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.micro Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

scientific study of MO’s and their effect on other living organisms (study of small life).

A

Microbiology

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2
Q

MO stands for

A

Microorganism

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3
Q

Classification or naming of all living things

A

Taxonomy

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4
Q

Ability to exist in either one cell or multi cell form

A

DIMORPHISM

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5
Q

Study of external structure and form of organism without regard to its function *generally indicated by the genus name of MO

A

Morphology

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6
Q

white blood cell eating

A

Phagocytosis

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7
Q

likelihood disease causes infection to human of MO

A

Virulence

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8
Q

DIVISIONS OF MICROBIOLOGY: 1. BACTERIOLOGY – Study of bacteria 2. RICKETTSIOLOGY – Study of Rickettsia (infection usually from bugs or insects) 3. VIROLOGY – Study of viruses (smallest organisms known to man, that cannot be viewed by compound microscope). 4. PROTOZOOLOGY – Study of protozoa (smallest form of animal life – i.e. ameba) 5. MYCOLOGY – Study of fungi or fungus (study of yeasts and mold) *fungi have the ability to exist in one cell or multi-cell form, called DIMORPHISM

A
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9
Q

Study of bacteria 1. Single cell of M.O.’s in kingdom of monora. 2. Reproduced by binary fission

A

BACTERIOLOGY

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10
Q

Study of Rickettsia (infection usually from bugs or insects)

A

RICKETTSIOLOGY separate family, febrile infections (Named for person discovering it. Sr. Anthony Ricketts). Could run a fever of 107 degrees – Rocky Mountain Spotted fever.

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11
Q

Study of viruses (smallest organisms known to man, that cannot be viewed by compound microscope).

A

VIROLOGY

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12
Q

Study of protozoa (smallest form of animal life)

A

PROTOZOOLOGY

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13
Q

Study of fungi (plural)or fungus (singular) (study of yeasts and mold)

A

MYCOLOGY –

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14
Q

fungi have the ability to exist in one cell or multi-cell form, called

A

DIMORPHISM

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15
Q

Classification of Living Things

A

Class – Homo sapiens Highest: Kingdom Keep Phylum Pulling Class Cows Order Out Family From Genus Most important Green Lowest: Species Most important Swamps

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16
Q

Genus name always capitalized

A

Genus name* It indicates something about the morphology - the external structure or form.* pay honor to an individual

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17
Q

the lowest level classification of any living thing.

A

species

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18
Q

is always in small letters. NEVER CAPITALIZED

A

species It usually indicates an infection caused by that microorganismif not usually indicates a lab characteristic

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19
Q

If the________ name does not tell us an _______ it caused by that microorganism , it will usually tell us a _____________

A

speciesinfectionlaboratory characteristic

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20
Q

grows in cluster ( yellow pus)

A

staph

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21
Q

grows in chains

A

strept

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22
Q

What percentage of microorganisms are non-pathegentic

A

87%

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23
Q

What percentage can cause infection to man

A

13%

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24
Q

bacteria lacks a true nucleous

A

prokaryotic

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25
Q

staph, streptinfections

A

bacteria

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26
Q

famous in humans for causing an infection called primary atypical pneumonia. No cell wall, smallest free living organism known to man. (SMALLEST FREE LIVING ORGANISM).

A

mycoplasmas

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27
Q

febrile infections, mostly spread by insects, e.g., typhus fever. The infection accompanying these is high fever and last a longer period of time. Flea born or rat, also transmitted by louse or lice. (Sir Anthony Ricketts).

A

Rickettsia

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28
Q

Strict parasite, smaller than bacteria but larger than viruses. Transmitted by seedling birds. Parrot fever, NGU – non gonococcal urethritis

A

Chlamydia - parrot fever, NGU

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29
Q

smallest microorganism known to man. Measles, mumps, flu, hepatitis

A

viruses

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30
Q

smallest form of animal life malaria, amebic dysentery

A

protozoa

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31
Q

a small protein like infectious particle that is resistant to most procedures that modify nucleic acids. Syndrome – set of signs associated with disease.

A

Prion - creutzfeldt - Jakob (referred to as CJ)

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32
Q

Of the eight (8) different families or groups of microorganisms that are a major health importance, which cause the greatest majority of infection in man

A

bacteria

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33
Q

8 different families or groups of microorganisms

A

1.Bacteria - staph, strept. Infection. Prokaryotic – bacteria lacks a true nucleous.2. Mycoplasmas - famous in humans for causing an infection called primary atypical pneumonia. No cell wall, smallest free living organism known to man. (SMALLEST FREE LIVING ORGANISM). 3. Rickettsia - febrile infections mostly spread by insects, e.g., typhus fever. The infection accompanying these is high fever and last a longer period of time. Flea born or rat, also transmitted by louse or lice. (Sr. Anthony Ricketts).4. Chlamydia - parrot fever, NGU. Strict parasite, smaller than bacteria but larger than viruses. Transmitted by seedling birds. NGU – non gonococcal urethritis 5. Viruses - smallest microorganism known to man. Measles, mumps, flu, hepatitis, smallpox.6. Protozoa - smallest form of animal life - malaria, amebic dysentery.7. Fungi - yeast and molds; athlete’s foot, thrush, PCP.Ability to exist in more than one form – unicellular or multicellular8. Prion - creutzfeldt - Jakob (CJ) a small protein like infectious particle that is resistant to most procedures that modify nucleic acids.

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34
Q

What does non pathogenic mean?

A

do not cause infection in humans

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35
Q

study of external structure and form of any organism without regard to its function.

A

morphology

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36
Q

largest unit of measurement

A

micron

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37
Q

smallest unit of measurement

A

angstrom

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38
Q

medium unit of measurement

A

nanometer

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39
Q

How many main shapes of bacteria are there?

A

3

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40
Q

a single spherical (round) shaped bacteria.

A

Spherical (round) coccus Cocci-two or more spherical (round) shaped bacteria.

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41
Q

a single rod (capsule) shaped bacteria.

A

Rod (capsule) bacillus Bacilli - two or more rod (capsule) shaped bacteria

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42
Q

a single spiral shaped bacteria.

A

Spiral - spirillum Spirilla two or more spiral bacteria

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43
Q

comma shaped bacteria

A

Vibrio Example of disease: Cholera

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44
Q

S curved or autopsy needle shaped. Also, snake shaped bacteria

A

Spirillum

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45
Q

corkscrew shaped bacteria

A

Spirochete Example: Syphilis

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46
Q

grow in pairs - a variation of round shaped bacteria

A

Diplococci

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47
Q

grows in clusters of round shaped bacteria - like grapes

A

Staphylococci

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48
Q

grow together in chains

A

Steptobacilli

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49
Q

the outermost layer which gives shape and integrity (strength) to bacteria; its makeup used to differ among microorganisms; e.g. high lipid (fat) for TB; protein in Gram stain (blue if yes, red if no). This test shows if there is protein in the bacteria of TB

A

cell wall

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50
Q

a thinner, inner layer; controls entry and exit into the bacteria. Regulate entry / exit of food

A

cell membrane

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51
Q

any living substance present in the cell

A

cytoplasm

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52
Q

always located on the outside of certain bacteria it protects cells from phagocytosis. This Jelly like material is located around the outside of certain bacteria.. It protects it against a natural process of the body, phagocytosis, by which the body attempts to destroy anything foreign

A

capsule (slime layer)

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53
Q

when the body attempts to destroy anything foreign, this is known as

A

phagocytosis

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54
Q

surrounds, ingests and destroys anything foreign. A natural process which your body attempts to accomplish. An attempt to try to protect your body against anything foreign. Thus any organism that invades your body and has a slime capsule is more likely to cause infection because of the slime structure. It will take the bodies white blood cells longer to defend against the organism.

A

phagocytosiscell ingestion

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55
Q

the likelihood an organism will cause infection in man. Relative power to produce a disease.

A

virulence

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56
Q

jelly-like material located on outside of certain bacteria; protects cells from natural process of body called phagocytosis, thus enhancing virulence of the microorganisms

A

capsule(slime layer)

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57
Q

best means of protection any microorganism can possess; NOT a means of reproduction; only one per cell, when formed; Bacillus and Clostridium are the only two bacteria that could form spores.

A

Endospore - (Inside)

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58
Q

only two genera that could form spores

A

Bacillus and Clostridium

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59
Q

aerobic - grows in the presence of oxygen

A

Bacillus

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60
Q

anaerobic - grows without the presence of oxygen.

A

Clostridium

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61
Q

NOTE: only genus to be able to form spores

A

–

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62
Q

any bacteria that could never form endospores, or any bacteria that can produce endospores, but currently is not producing them. Never form endospores, a vegetative bacteria that does not have a genus name

A

vegetative bacteria

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63
Q

any bacteria currently producing endospores. This occurs only under adverse living conditions of the bacteria. Never more than one spore at a time.

A

sporulating bacteria

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64
Q

when a free endospore forms new vegetative cells when good living conditions return

A

germinating bacteria

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65
Q

used for movement of bacteria; long, whip like structures attached to the outside of the cell. There are many variations as to how many and where they are located. (e.g. monotrichous and peritrichous) Move to another food source or away from the enemy.

A

flagella

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66
Q

One (long single) whip like structure

A

Monotrichous

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67
Q

Several whip like structures

A

Peritrichous

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68
Q

Smallest form of animal life

A

Protozoa

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69
Q

shorter than Flagella and used to aid in attachment of an organism to the site of infection; e.g. Gonorrhea.

A

Pili “Little Hairs”

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70
Q

set of signs associated with disease.

A

syndrome

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71
Q

The presence of a _______ will enhance the likelihood the bacteria will cause infection.

A

slime layer

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72
Q

name three heterotrophic bacteria

A

strict (obligate) saprophytes
strict (obligate) parasites
faculatative bacteria

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73
Q

all bacteria - pathogens are so classified and must have a source of carbon. Bacteria that obtain their food from INORGANIC matter. They manufacture their own carbon

A

autotrophic bacteria

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74
Q

all organisms that cause infection in man are classified as heterotrophic and obtain their food from ORGANIC matter - food that contains carbon. Humans contain carbon - glucose

A

heterotrophic bacteria

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75
Q

a VISIBLE growth of bacteria growing on a culture medium

A

bacterial colony

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76
Q

the material you attempt to grow bacteria

A

medium

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77
Q

to grow in a laboratory setting bacteria in a medium of nutrient, broth, or blood agar.

A

culture

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78
Q

any organism that must have presence of oxygen to live.

A

strict (obligate) aerobes

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79
Q

organisms that must have absence of oxygen to live

A

strict (obligate) anaerobes

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80
Q

organisms that live in the presence of oxygen, but at a level less than that required of humans

A

microaerophiles

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81
Q

organisms that can live in the presence or absence of oxygen

A

facultative bacteria

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82
Q

excess of water

A

edema

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83
Q

loss of water

A

dehydration

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84
Q

percentage of HYDROGEN (H) ion in solution; slightly alkaline for most pathogens

A

pH

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85
Q

a pH above 7 is

A

alkaline

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86
Q

a pH below 7 is

A

acidic

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87
Q

the smallest microorganism known to man that cannot be seen with the ordinary compound light microscope

A

virus

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88
Q

smallest FREE LIVING organism known to man

A

mycoplasmas

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89
Q

NOTE: In regards to the shape of bacteria… if there are two or more the answer ends with a vowel

A

example:coccibacillispirilla

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90
Q

smallest form of animal life

A

protozoa

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91
Q

True or False?Viruses CANNOT live alone?

A

True

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92
Q

True or False?Chlamydia is SMALLER than bacteria, but LARGER than viruses

A

True

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93
Q

Measles, mumps, flu, and hepatitis are examples of what?

A

Viruses

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94
Q

Malaria and amebic dysentery are examples of what?

A

Protozoa

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95
Q

the lowest temperature at which an organism can live

A

minimum temperature

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96
Q

the highest temperature at which an organism can live.

A

maximum temperature

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97
Q

the temperature at which organism grows best.

A

optimum temperature

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98
Q

organisms that grow best at cold temperature. Usually below 20 degrees Celsius or less than 68 degrees Fahrenheit

A

Psychrophiles (cryophiles) (CHRO- CRY- COLD)

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99
Q

most pathogens - bacteria that prefer medium temperature. Usually between 20 - 40 degrees C. The optimum of most pathogens is normal body temperature of 98.6 F or 37 C. When the body temperature goes up (fever) it does so to kill the organism.

A

Mesophiles (MESO MEDIUM)

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100
Q

helps to kill most pathogens that like medium temperature.

A

fever

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101
Q

The optimum of most pathogens is normal body temperature of

A

98.6 F or 37 C.

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102
Q

organisms that grow best at warm temperatures. Usually above 40 degrees C

A

thermophiles(THINK THERMAL UNDERWEAR TO WARM UP OR A THERMOS OF HOT COFFEE)

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103
Q

ultraviolet means

A

above violet

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104
Q

ultra violet light is bactericidal which means what?

A

will kill bacteria but will not kill all organisms because over a period of time organisms exposed to excessive amounts of ultra violet light will genetically mutate and develop resistance.

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105
Q

Ultraviolet light which ___________ be seen will ______ bacteria

A

cannotkill

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106
Q

Deals primarily with solutions. deals with something you cannot see without a microscope.

A

Osmotic Pressure (Osmosis- diffusion through membranes)

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107
Q

the substance or solution dealing with osmotic pressure present in greater quantity

A

solvent

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108
Q

the substance or solution dealing with osmotic pressure present in lesser quantity

A

solute

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109
Q

name the different osmotic pressure

A

Isotonic solutionsHypertonic solutions Hypotonic solutions

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110
Q

is the type of Osmotic Pressure necessary to properly study bacterial cells and red blood cells to ensure no change in size, shape, and volumethe number of particles entering the cell roughly equals the number of particles leaving. The shape and integrity of the cell is maintained

A

Isotonic Solution

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111
Q

excess solute. If a bacteria is placed in this type of solution it changes the shape of the cell. There will be more particles leaving than entering. The end result – the cell will atrophy

A

hypertonic solution

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112
Q

to wrinkle or shrink

A

atrophy

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113
Q

the shrinkage of a bacterial cell when placed in a Hypertonic Solution

A

plasmolysis

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114
Q

the shrinkage of a red blood cell when placed in a Hypertonic Solution

A

crenation

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115
Q

beneath or below - less solute than normal. If a bacteria cell is placed in this solution, more particles will enter the cell than leave

A

hypotonic solution

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116
Q

The bursting of a bacterial cell when placed in Hypotonic Solution

A

plasmoptysis(MOP) mop below the counter surface

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117
Q

The bursting of a red blood cell when placed in Hypotonic Solution

A

hemolysis

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118
Q

living organisms living together

A

symbiosis

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119
Q

relationship of two or more organisms that is of benefit to all involved

A

mutualism

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120
Q

relationship of two or more organisms that is of benefit to one w/ no effect to the other e.g. normal flora (living in on the human body)

A

commensalism

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121
Q

relationship between two or more organisms which is of benefit to one, harmful to the other.

A

parasitism

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122
Q

a relationship between two or more organisms which produces an effect, be it good or bad, not possible by each one alone. Both parties have to do their part.

A

synergism

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123
Q

a relationship between two or more organisms in which the presence of one inhibits or prevents the growth of the other; mutual opposition or contrary action.

A

antagonism

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124
Q

entry establishment & multiplication of pathogens within a host. Any disease caused by a microorganism

A

infection

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125
Q

the mere presence of infectious material, with no reaction produced.

A

contamination

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126
Q

the ability of an organism to cause infection in man.

A

Pathogenicity

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127
Q

True or FalseA great number of pathogenicites are not infectious

A

True

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128
Q

relative to produce disease, the likelihood that the pathogenic organism will cause infection in man.

A

virulence

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129
Q

a dilution or weakening in the virulence of an organism. This will reduce or destroy its pathogenicity.

A

attenuation

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130
Q

micro-organisms naturally living in and on a host. Present on both dead and living bodies - the reason for disinfecting during embalming.

A

Indigenous flora - (normal flora)

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131
Q

resistant, as in bacteria, to the action of a drug or drugs. Bacterial having developed a resistance to a drug.

A

drug-fast

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132
Q

An infection in which the causative agent (organism) comes from outside the body. Could come from on the body or from the air

A

exogenous infection

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133
Q

An infection which is caused by microorganisms which are normally present within the body.

A

endogenous infection

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134
Q

An infection of sudden onset and short duration, less than one year. Examples: Meningococcemia - Creutzfeldt - Jakob (CJ) -

A

acute infection

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135
Q

A fatal form of blood poisoning

A

Meningococcemia

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136
Q

early form of Alzheimer

A

Creutzfeldt - Jakob (CJ) -

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137
Q

An infection of slow onset and long duration. Greater than a year. Example: Alzheimer

A

chronic infection

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138
Q

An infection capable of being transmitted, either directly or indirectly, from host to host. Host could be a person or animal

A

communicable infection

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139
Q

means highly communicable. The likelihood that the transmission to others will occur is greater

A

contagious

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140
Q

are antagonism to another organism.

A

antibiotics

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141
Q

An infection that is constantly present to a greater or lesser degree in a community Examples: cold and flu

A

endemic

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142
Q

an infection which attacks a large number of people in a community in a short period of time

A

epidemic infection

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143
Q

Worldwide epidemic; an infection which becomes an epidemic in a number of countries at the same timeExample: Flu of 1919 20 million died

A

pandemic infection

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144
Q

An infection which occurs only occasionally (now and then) in a community.

A

sporadic infection

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145
Q

The initial (first) infection of a mixed infection. The first of two infections

A

primary infection

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146
Q

An infection due to (caused by) two or more organisms. When a person or animal is suffering from two or more infections at the same time.

A

mixed infection

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147
Q

The second and generally more complicating infection in a mixed infection. * is usually more lethal.

A

secondary infection

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148
Q

An infection in which the pathogenic organisms remain confined to a particular area. Examples: Abscessed tooth

A

local infection

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149
Q

An infection confined to a particular area, but from which the bacteria spread to other parts of the body. An infection spreads

A

focal infection

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150
Q

Infection throughout, spread generally over the body by the bloodstream or lymphatic system. Sepsis, Septicemia - organisms in the blood

A

general infection

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151
Q

A condition in which bacteria are in the bloodstream, but are not multiplying there. Presence of bacteria in the blood

A

Bacteremia

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152
Q

Invasion of the bloodstream by pathogenic organisms, with their subsequent multiplication therein. Common name is “blood poisoning.”

A

Septicemia

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153
Q

the presence of an organism in the blood.

A

sepsis

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154
Q

The presence of toxins (poisonous substances) in the blood.

A

toxemia

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155
Q

An infection, which occurs during the course of a chronic disease and cause death.

A

terminal infection

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156
Q

The presence of infectious material, without a reaction necessarily being produced. This term can also refer to inanimate objects

A

contamination

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157
Q

inanimate objects. Seen only with a microscope

A

fomite

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158
Q

The invasion of the body by macroscopic parasites, i.e., those able to be seen with the unaided eye. Maggots

A

infestation

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159
Q

unaided eye to see the infestation

A

macroscopic

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160
Q

The ability (or likelihood) of a microorganism to produce disease.

A

virulence

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161
Q

implies a weakening or reduction in the virulence of a microorganism.

A

attenuation

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162
Q

An infection primarily of animals that may be secondarily transmitted to man

A

zoonatic

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163
Q
  • inflammation of the brain
A

encephalitis

164
Q

caused by mosquitoes

A

Encephalitis and Malaria

165
Q

mosquitoes biting migratory birds

A

encephalitis

166
Q

mosquitoes biting monkeys

A

malaria

167
Q

A hospital-acquired infection; one obtained while in the hospital. Staph. (Staff)

A

Nosocomial

168
Q

Literally, pus in the blood; a form of septicemia caused by pyogenic (pus-forming) bacteria. Puss in the blood. Staph. Strept

A

pyemia

169
Q

An infection which causes a fever (elevated temperature).

A

pyremia

170
Q

A sudden, severe, and overwhelming infection, such as spinal meningitis.

A

fulminating

171
Q

Infection throughout the body, having been spread by the bloodstream or lymphatic system. Sepsis, Septicemia - organisms in the blood

A

generalized infection

172
Q

A seemingly inactive infection; it is apparently held in check by the body’s defense, but may spread when the body resistance is reduced.Cold sores, Syphilis. They go away but are not dead. In the case of syphilis the disease has gone to the second stage.

A

latent infection

173
Q

An infection in which the clinical symptoms are not recognized or immediately detectable. TB

A

inapparent infection

174
Q

An infection in which all the symptoms are easily recognized. Rubella (German measles), Mumps

A

typical infection

175
Q

An infection in which all the symptoms are not easily recognizable, meaning that it could be confused with another infection. Not typical - TB. Complaint of one problem Intestinal pain and find out it is TB of the intestines

A

atypical infection

176
Q

Any microorganism that causes disease in man

A

pathogen

177
Q

Any microorganism that does not cause disease in man.

A

non-pathogen

178
Q

types of pathogens

A

normal floraopportunistsstrict (obligate) pathogens

179
Q

Microorganisms that live and grow in and on the human body. Most are non-pathogens. Indigenous

A

normal flora

180
Q

Microorganisms that produce infection only under especially favorable conditions, that is, they await the right opportunity to cause infection. Pathogens contained in a person’s normal flora are usually these, since they alone cannot penetrate unbroken skin.

A

opportunists

181
Q

Microorganisms that will cause an infection in man every time that a person is exposed to them. They are never a part of one’s normal flora. A must behavior Example: Strept throat

A

strict (obligate) pathogens

182
Q

factors influencing virulence

A

toxin productionenzymescapsulesendospores

183
Q

Poison substance

A

toxin production

184
Q

Poison substance produced all the time and continuously released to the outside of certain bacteria; e.g. Tetanus, Cholera

A

exotoxins

185
Q

Poison substance only released when the cell producing the bacteria is destroyed; e.g.: Spinal Meningitis.The ability of the bacteria to release a poison when the white blood cells of the body kills the bacteria

A

endotoxins

186
Q

substances, which speed up the rate of a chemical reaction, without being used up or destroyed in the process

A

enzyme(organic catalyst)

187
Q

an enzyme that helps spread bacteria. Increase the bacteria’s ability to spread to other parts of the body

A

Hyaluronidase (Spreading factor)

188
Q

an enzyme that clots human plasma.

A

coagulase

189
Q

the liquid portion of non-clotted human blood.

A

plasma

190
Q

an enzymes that dissolves blood clots. Especially if the clot has caused MI (heart attack). Persons having a heart attack or stroke caused by a blood clot would receive this enzyme to prevent other blood clots.

A

Fibrinolysin (steptokinase)

191
Q

jelly like material located on the outside of certain bacteria.

A

capsules (slime layer)

192
Q

The presence of the slime layer will:

A

Enhances the bacteria’s virulence. andProtects the organism from phagocytosis

193
Q

cell ingestion

A

phagocytosis

194
Q

the best protection an organism can possess is the ability to produce spores.

A

endospores

195
Q

A person or animal that possess an organism after recovery from the infection it causes. The greatest risk of spreading an infection is immediately after recovery

A

active carrier of infection

196
Q

A person or animal that has a particular organism, even though they have never suffered from the infection it causes, and passes it along to anotherExample: Typhoid Mary.

A

passive carrier infection

197
Q

sources of infection

A

A person or animal currently ill of the infection.orChronic animal or human carriers

198
Q

an animal or person that possesses an organism and transmits to someone else during recovery from the infection it causes

A

convalescent carrier of infection

199
Q

outside environments

A

environment

200
Q

modes of transmission of infections

A

direct transmissionindirect transmission

201
Q

types of direct transmission of infections

A

physical contact (sexually transmitted disease)droplet infection (aerosol- sneezing)congenital- rubella (German measles) contacted during pregnancy from mother to child

202
Q

types of indirect transmission of infections

A

a. Food poisoning (could taste fine at time of eating) b. Milk (bovine strain of TB) c. Fomites - lifeless inanimate objects - doorknobs, money, trocars, toilet seats, etc. d. Water (water signs – approved: Dept. of Health) e. Soil - tetanus or lock jaw. f. Vectors - an animal usually an insect that is serving as an indirect mode of transmission.

203
Q

portals of entry and exit of pathogens

A
  1. Skin and mucous membranes - staph. These organisms are living on your skin and are opportunistic and invades the body through a cut. The skin is the largest organ of the body (liver the largest organ in the body) 2. Respiratory tract - TB, pneumonia (infection of lung tissue itself) 3. Digestive tract - cholera, loss of 10quarts of water per day), dysentery 4. Genito - urinary tract (gut) - STD’s (sexually transmitted disease’s) 5. Placenta - rubella (German measles) transmitted from mother via the placenta into developing infant. Rubella always means German measles. (we would prefer a mother to be sick with 10 day measles so as not to be sick with this)
204
Q

vehicles of exit pathogens

A

fecesurinesemenvaginal secretionssputumsalivabloodpus and lesion exudatestears

205
Q

Waste product from the digestive tract - dysentery, cholera extremely watery stool

A

feces

206
Q

a substance made of a combination of saliva and mucus brought up from the respiratory tract.

A

sputum(phlegm)

207
Q

produced by three sets of salivary glands. Vehicle of exit of disease spread to humanscytomegalovirus (CID) rabies

A

saliva (spit)

208
Q

a vehicle for exit of disease spread to humans. Example: hepatitis A & B

A

blood

209
Q

A vehicle of exit of disease to humans; consists of both dead and living pus and blood. Examples: abscesses, decubitus ulcers – bed sores

A

Pus and lesion exudates

210
Q

contain enzymes that kill bacteria

A

tears

211
Q

FACTORS INFLUENCING THE OCCURRENCE OF AN INFECTION:

A
  1. Portal of entry of the pathogens and elective localization – when an organism chooses to restrict itself to a particular area or region of the body this is called “elective localization.”2. Number of organisms - the more in number of an organism, the more likely you will be infected.3. Virulence of the organism - the likelihood an organism will cause infection in humans.(measuring how likely it is to cause infection.) Example: 1918 Flu – they died.4. Resistance of the host - having a good immune system. Good resistance to the organism. (Deals with immune ty of the host). Opportunistic or secondary infection. Health or illness = N (V) R N - number of organisms V - virulence of the organism R - resistance N x V divided by - R
212
Q

when an organism chooses to restrict itself to a particular area or region of the body this is called

A

localization

213
Q

inhibits microorganisms from entering the body.

A

Mechanical Defenses (Anatomical)

214
Q

anatomical barriers

A

skin mucous membranes - soft moist tissue side the nose, ear, mouth, and eyes. Bony encasements - skull, ribcage.

215
Q
  • the bodies total response to an injury.
A

inflammation

216
Q

an agent that causes the body temperature to risethe substance that stimulates the production that causes a fever. may come from within or from outside the body.

A

pyrogens

217
Q

(white blood cells) scavengers - large cell ingestors like packman.

A

phagocytosis

218
Q

enzymes present in tears which kill bacteria

A

lysozyme

219
Q

(HCL) hydrochloric acid produced within the stomach to kill bacteria.

A

gastric juice

220
Q

chemical defenses (body secretions)

A

lysozymesand gastric juices

221
Q

Specific protein produced within the body in response to a specific foreign protein or bacteria

A

antibodies

222
Q

virus neutralizing - a substance produced by the body cells. Can be enhanced by vaccination.

A

interferon

223
Q

Another name for antibodies is

A

immunogoblin (Ig).

224
Q

The study of immunity.

A

Immunology

225
Q

what is the ph of the human body?

A

7.4-7.5

226
Q

most bacteria reproduce by what

A

binary fission (simple transverse division)

227
Q

a must behavior- a bacteria that must obtain its food from dead organic matter

A

strict (obligate) saprophytes

228
Q

Heterotrophic that must obtain their food from living organic matter

A

strict (obligate) parasites

229
Q

Heterotrophic bacteria that can obtain their food from dead or living organic matter

A

facultative bacteria

230
Q

types of defenses of the body against infection

A

mechanical, physiological, chemical

231
Q

functional defenses of the body against infection

A

physiological defenses

232
Q

types of physiological defenses of the body against infection

A

inflammation, fever, phagocytosis

233
Q

the substance that stimulates the production that causes a fever. They may come from within or from outside the body. They are literally an agent that causes the body temperature to rise

A

pyrogens

234
Q

(white blood cells) scavengers - cell ingestion like pac man.

A

phagocytosis

235
Q

specific chemical substances found within the body that protect us from infection

A

chemical defense

236
Q

useful substance (glands).

A

body secretions

237
Q

Specific proteins produced by the body in response to a specific foreign protein (antigen) or bacteria

A

antibodies

238
Q

trigger production of antibodes

A

antigens

239
Q

medical name for antibodies chemical defense against infection.

A

Immunoglobulins (Ig)

240
Q

virus neutralizing substance produced individually by the body cells. Can be enhanced by vaccination

A

interferon

241
Q

glycoprotein substance developed in response to, and interacting specifically with antigen. Once formed in the body, it will remain forever. It may decrease over the years. Another name is immunogoblin (Ig). They are classified as chemical defenses against specific infection in the body

A

antibodies

242
Q

The study of immunity

A

immunology

243
Q

a highly developed state of resistance of the body in response to a specific infection or disease.

A

immunity

244
Q

the absence or suppression of factors responsible for development of immunity.

A

Susceptibility

245
Q

Characteristics of Antigen

A

very specific; true. A true antibody is a substance produced by the body and has bivalent receptor sites (two ends) and only formed in response to antigens. A true antibody will have bivalent receptor sites; if incomplete, (only one end) an allergic reaction can occur

246
Q

kinds of immunity

A

Natural (innate) immunity Acquired immunity

247
Q

type of immunity that is inborn (at conception, not birth)

A

natural (innate) immunity

248
Q

three types of natural (innate) immunity

A

racialspeciesindividual- interferon

249
Q

A type of natural immunity where a particular race is predisposed to a disease

A

racial immunity

250
Q

Red Blood Cells are not round but look like a sickle, absence or lack blood

A

sickle cell anemia

251
Q

distemper non-human disease

A

species

252
Q

obtained immunity through the natural life process (not born with)

A

acquired immunity

253
Q

type of immunity- natural life process. The body was actively involved in producing antibodies.

A

naturally acquired immunity

254
Q

The body was actively involved in producing antibodies. Having a disease and recovering from it since you didn’t die from the disease

A

Naturally acquired Active immunity

255
Q

naturally . The body was not directly involved in producing antibodies

A

Naturally acquired Passive immunity

256
Q

types of Naturally acquired Passive immunity

A

colostrumbreast milkplacental transfer

257
Q

not obtained through the natural life process but by a shot or immunization.

A

artificially acquired immunity

258
Q

artificially acquired active; given when healthy to build up immunity against the infectionsExample DPT

A

vaccine

259
Q

artifically acquired active; poisonous substances that have been modified in the laboratory setting and used to convey immunity by shot or vaccine

A

toxoids

260
Q

Active immunity _______ than passive immunity, however, it is _________ established. The immunity established would never be formed in the body without _______________

A

lasts longermore slowlythe vaccination

261
Q

a weakened active strain, live or dead (flu shot)

A

attenuated strain

262
Q

not sure how to make this a card. I don’t really know how it goes with the artificially acquired active

A

Live or dead microorganisms, extracts (PPD) - purified protein derivative, the TB skin test

263
Q

Conveyed by artificial means instantaneously through a pre-formed antibody. Last the shortest time -7- 10 days

A

artificially acquired passive immunity

264
Q

examples of artificially acquired passive immunity

A

immune serum, antiserum, gamma globulin.

265
Q

level of controls of microrganisms

A

sterilizationdisinfectionantisepsis

266
Q

process of completely removing and destroying ALL LIFE FORMS and their products (endospores and exotoxins) in or on a substance

A

sterilization

267
Q

the process of destruction of ALL PATHOGENIC organism (infectious agents) from an object through physical or chemical means

A

disinfection

268
Q

literally means against the presence of microorganisms - the prevention of growth of microorganisms, without necessarily killing them. [By preventing or inhibiting the growth of causative organisms.]

A

antisepsis

269
Q

the agent to achieve antisepsis. It does not kill a germs but prevents its growth and multiplication

A

antiseptic

270
Q

physical methods of control of microorganisms

A

Scrubbing Heat - . (1) Incineration (2) Dry heat - (3) Moist heat Cold temperatures Ultraviolet light (UV)

271
Q

The actual mechanical method of moving hands with a soft scrub brush and using a disinfectant soap.

A

scrubbing

272
Q

most common physical method of control of microorganisms

A

heat

273
Q

three types of heat methods of control of microorganisms

A

incinerationdry heat moist heat

274
Q

Burning / Flaming as a lab technique.

A

incineration

275
Q

Convection oven

A

dry heat

276
Q

three types of moist heat

A

Boiling - liquid state to gaseous state.Free-flowing steamSteam under pressure: autoclave

277
Q

The best method; chemical or physical to achieve true sterilization

A

steam under pressure: autoclave

278
Q

Name the constant temperature, standard pressure, and standard exposure time for autoclave

A

Standard temperature: 121 degrees C – 250 degrees FStandard pressure: 15 lbs.Standard exposure time: 15 minutes*15lbs @ 121 degrees for 15 minutesIf constant for temperature, pressure, and time, all forms of life known to man will be killed.

279
Q

_________ will ______ down the rate of decomposition. This is achieved because it __________ moisture.

A

Refrigerationslowremoves

280
Q

means above violet, it is bactericidal, which means it will kill most bacteria. Bacteria, however, will build up an immunity to it

A

ultra violet light

281
Q

chemical methods to control microrganisms

A

Disinfectants

282
Q

Chemical agents used to disinfect. Substances which rid pathogens on objects.

A

disinfectants

283
Q

Chemical disinfectant that kills a wide variety of germs or pathogens (microorganisms).

A

germicide

284
Q

Chemical disinfectants which kill bacteria.

A

bactericide

285
Q

Chemical disinfectants which kill fungi, yeast, moles, and fungus, i.e., athlete’s foot and ringworm’s.

A

fungicide

286
Q

Chemical disinfectants which kill virus.

A

viricide

287
Q

Chemical disinfectants used to kill insects. Vectors

A

insecticides

288
Q

Chemical disinfectants used to kill larva of insects.

A

larvacide

289
Q

Factors influencing the action of disinfectants (8)

A

(1) Nature of the disinfectant - fit the disinfectant to the problem.(2) Concentration of the disinfectant, as you increase the concentration, you increase the disinfectant’s ability.(3) Nature of the material to be disinfected.(4) Number of microorganisms present.(5) Kind of microorganism present i.e., if a germ uses a germicide.(6) Time of exposure to disinfectant - if you increase exposure time, you will increase the disinfectant’s quality.(7) Temperature of disinfectant during exposure. If you increase the water temperature, the disinfectant will be diluted into, you will increase the effectiveness.(8) pH of disinfectant during exposure.

290
Q

Disinfectants suitable for mortuary procedures

A

Halogens AlcoholsAldehydes Phenolic compounds Quatenary ammonium compounds (quats)

291
Q

types of halogens or salt formers (2)

A

Hypochlorites Iodophors

292
Q

(bleaches) e.g.: NAOCL - household bleach. Standard solution is 1:10 dilution; standard external disinfectant per CDC (Center for Disease Control).

A

hydrochlorites

293
Q

iodine; betadine (rust or yellow color) contains iodine.

A

iodophors

294
Q

types of alcohols

A

Ethyl alcohol Isopropyl alcohol

295
Q

use grain to produce and the only alcohol fit for human consumption

A

ethyl alcohol (ethanol)

296
Q

rubbing alcohol - Disinfectant

A

isopropyl alcohol

297
Q

alcohol deprived of hydrogen

A

Aldehydes

298
Q

types of aldehydes

A

Formalin Glutaraldehyde

299
Q

(Formaldehyde solution) mixture of formaldehyde gas and water. Compare strength using an index.

A

formalin

300
Q

2% as Cidex. A better disinfectant than formalin (formaldehyde) but not as good as a preservative.

A

Glutaraldehyde

301
Q

the number of grams of formaldehyde gas dissolved in a 100 milliliter of solution. Also represent percentage of formaldehyde within that product or container.

A

index

302
Q

The highest index used in embalming is _____ The saturation point is (what percentage) by weight - (what percentage) by volume.

A

36 index.37%40%

303
Q

is 8 to 10 grams - the lowest index used in embalming.

A

jaundice

304
Q

disinfectants based on the chemical phenol

A

Phenolic compounds

305
Q

types of phenolic compounds

A

Phenol Cresol Hexachlorophene

306
Q

(carbolic acid) - it is acidic in terms of pH.(1) Used as a cauterizer - to sear off or prevent leakage from tissue.(2) Used as a bleaching agent

A

phenol

307
Q

a member of the phenolic compound. It’s household name is Lysol

A

Cresol

308
Q

a phenolic compound which is a topical disinfectant

A

hexachlorophene

309
Q

also called quats

A

Quatenary ammonium compounds

310
Q

examples of chemicals used as a quartenary ammonium compounds

A

Benzalkonium Chloride Zephrian Chloride

311
Q

german measles

A

naturally acquired active

312
Q

anti serum

A

artificially acquired passive

313
Q

tetanus toxoid

A

artificially acquired active

314
Q

transfer of placental antibodies

A

naturally acquired passive

315
Q

colostrum

A

naturally acquired passive

316
Q

immunization

A

artificially acquired active

317
Q

gamma globin

A

artificially acquired passive

318
Q

lobar pneumonia

A

naturally acquired active

319
Q

vaccination

A

artificially acquired active

320
Q

immune system

A

artificially acquired passive

321
Q

(pus formers) round shaped and produce pus. They are ALL gram POSITIVE bacteria.

A

Pyogenic cocci

322
Q

the ability of an organism to cause infection in man

A

Pathogenicity

323
Q

round shaped cluster bacteria / golden in color

A

Staphylococcus aureus

324
Q

Pathogenicity of Staphylococcus aureus

A

Skin abscesses Food intoxication Secondary infections Nosocomial (“staph”) infections- Toxic shock syndrome

325
Q

a well-defined localized collection of pus. Visually seen on the surface of the skin. Would include: Acne (black heads, white heads), zits, impetigo, boils, and abscesses of a hair follicle (carbuncles and furuncles)

A

Skin abscesses

326
Q

release of a poisonous substance – ptomaine food poisoning - milk, cheese.

A

Food intoxication

327
Q

second and generally more complicated, and potentially more lethal of a mixed infection.

A

Secondary infections

328
Q

acquired in hospital (often transmitted by the hospital STAFF) - most famous secondary infection

A

Nosocomial (“staph”) infections

329
Q

Characteristics of Staphylococcus aureus

A
  1. Round-shaped 2. Grows in clusters 3. Produces a golden pigment in laboratory 4. Opportunists in normal flora (living on skin) 5. Abscess - typical lesion - the color of the pus is a yellow color 6. Gram (stain) positive and would appear blue 7. Exotoxins -Poison substance produced and released all the time and continuously to the outside of certain bacteria; .e.g.: Tetanus, Cholera
330
Q

Portal of entry Staphylococcus aureus

A

broken skin; (staph attempts to invade deeper tissues)

331
Q

Portal of exit Staphylococcus aureus

A

pus with living bacteria

332
Q

Mode of transportation (Staphylococcus aureus)

A

Direct, person-to-person (physical contact)

333
Q

round shaped bacteria that grows in chains

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

334
Q

Pathogenicity of Streptococcus pyogenes

A

Septic sore throat Scarlet fever Rheumatic fever Puerperal sepsis

335
Q

septic sore throat

A

strept throat

336
Q

appearance of body scarlet strawberry tongue

A

scarlet fever

337
Q

Aschoff bodies is the scar tissue which forms in the body of a patient who has recovered from this type of infection. It is usually on the heart valves and later will cause problems.

A

Rheumatic fever

338
Q

(child bed fever) occurs within the first six weeks following child birth in the mother, not the child.

A

Puerperal sepsis

339
Q

Characteristics of Streptococcus pyogenes

A

Round shaped bacteriaGrows in chains of round shaped bacteria.Produces pus, as shown by species name.Cellulitis Strict pathogen Gram positive - will stain blue

340
Q
  • typical lesion - wide spread inflammation of subcutaneous connective tissue. It appears as a red streak just under the surface of the skin.
A

Cellulitis

341
Q

Strict pathogen - not in normal flora. If you come in contact, you will be infected

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

342
Q

Portal of entry of Streptococcus pyogenes

A

respiratory tract

343
Q

portal of exit of Streptococcus pyogenes

A

sputum

344
Q

Mode of transportation (Streptococcus pyogenes)

A

direct person-to-person (droplet) infection or indirect from fomites (contaminated instruments).

345
Q

infection of the lungs

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

346
Q

Pathogenicity of Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

Lobar pneumonia Meningitis Otitis media

347
Q

a type of infection of the lungs confined to one or more lobes of the lung (almost 95% of the cases are caused by streptococcus pneumoniae)

A

lobar pneumonia

348
Q

inflammation of the brain

A

meningitis

349
Q

middle ear infection

A

Otitis media

350
Q

Characteristics of Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

Round shaped grows chainsGrows in pairs Commonly called pneumococcus Gram positive, appears blueAlways forms a capsule (slime layer).Normal flora - usually seasonal, winter and spring.

351
Q

round shaped and grows in pairs

A

diplococcus

352
Q

Commonly called pneumococcus, which generates green pus

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

353
Q

Portal of entry and exit Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

respiratory tract.

354
Q

Mode of transportation Streptococcus pneumonia

A

Person-to-person droplet infection.

355
Q

5 bacteria names belonging in the round shaped bacteria group

A

Staphylococcus aureusStreptococcus pyogenesStreptococcus pneumococcusNeisseria gonorrheaNeissera meningitis

356
Q

venereal disease, ROUND Shaped

A

Neisseria gonorrhea

357
Q

Pathogenicity of Neisseria gonorrhea

A

gonorrhea- . Also causes: Opthalmia neonatorum

358
Q

2nd common STD reported

A

gonorrhea

359
Q

disease of newborn’s EYES reported in first 30 days of infants. Infants receive 1% silver nitrate to kill this infection.

A

Opthalmia neonatorum

360
Q

Characteristic of Neisseria gonorrhea

A

Round shaped bacteriaDiplococcus - coffee bean shaped.Gonococcus- common name of Neisseria gonorrheaPili- little hairs that attach to initial site (urethra)No immunity gained - male usually seeks treatment first.Gram negative - (red)

361
Q

little hair like projections on the outside to aid in attachment to the urethra (initial site of infection).

A

pili

362
Q

Portal of entry Neisseria gonorrhea

A

Genital Urinary Tract(GUT)

363
Q

mode of transmission Neisseria gonorrhea

A

direct person-to-person by means of physical contact

364
Q

besides, Neisseria gonorrhea, this is another round shaped bacteria that is Gram negative

A

Neisseria meningititis

365
Q

Pathogenicity of Neisseria meningititis

A

Meningitis (epidemic) meningis Meningococcemia -

366
Q

an infection of the three layer membrane of the brain that attacks the central nervous system

A

Meningitis (epidemic) meningis

367
Q

a secondary infection of meningitis. It is a fulminating blood poisoning. It is sudden, severe and overwhelming

A

Meningococcemia

368
Q

Characteristics of Neisseria meningititis

A

Round shapedDiplococcusMeningococcusGram negative and appear red in the gram stain.Especially favors the nasopharynx.Endotoxin - a poisonous substance only released with the cell producing it is destroyed.

369
Q

Portal of entry and exit Neisseria meningititis

A

respiratory tract

370
Q

Mode of transmission Neisseria meningititis

A

direct (droplet) person-to-person transmission.

371
Q

rod shaped bacteria of the small or large intestinal tract

A

Enteric bacilli

372
Q

rod shaped bacteria - causes typhoid fever and infection of the intestinal tract.

A

Salmonella typhi

373
Q

causes food infection. The food has the bacteria growing within the food itself. Found in foods of hogs, horses, fowl, turtles, oysters. Gram negative

A

Salmonellosis

374
Q

Characteristic of Salmonella enteriditis

A

Rod shaped Gram negative and appears red. Not (Never) part of the normal flora.

375
Q

Portal of entry of Salmonella enteriditis

A

digestive tract

376
Q

Portal of exit of Salmonella enteriditis

A

feces

377
Q

Mode of transmission of Salmonella enteriditis

A

indirect - food, milk, water or indirectly animal - cockroaches, fly’s (mechanical vectors)

378
Q

rod shaped bacteria that causes bacillary dysentery. Gram negative

A

Shigella species

379
Q

A coliform, bacteria, which causes green discoloration associated with decomposition. Rod shaped. Gram negative

A

E (Escherichia) coli

380
Q

Medically during life E coli causes this - an inflammation of the small intestine

A

Enteritis

381
Q

10% and more severe form of lobar pneumonia plus urinary infection tract. Rod shaped. Gram negative

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

382
Q

causes secondary infections in burn victims, most motile (movement) of bacilli. Bacteria. rod shaped. Long whip like flagella on all sides. The gram stain (red) negative.

A

Proteus species

383
Q

(look like a comma) causes Asiatic cholera. Enterotoxin – a poisonous substance released which causes water loss.

A

Vibrio cholerae

384
Q

Gram positive, (blue), rod shaped bacteria. They grow in the absence of oxygen

A

anaerobes

385
Q

name the 7 bacteria discussed in the enteric bacilli group

A

Salmonella typhi Salmonella enteriditis Shigella species E (Escherichia) coli -Klebsiella pheumoniaeProteus speciesVibrio cholerae

386
Q

name the 5 bacteria in the round shaped pyogenic cocci group

A

Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus pyogenes Streptococcus pneumoniae Neisseria gonorrheaNeisseria meningititis

387
Q

name the bacteria in the rod shaped anaerobe group

A

Clostridium tetaniClostridium bolulinum Clostridium perfringens (welchii) Clostridium difficileBacteroides species

388
Q

Clostridium tetani

A

A. Pathogenicity 1. Tetanus (lock jaw) continuous muscle contraction - can form endospores.B. Characteristic 1. Produces endospores only under adverse conditions and grow at one end. 2. Exotoxin - neurotoxin - a poisonous substance with an affinity for the nervous system of the muscles of mastication. 3. Causes continuous muscle spasms. 4. Certain amount of necrotic (dead) tissue must be present. 5. Infectious, not communicable. C. Portal of entry - skin. D. Mode of transmission - indirect (soil) no person-to-person transmission

389
Q

causes botulism - Most lethal form of food intoxication (poison) 1 millionth of a gram is the lethal dose to man. 1/2 lb. would kill the world. Prove to develop in home canning especially alkaline vegetables (beans and corn) fortunately heat liable, even though it produces endospores

A

Clostridium botulinum

390
Q

has the ability to cause three infections in humans.

A

Clostridium perfringens (welchii)

391
Q

Pathogenicity of Clostridium perfringens (welchii)

A

tissue gasgas gangrenefood intoxication.

392
Q

an infection that only develops after death (post mortem). Most common areas where it will will appear is usually in the extremities.

A

tissue gas

393
Q

an infection that only develops before death (antemortem).

A

gas gangrene

394
Q

a minor infection that is a release of poisonous substance

A

food intoxication

395
Q

Characteristics that influence virulence of organism Clostridium perfringens

A

Forms endospores- enzymes ferment glucoseExotoxin - enterotoxin in food intoxication.Releases enzymes which eat fibrous protein, thus facilitating the rate of the spreading of the infection - fast spreading.Skin slip and crepitation (cracky, spongy feeling) associated with its infection.Ferments glucose, thus forming gas, which causes the cracky, spongy feeling.Normal flora of the intestinal tract.

396
Q

Portal of entry of Clostridium perfringens

A

digestive tract for food poisoning otherwise the skin.

397
Q

Mode of transmission Clostridium perfringens

A

indirect (soil in wounds) or fomites (trocars).

398
Q

If person has ________ in life, be suspicious of _____ ______ at death.

A

gangrenetissue gas

399
Q

nosocomial infection (Staph infections)Mode of transmission-Fecal oral route

A

Clostridium difficile

400
Q

causes anaerobic lung absesses and multiple infections. Only one that doesn’t tell you from its name that it will form endospores

A

Bacteroides species

401
Q

Causes food poisoning in man

A

Staphylococcus aureus

402
Q

Tells you from species name that it will produce pus

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

403
Q

Grows in pairs

A

Streptococcus pheumoniaeNeisseria gonorrhoeaeNeisseria meningitidis

404
Q

Cause middle ear infection

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

405
Q

the two bacteria that could cause meningitis

A

Streptococcus pneumoniaeNeisseria meningitidis

406
Q

Round shaped and produce pus

A

Staphylococcus aureusStreptococcus pyogenesStreptococcus pneumoniae

407
Q

Only one that forms endotoxins

A

Neisseria meningitidis

Board Science Cards (28 decks)

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