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93
Q

any condition or disease induced/caused by treatment of a physician or medical personnel ex: leaving a pair of forceps in the body after surgery

A

Iatrogenic

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94
Q

number of cases reported of a specific illness or disease in a given population.

A

Morbidity Rate

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95
Q

MMWR stands for…..It is one of the most common reports that the morbidity rate of illnesses or diseases are posted in.

A

mortality and morbidity weekly report

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96
Q

Number of deaths reported in a given population for a specific period of time.

A

Mortality Rate (Death Rate)

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97
Q

Carcinoma is an example of what type of disease?

A

Chronic

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98
Q

diabetes mellitus(lack of insulin) & scurvy (lack of vitamin C) is an example of what type of disease?

A

deficiency disease

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99
Q

A common cold is a ______________ disease.

A

endemic

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100
Q

dwarfism is what type of disease?

A

hereditary

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101
Q

essential hypertension is what type of disease?

A

idiopathic

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102
Q

polydactylism (more digits on hand or feet than normal) is a ______________ disease.

A

congenital

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103
Q

A hereditary disease that is also known as the bleeder’s disease. It is mostly present in male offspring; is the absence of an essential clotting factor- Factor 8)

A

hemophilia

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104
Q

The flu can be which two types of diseases?

A

Endemic & epidemic

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105
Q

Allergies are also known as…

A

Hypersensitivities

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106
Q

A death resulting from immediate severe allergic reaction.

A

Anaphylaxis

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107
Q

Anaphylaxis is also known as…

A

anaphylactic shock

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108
Q

also known as frequency. Number of incidents…how frequently an incident occurs.

A

Prevalence- Most commonly used as “how prevalent”

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109
Q

Factors in predisposing conditions

A 
Age 
Sex 
Nutrition 
Race 
Occupation
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110
Q

any type of wound or injury

A

trauma

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111
Q

disease due to dietary or metabolism in the systemex: albinisim

A

deficiencies

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112
Q

not seen on first exposure. Seen on second or third exposure

A

allergens

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113
Q

other factors of predisposing conditions

A

fatigue, general living conditions, plague, alcoholism, heredity, emotion, etc.

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114
Q

mongolism (down’s syndrome), hemophilia, diabetes, dwarfism are examples of…

A

heredity

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115
Q

foreign protein that triggers production of an incomplete antibody

A

allergen

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116
Q

extremes of temperature-cold or heat. Radiation is also an example of this…

A

physical agents

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117
Q

parasites, microorganisms are examples of…

A

infectious agents

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118
Q

chemicals that are either immediately or eventually toxic or poisonous to the body.chemical reactions-has a cause and effect. Chemicals which induce a change in the human body.

A

chemical agents

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119
Q

types of death with medico-legal potential

A
  1. injury or death by violence
  2. sudden and/or unexpected death
  3. environmental deaths4. health, welfare, & safety
  4. medical litigation
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120
Q

albinism is an example of what disease?

A

deficiencies disease

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121
Q

complete absence of production of melanin

A

albinism

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122
Q

an abnormal new growth

A

neoplasms (tumors)

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123
Q

Enclosed sac-like pouches that have a definite wall.Usually containing a liquid, solid, or semi-solid material

A

Cysts

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124
Q

Types of cysts

A

Duarian cyst

Sebaccous cyst

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125
Q

abnormal sac-like pouch present on the ovary.

A

Duarian cyst

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126
Q

type of duarian cyst

A

dermoid

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127
Q

duarian cyst also called…

A

ovarian cyst

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128
Q

a rare ovarian (duarian) cyst that contains a waxy tissue and other structures not normally foundex: teeth or hair follicles

A

dermoid cyst

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129
Q

an abnormal sac-like structure located on a oil gland

A

sebaccous

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130
Q

oil glands are also called

A

sebaceous glands

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131
Q

An increase in size of a body part or organ by an increase in size of the cells already present.Excessive growth

A

hypertrophy

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132
Q

sebaccous cysts are also called…

A

wen

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133
Q

an abnormal sac-like structure

A

tumor

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134
Q

types of hypertrophy

A

physiological
pathological
compensatory

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135
Q

increase in size of a body part or organ due to increased functional demand

A

physiological hypertrophy

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136
Q

Breast tissue due to lactation. The increase in size of the female uterus in preparation of pregnancy.Body builder (confirm this one)These are examples of what?

A

physiological hypertrophy

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137
Q

an increase in size of a body part or organ due to disease

A

pathological hypertrophy

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138
Q

Wilm’s tumor and brain tumor is an example of what?

A

pathological hypertrophy

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139
Q

a rare tumor of the kidney in children

A

Wilm’s tumor

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140
Q

increase in size of a body part or organ to compensate or make up for the loss of a similar or paired organ

A

compensatory hypertrophy

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141
Q

increase in size of a body part or organ by an increase in the total number of cells making it up.

A

hyperplasia

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142
Q

What type of change is hyperplasia?

A

Progressive tissue change

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143
Q

refers to the manner in which a growth occursCONFIRM THIS!!!

A

non-neoplastic changes

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144
Q

oat cell carcinoma is an example of

A

metaplasia

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145
Q

GET AN EXAMPLE OF…

A

COMPENSATORY HYPERTROPHY

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146
Q

classifications of neoplasms

A

clinicalhistological

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147
Q

state of disease

A

clinical

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148
Q

types of states of disease (clinical)

A

benign

malignant

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149
Q

A suffix of “oma” generally means that it is a _____________ tumorNOT ALWAYS

A

benign

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150
Q

ALL malignant tumors left untreated will _______________

A

kill

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151
Q

generally a suffix of sarcoma or carcinoma

A

malignant

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152
Q

malignant tumor of epithelial tissue occurring in persons 45-60

A

carcinoma

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153
Q

breast cancer or lung cancer are examples of what type of tumor

A

carcinoma

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154
Q

bone cancer is an example of what type of tumor

A

sarcoma

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155
Q

malignant tumor or connective tissue in persons under 30

A

sarcoma

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156
Q

generally, a benign tumor will NOT…

A

kill you

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157
Q

tissue or originwhat tissue it originated firstshown by its prefix or the stem of the word

A

histological

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158
Q

types of cellular reactions (manners by which a body would respond to injury)

A

regressive tissue changes

progressive tissue changes

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159
Q

an increase in size is what type of cellular reaction?

A

progressive tissue changes

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160
Q

a decrease in size is what type of cellular reaction?

A

regressive tissue changes

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161
Q

Types of regressive tissue changes

A

degeneration
infiltration
necrosis
atrophy

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162
Q

type of regressive tissue change in which there is an accumulation or buildup of a substance INTRACELLULARLY (within) the protoplasm of cells.

A

degeneration

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163
Q

degeneration is….

A

intracellular

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164
Q

we diffrentiate types of degeneration according to the type of _________ that is _______

A

substance

accumulated

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165
Q

most common type of degeneration.similar to edema. this fluid is between cells. Intracellular, cloudy swelling, There is a temporary accumulation or buildup of fluid within the protoplasm of cells.

A

cellular (cloudy) swelling

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166
Q

fatty change-fatty metamorphosis-abnormal accumulation of fat within the protoplasm of normal cells.

A

fatty degeneration

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167
Q

fat in liver cells affects the _______. This would be called __________

A 
liver 
liver dysfunction (fatty liver degeneration)
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168
Q

intracellular accumulation or buildup of amyloid within the normal protoplasm of cells.Commonly seen in TB - Typically, in adults, it begins in the lungs. Osteomyelitis - inflammation of the spongey bone marrow inside bones. Infectious disease.

A

Amyloid disease

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169
Q

a waxy starch like substance

A

amyloid

170
Q

These two disease are commonly seen in relation to amyloid disease…

A

TBO

steomyelitis

171
Q

type of regressive tissue change in which there is an accumulation or buildup of a substance intercellularly (between the cells)

A

Infiltration

172
Q

means within the cells

A

intracellular

173
Q

means between the cells

A

intercellular

174
Q

inflammation of the spongey bone marrow inside bones. Infectious disease.

A

Osteomyelitis

175
Q

accumulation or buildup of a pigmented or colored substance

A

pigmentation

176
Q

types of infiltration

A

pigmentation
calcification
gout

177
Q

accumulation of a pigmented or colored substance which originated outside the body

A

exogenous pigmentation

178
Q

tattoos, plumbism, (color change along gum line from high elements of lead) anthracosis (cole miner’s disease-black lung), bismuth poisoning (caused from high dosages over time of bismuth-pepto) are examples of…

A

exogenous pigmentation

179
Q

a disease that causes a color change along the gum line…from high elements of lead is called

A

plumbism

180
Q

cole miner’s disease also called black lung disease is…

A

anthracosis

181
Q

abnormal accumulation of pigmented or colored substance that is naturally present or produced within the body

A

endogenous pigmentation

182
Q

jaundice, freckles, moles, albinism, birthmarks

A

endogenous pigmentation

183
Q

types of pigmentation

A

exogenous

endogenous

184
Q

increased localized amounts of melanin. Usually a lighter shade of brown.

A

freckles

185
Q

benign pigmented tumors usually a darker shade of brown.

A

moles

186
Q

complete absence of melanin production

A

albinism

187
Q

these are usually shades of red (port wine color)type of benign tumor of blood vascular tissue.

A

birthmarks

188
Q

accumulation or buildup of calcium salts between the cell fibers, as in sclerotic vessels.This is also the natural way the body heals bone fractures.

A

calcification

189
Q

calcification is also known as…

A

calcareous infiltration

190
Q

excess uric acid, especially seen in big toe

A

gout

191
Q

process by which you have a localized area of necrotic or dead tissue present during life

A

necrosis

192
Q

causes of necrosis..

A
  1. insufficient blood supply
  2. physical agent-temperature extremes, radiation
  3. chemical gents
  4. loss of nerve supply
193
Q

type of dead tissue which is cheese-like in appearance. Has a unique odor. As seen in TB

A

caseous necrosis

194
Q

difference between infarction and necrosis…

A

need to look up

195
Q

types of necrosis

A

caseous gangrene

Decubitus ulcer

196
Q

most famous type of necrosis.

A

gangrene

197
Q

types of gangrene

A

moist
dry
gas

198
Q

true gangrene, since saprophytes are present and invade the tissue. There is a foul odor present since saprophytes are present. This is the worst possible type of gangrene

A

moist

199
Q

It fits this four word definition…ischemic necrosis (localized area of dead tissue that has been caused by the reduction in arterial blood supply ) plus putrefaction. This is why it is considered true.

A

moist gangrene

200
Q

Which gangrene is commonly called TRUE GANGRENE?

A

moist gangrene

201
Q

localized area of dead tissue present in a living body

A

necrosis

202
Q

reduction in arterial blood supply

A

ischemic

203
Q

the decomposition of proteins in an anaerobic environment (absence of oxygen)

A

putrefaction

204
Q

4 word definition for true gangrene?

A

ischemic necrosis plus putrefaction

205
Q

organisms that obtain their food from dead matter

A

saprophytes

206
Q

false gangrene; no saprophytes present; no order; nice line of demarcation.

A

dry gangrene

207
Q

since saprophytes have not invaded dry gangrene it spreads_________

A

slowly

208
Q

only type that is infectious, caused by clostridium perfringens during life; microorganisms cause tissue gas in death

A

gas gangrene

209
Q

a bacteria which can cause spores

A

perfringens

210
Q

which type of gangrene is the ONLY type that is infectious

A

gas gangrene

211
Q

gas gangrene is caused by which of the following type of microorganisms

A

bacteria (perfringens)

212
Q

bedsores caused by pressure points which restrict blood flow.

A

decubitus ulcer

213
Q

dead epithelial tissue

A

ulcer

214
Q

absence or lack of growthA decrease in size of a body part or organ that previously was of normal size.

A

atrophy

215
Q

decrease in size of a body part or organ due to decreased functional demand

A

physiological atrophy

216
Q

types of atrophy

A

physiological

pathological

217
Q

types of gangrene

A

moistdry gas

218
Q

types of degeneration

A

cellular
fatty degeneration
amyloid disease

219
Q

forms of physiological atrophy

A

thymus gland
senile atrophy
breasts after lactation

220
Q

located at the base of the neck. Largest and most active during infancy.

A

Thymus gland

221
Q

the progressive shrinkage of all organs as part of the natural aging process.

A

Senile atrophy

222
Q

decrease in size due to disease

A

pathological atrophy

223
Q

examples of pathological atrophyCHECK ACCURACY OF THIS CARD

A

anorexia nervosa cancer

disease of a body part (muscle) which will decrease in size.

224
Q

body’s total response to any injury.

A

INFLAMMATION

225
Q

Function of inflammation

A

protection of the body

226
Q

If possible, inflammation will…

A

a. Destroy the causative agent.
b. Limit the area affected.
c. Begin the process of repair - the process to replace destroyed cells with new ones (scar tissue), but not the same as the destroyed cells.

227
Q

Causes of inflammation

A
  1. Physical irritants
  2. Chemical irritants
  3. Infectious agents
  4. Immunological reaction
228
Q

extremes of temperature - hot or cold.Radiation which is cumulative.

A

Physical irritants

229
Q

an exposure to chemical.

A

Chemical irritants

230
Q

any type of microscopic pathogens.

A

Infectious agents

231
Q

allergic reaction to a immunological shot (autoimmune disease).

A

Immunological reaction

232
Q

Process of inflammation

A
  1. Hyperemia (congestion) vascular

2. Exudation

233
Q

The shipment of access blood to the injured body part or organ.

A

Hyperemia (congestion) vascular

234
Q

the oozing of fluids at the level of the capillaries.

A

Exudation

235
Q

the liquid that is oozed in inflammation

A

Exudate

236
Q

Types of exudates….

A
  1. Purulent (suppurative)
  2. Hemorrhagic
  3. Serous
237
Q

exudates which contain pus

A

purulent (suppurative)

238
Q

dead and living white blood cells and dead and living bacteria

A

pus

239
Q

exudate which contains blood

A

hemorrhagic

240
Q

exudate which does not contain pus, it is clear

A

serous

241
Q

cardinal signs and/or symptoms with inflammation should be __________________

A

temporary

242
Q

cardinal signs and/or symptoms of inflammation

A 
Heat 
Redness 
Swelling 
Pain
Altered function
243
Q

concerning inflammation….CALOR (INCREASED TEMPERATURE)

A

HEAT

244
Q

concerning inflammation…RUBOR

A

REDNESS

245
Q

concerning inflammation…TUMOR (SHOULD BE TEMPORARY)

A

SWELLING

246
Q

concerning inflammation…DOLOR

A

PAIN

247
Q

concerning inflammation…FUNCTIO LAESA

A

ALTERED FUNCTION

248
Q

Inflammatory lesions

A 
abscess
phlegmon
vesicle
furuncle
carbuncles
fistula
ulcer
pustule
249
Q

localized collection of pus.

A

Abscess

250
Q

cellulitis, a diffuse or wide spread inflammation of subcutaneous connective tissue. Appears as a red streak located and growing just under the surface of the skin.

A

Phlegmon

251
Q

blister, a small or slight elevation on the surface of the skin filled with serous or non-purulent fluid (does not contain pus).

A

Vesicle

252
Q

non-communicating boil, an abscess of a hair follicle or sweat gland.

A

Furuncle

253
Q

several communicating boils where the drainage of the hair follicle or sweat gland are shared.

A

Carbuncles

254
Q

abnormal passageway. Occurs mostly in the lower digestive tract. Can occur between parts of a body or from a body part to the outside.

A

Fistula

255
Q

localized area of necrotic opithel - three common sites

A

Ulcer

256
Q

3 common sites of ulcers

A
  1. Upper GI tract, stomach or duodenum
  2. Toes on diabetics
  3. Decubitus ulcer - bedsore
257
Q

Slight elevation of the surface of the skin which contains pus. (Pimple, whitehead, or black head) usually an oil gland.

A

Pustule

258
Q

outcomes of inflammation

A

resolution
regeneration
repair

259
Q

types of regeneration

A

physiological pathological

260
Q

a part of the outcome which signals the end of the exudation stage or inflammation stage.

A

Resolution

261
Q

the replacement of damaged or diseased cells with the exact cells making it up.

A

Regeneration

262
Q

Regeneration due to increased functional demand.

A

Physiological

263
Q

Regeneration due to disease

A

Pathological

264
Q

connective tissue cells. The replacement of damaged or diseased cells with healthy new cells with connective tissue cells or by surgery -results in scar tissue.

A

Repair

265
Q

itis means…

A

inflammation

266
Q

cyst means…

A

bladder or sac

267
Q

chole means….

A

bile

268
Q

types of inflammation in the nervous system

A 
encephalitis
myelitis
meningitis
poliomyelitis
neuritis
269
Q

inflammation of the brain

A

Encephalitis

270
Q

inflammation of the spinal cord.

A

Myelitis

271
Q

inflammation of the 3 layer membrane of the brain and spinal cord.

A

Meningitis

272
Q

inflammation of the gray matter portion of the spinal cord.

A

Poliomyelitis

273
Q

inflammation of a neuron or nerve cell.

A

Neuritis

274
Q

types of inflammation in the respiratory system

A 
rhinitis
pharyngitis
sinusitis
laryngitis
pleuritis
tracheitis
bronchitis
pneumonitis
275
Q

inflammation of the nasal mucosa

A

Rhinitis

276
Q

(mucusmembrane of the lining of the nasal cavity)

A

nasal mucosa

277
Q

inflammation of the pharynx a sore throat

A

pharyngitis

278
Q

inflammation of one or more sets of the paranasal sinuses

A

sinusitis

279
Q

near or along the nasal cavities

A

paranasal sinuses

280
Q

inflammation of the larynx or voice box

A

laryngitis

281
Q

inflammation of the pleura

A

pleuritis

282
Q

pleuritis is also called…

A

pleurisy

283
Q

a thin membrane that surrounds the lungs

A

pleura (pleural space or cavity)

284
Q

inflammation of the trachea or windpipe

A

tracheitis

285
Q

inflammation of one or both of the bronchi (two) or bronchus (one)

A

bronchitis

286
Q

inflammation of or infection of lung tissue itself

A

pneumonitis

287
Q

types of pneumonitis

A

lobar pneumonia (one portion of the lung)bronchial pneumoniaviral pneumonia

288
Q

types of inflammation in the digestive system

A 
stomatitis
glossitis
gingivitis
esophagitis
gastritis
enteritis
diverticulitis
colitis
proctitis
peritonitis
pancreatitis
hepatitis
cholecystitis
cholangitis
appendicitis
289
Q

inflammation of the gums

A

gingivitis

290
Q

inflammation of the esophagus

A

esophagitis

291
Q

muscular tube that conveys food from the throat to the stomach

A

esophagus

292
Q

inflammation of the stomach

A

gastritis

293
Q

inflammation of the small intestines

A

enteritis

294
Q

inflammation of the diverticulum or intestinal hernia

A

diverticulitis

295
Q

inflammation of the colon

A

colitis

296
Q

longest division of the large intestines

A

colon

297
Q

types of colitis

A

amebiculcerative (psychosomatic disorder)

298
Q

inflammation of the rectum

A

proctitis

299
Q

inflammation of the peritoneum

A

peritonitis

300
Q

membrane which surrounds the abdominal viscera

A

peritoneum

301
Q

inflammation of the pancreas

A

pancreatitis

302
Q

a heterocrine gland that breaks down food and releases insulin into blood to control sugar levels

A

pancreas

303
Q

inflammation of the liver

A

hepatitis

304
Q

inflammation of the sac containing bile or gallbladder

A

cholecystitis

305
Q

inflammation of one or more of the bile ducts

A

cholangitis

306
Q

inflammation of the vermiform appendix

A

appendicitis

307
Q

snakelike

A

vermiform

308
Q

Types of inflammation in the Genital & Urinary System

A 
Pyelitis 
Pyelonephritis Glomerulonephritis 
Ureteritis 
Cystitis 
Urethritis 
Orchitis 
Prostatitis 
Oophoritis 
Salpingitis 
Endometritis 
Endocervicitis 
Vaginitis
309
Q

inflammation of the renal pelvis.

A

Pyelitis

310
Q

inflammation of the structural and functional unit of the kidney caused by pyogenic bacteria.

A

Pyelonephritis

311
Q

inflammation of the Vagina or birth canal.

A

Vaginitis

312
Q

inflammation of the endocervic

A

Endocervicitis

313
Q

the inner most layer of the lower neck structure of the cervix.

A

endocervic

314
Q

pus forming

A

pyogenic

315
Q

inflammation of the little tufted capillaries of the structural and functional unit of the kidneys.

A

Glomerulonephritis

316
Q

little tufted capillaries of kidneys

A

(glomerulus)

317
Q

inflammation of the tube that urine between the kidney and urinary bladder conveys.

A

Ureteritis

318
Q

inflammation of the urinary bladder.

A

Cystitis

319
Q

inflammation of the endometrium, the inner most or vascular layer of the uterus

A

Endometritis

320
Q

inflammation of one or both of the fallopian tubes.

A

Salpingitis

321
Q

inflammation of the single tube that conveys urine from the urinary bladder to outside the body.

A

Urethritis

322
Q

inflammation of one or both of the male gonads (testis).

A

Orchitis

323
Q

inflammation of the prostate gland.

A

Prostatitis

324
Q

inflammation of one or both of the ovaries (female sex gland).

A

Oophoritis

325
Q

types of inflammation of the Cardiovascular System

A 
pericarditis
myocarditis
endocarditis
arteritis
phlebitis
thrombophlebitis
326
Q
  • inflammation of the vein caused by an attached blood clot during life.
A

Thrombophlebitis

327
Q
  • inflammation of the vein.
A

Phlebitis

328
Q
  • inflammation of the artery
A

Arteritis

329
Q

what can cause arteritis

A

angiograms

330
Q

inflammation of the pericardium

A

Pericarditis

331
Q

the sack surrounding the heart.

A

pericardium

332
Q

inflammation of the muscle layer of the heart.

A

Myocarditis

333
Q
  • inflammation of the inner most layer of the heart. The heart valves are made from this tissue.
A

Endocarditis

334
Q

types of inflammation of the Skin and Skeletomuscular System

A

dermatitis
bursitis
osteomyelitis
arthritis

335
Q

inflammation of the skin - contact delayed reaction.

A

Dermatitis

336
Q

inflammation of the bursa

A

Bursitis

337
Q
  • the tiny sac filled with a lubricant for the joints.
A

bursa

338
Q
  • inflammation of the sponge bone and marrow.
A

Osteomyelitis

339
Q
  • inflammation of the joints.
A

Arthritis

340
Q

types of inflammation of the Lymphatic System

A

tonsillitis

lymphangitis

341
Q
  • inflammation of the lymph vessel.
A

Lymphangitis

342
Q

-inflammation of the one or more of the three sets of tonsils. Tissue between the mouth and throat.

A

Tonsillitis

343
Q

A circulatory disturbanceA disease in which a person has excess amounts of tissue fluid present in the body

A

Edema (Dropsy)

344
Q

substance which bathes and surrounds the body cells.

A

Tissue fluids

345
Q

causes of edema

A

a. Increased permeability of the capillaries. The capillaries are allowing too much fluid in and not enough out. The cells are swelling.
b. Increased capillary pressure due to venous obstruction or heart failure.
c. Inflammatory conditions - due to injury.d. Fluid / electrolyte problems – post surgical problems

346
Q

Examples of edema

A 
Anasarca 
Ascites
Hydrothorax Hydropericardium 
Hydrocele 
Hydro-cephalus
347
Q

Type of edemageneralized edema – edema scattered throughout the entire body

A

Anasarca

348
Q

Type of edema excess tissue fluid in the abdominal cavity or peritoneal cavity.

A

Ascites

349
Q

Type of edemaexcess tissue fluid in the thoracic or plural cavity.

A

Hydrothorax

350
Q

Type of edemaexcess tissue fluid in the sack that surrounds the heart.

A

Hydropericardium

351
Q

Type of edemaexcess fluid or edema of a sacculated cavity. Affects the scrotum in males

A

Hydrocele

352
Q

Type of edemaexcess fluid in the cranial cavity - water on the brain. Affects the nervous system. Most commonly reported more in children than adults.

A

Hydro-cephalus

353
Q

A circulatory disturbanceexcess blood in a body part or organ

A

Hyperemia (congestion)

354
Q

types of hyperemia

A

Physiological hyperemiaPathological hyperemia Active hyperemia Passive hyperemia

355
Q

types of hyperemiae.g., blushing - excess blood in a body part or organ due to increased functional demand.

A

Physiological hyperemia

356
Q

types of hyperemiae.g., cyanosis - excess blood in a body part or organ due to disease

A

Pathological hyperemia

357
Q

types of hyperemiaexcess blood in a body part or organ brought there by the arteries

A

Active hyperemia

358
Q

types of hyperemiaexcess blood in a body part or organ due to venous obstruction, an obstruction which is present in the veins. Passive hyperemia is always pathologic.

A

Passive hyperemia

359
Q

reddish blue discoloration seen in the tissues due to lack of oxygen

A

Cyanosis

360
Q

a circulatory disturbancea reduction in the arterial blood supply to a body part or organ

A

Ischemia

361
Q

the most common cause of ischemia is?

A

the presence of an attached blood clot present in an artery.

362
Q

if left untreated, what is the effect of ischemia?

A

death - infarction (death of tissue due to interference of blood supply).

363
Q

a circulatory disturbancethe process by which there is the presence of an attached blood clot during life.

A

Thrombosis

364
Q

single blood clot

A

Thrombus

365
Q

two or more blood clots

A

Thrombi

366
Q

causes of thrombosis (4)

A

a. Injuries to blood vessels.
b. Slower or reduced rate of blood flow.
c. Alterations in blood composition.
d. Blood diseases - becoming thin from within such as leukemia.

367
Q

locations of thrombi

A

a. Veins
b. Arteries
c. chambers of the heart

368
Q

the most common site for thrombi

A

veins

369
Q

thrombi in the lower extremities would cause

A

DVT deep vein thrombosis

370
Q

the least common site for thrombi

A

chambers of the heart

371
Q

the chambers of the heart is the least common site for thrombi. Why?

A

they were shipped to the heart from another part of the body

372
Q

when a thrombi changes location it becomes?

A

mural

373
Q

a thrombi becoming mural (or changing location) is the greatest risk because?

A

the attached blood clot has become infected, and once it becomes infected, it will spread

374
Q

consequences of thrombi depend on what?

A

where it is located

375
Q

a consequence of thrombosisthrombosis present in the artery – causes reduction in arterial blood supply. Restricts blood flow

A

ischemia

376
Q

the most common consequence of thrombosis. Present in the vein.

A

Passive hyperemia

377
Q

a consequence of thrombosisdeath of the tissue caused by interference in blood supply - ischemic necrosis + putrefaction

A

gangrene

378
Q

a circulatory disturbancethe process by which there is a free floating object in the blood stream during life.

A

Embolism

379
Q

a single free floating object in the blood during life

A

embolus

380
Q

one or more objects in the blood during life

A

emboli

381
Q

types of embolism

A

a. Fragments of thrombi
b. Bacteria
c. Tumors
d. Animal parasites
e. Fat
f. Gas
g. Foreign bodies

382
Q

types of embolisma clot that detaches or breaks off. The most common type of an embolism.

A

Fragments of thrombi

383
Q

types of embolismpresent in the blood stream during life. Blood poisoning

A

Bacteria

384
Q

types of embolism swelling; an abnormal growth. Malignant or non-malignant. Begins as free floating in the blood stream. Spread by the blood or lymph system.

A

Tumors

385
Q

types of embolismfree floating in the blood stream.

A

Animal parasites

386
Q

types of embolismfat cells free floating in the blood stream.

A

Fat

387
Q

types of embolismair free floating in the blood stream.

A

gas

388
Q

types of embolismsmall pieces of glass or metal free floating in the blood stream.

A

Foreign bodies

389
Q

Consequences of Ischemia

A

a. Ischemia - reduction in arterial blood supply.
b. Infarction - localized area of dead tissue caused by interference of blood supply.
c. Spread of infection or neoplasm (new growth).
d. Necrosis - dead tissue, i.e. heart.

390
Q

a circulatory disturbanceloss of blood from the vascular system. A human can lose no more than half (1/2) without irreversible damage or death.

A

hemorrhage

391
Q

Methods of hemorrhage

A

Rhexis or Diapedesis

392
Q

loss of blood by rupture of a blood vessel. Rupture of one of the chambers of the heart

A

rhexis

393
Q

loss of blood by squeezing through the pores of the capillaries

A

Diapedesis

394
Q

Causes of hemorrhage

A

a.Trauma - wound or injury
b.Vascular diseases of the blood vessels
c.Hypertension - high blood pressured.
Blood diseases - plethora - excess amount of circulating blood

395
Q

Related terms (3)Size of the hemorrhage

A

Petechia Echymosis Hematoma

396
Q

pinpoint hemorrhages;, smallest of the hemorrhages in terms of size; commonly seen in cancer patients (think of petite)

A

Petechia

397
Q

medium sized hemorrhage (bruise or black and blue spot). Most famous sites- long term IV or a shiner (black eye)

A

Echymosis

398
Q

a tumor like mass of lost blood. Largest of the hemorrhages in terms of size(Pool of blood such as a gun shot wound).(hema-huge-largest)

A

Hematoma

399
Q

Location of the hemorrhage (10)

A 
Epistaxis 
Hemoptysis 
Hematemesis	
Melena 
Hemothorax Hemoperitoneum 
Hematuria 
Exsanguination Hemopericardium Hemophilia
400
Q

Location of the hemorrhagenose bleed, blood coming from the nasal cavity

A

Epistaxis

401
Q

Location of the hemorrhageblood brought up in sputum from the respiratory tract. (Emphysema)

A

Hemoptysis

402
Q

Location of the hemorrhage vomiting of blood. Blood in the vomit from the digestive tract.

A

Hematemesis

403
Q

Location of the hemorrhagethe presence of blood in feces (the stool.) Intestinal tract, the stool color changes from brown to black. (Colon cancer, diverticulitis)

A

Melena

404
Q

Location of the hemorrhagethe presence of blood in the thoracic cavity or plural cavity.

A

Hemothorax

405
Q

Location of the hemorrhagethe presence of blood in the peritoneal cavity or abdominal cavity.

A

Hemoperitoneum

406
Q

Location of the hemorrhagethe presence of blood in the urine or urinary tract, urinary tract infection.

A

Hematuria

407
Q

Location of the hemorrhagemassive loss of blood which usually results in death or irreversible damage. The body cannot loose more than 1/2 of the blood volume, without death or irreversible damage

A

Exsanguination

408
Q

Location of the hemorrhageexcess blood in the sack surrounding the heart.

A

Hemopericardium

409
Q

Location of the hemorrhagean affinity for blood. The bleeder’s disease. A heredity disease only found in males characterized by the absence or a deficiency of an essential clotting factor, factor 8.

A

Hemophilia

410
Q

Postmortem conditions in regards to circulatory disturbances

A
  1. Diminished circulation 2.Abscesses
  2. Hemorrhages
  3. Emaciation/Dehydration
  4. Rapid decomposition 6.Discoloration Intravascular and/or extravascular.
411
Q

diminished circulation postmortem is due to

A

the hardening of the arteries

412
Q

a postmortem circulatory disturbance localized collection of pus

A

abscess

413
Q

occurring postmortemmassive loss of blood can cause generalized circulatory shock.

A

hemorrhages

414
Q

the wasting away or loss of tissue

A

emaciation

415
Q

loss of moisture from the body.

A

dehydration

416
Q

postmortem hypostasis which causes livor mortis (reddish blue discoloration) which is an intravascular blood discoloration. Can be usually removed by embalming.

A
417
Q

blood discoloration after death outside the intravascular system. This is a cosmetic problem.

A

extravascular

418
Q

National board question: What is considered the most permanent blood discoloration?

A

Post mortem extravascular (post mortem stain)

419
Q

inflammation of the mouth

A

stomatitis

420
Q

inflammation of the tongue

A

glossitis

Board Science Cards (28 decks)

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