Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

pt Study > Past Quiz/Test question from 3rd year > Flashcards

Past Quiz/Test question from 3rd year Flashcards

1
Q

During a pt interview, a pt ℅ pain down the long finger, and into the left interscapular area. Which positive special test would BEST indicate the source of symptoms?

A

Spurling’s test
Ipsilateral SB, ipsilateral rotation, extension, axial compression. Radicular symptoms = positive for nerve compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A PT observes that a pt’s medial longitudinal arch is extremely depressed. Which of the following structures is most likely compromised?

A

Plantar calcaneonavicular ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A pt presents to the clinic w/ ℅ of a burning sensation in the anterolateral aspect of the thigh. A dysfunction of which of the following nerves would lead to these symptoms?

A

Lateral (femoral) cutaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following muscles contribute to a pes anserine tendonitis?

A

sartorius, semitendinosus, gracilis (SGT “sergeant”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What role does the rotator cuff strengthening play in the rehab of GHJ impingement?

A

Provides an inferior pull on the humeral head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A pt presents w/ glenohumeral hypomobility in all directions of motion, pain w/ overhead reaching, and scapular winging. During treatment intervention in the following weeks which of the following is the BEST order of addressing the pt’s problem list?

A

Glenohumeral mobilization, scapular stabilizer strengthening, RTC strengthening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following diagnoses would general spinal flexion exercises and joint mobilization techniques be contraindicated as treatment interventions?

A

Osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following landmarks are used to measure the Q-angle?

A

ASIS, midpoint of patella, tibial tubercle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A 16 y/o HS track athlete presents to PT w/ knee pain that is accompanied by limited ROM, popping, and clicking. Based only on this presentation, which of the following tests is the most appropriate test to use to confirm a diagnosis?

A

McMurray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A positive step deformity would indicate involvement of which joint of the shoulder

A

Acromioclavicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A pt presents w/ shoulder pain that is accompanied by popping and clicking. He also notes the shoulder “pops out” when he tries to do a push-up. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate test to confirm the diagnosis?

A

Resisted bicep flexion in 90 deg shld abduction and full ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

During pregnancy, which of the following joints is most frequently affected by hypermobility due to the presence of the hormone relaxin?

A

SI Joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A pt presents to PT w/ an x-ray report that indicates a problem w/ the R pars articularis of L5. Which of the following MOST accurately describes this condition?

A

Spondylolysis
(Bony defect in pars interarticularis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following is a seronegative spondyloarthropathy?

A

Psoriatic arthritis
Ankylosing spondylitis
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)
Reactive arthritis (reiters syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A pt presents to PT w/ progressive shoulder pain and weakness of the shoulder abductors and ERs. The PT notices muscle atrophy superior and inferior to the scapular spine. Which of the following is MOST likely to be injured?

A

Suprascapular nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A patient who has suffered a CVA is having significant perceptual deficits. What cortex is most likely involved?

A

R parietal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A PT asks a patient to count from 1 to 21 in increments of 3 during a cognition assessment. Which of the following cognitive functions does the task MOST accurately assess?

A

Attention - serial testing (counting by a certain number) tests attention and concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A patient presents with atrophy of the thenar eminence and aching in the palmar surface of the hand. Which of the following represents the nerve involved and the MOST appropriate diagnostic test to assess the condition?

A

Median nerve, NCV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A patient with C5 tetraplegia suddenly develops symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia. What is the MOST appropriate assessment to validate the presence of autonomic dysreflexia for this patient?

A

Blood pressure - mostly likely have increase in BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

During an evaluation of a patient with MS, the PT evalutes the patient’s stereognosis, vibration, and two-point discrimination. What type of receptor is primarily responsible for this type of information?

A

Mechanoreceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

At the site of an accident, a patient exhibits no eye opening, no motor response, and no verbal response. What score should the patient receive on the GCS?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following presentations would indicate an impingement of the S1 nerve root in the lumbar spine?

A

⅗ ankle plantarflexion strength, 1+ achilles reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

During an examination of a patient with a TBI, a PT notes the right elbow is lacking 15º extension with a hard end feel. Which of the following pathologies is the most likely cause of this presentation?

A

Heterotopic ossification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A patient with a SCI scores 5/5 on a bilateral MMT of elbow flexors, and ⅗ of bilateral wrist extensors, with no muscle strength below these levels. What is the correct motor level for this patient?

A

C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A patient with a brain tumor presents with an inability to see anything in the left visual field. Which of the following locations is most likely to be the site of the lesion?

A

Left optic radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A PT is treating a patient following a right CVA. The patient demonstrates the following deficits, bumping into walls during wheelchair mobility, lack of LLE advancement, and no awareness of pain in the LLE. What phenomenon is this patient demonstrating?

A

Neglect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

During an examination, a patient shows delayed (~5 seconds) upbeating torsional nystagmus with Dix-Hallpike testing on the left. What is the most appropriate treatment for this presentation?

A

Epley maneuver beginning with the head towards the left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the cranial-most level of complete SCI that would allow for a patient to use tenodesis grasp?

A

C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which of the following interventions is the BEST example of functional training for a patient with neurological pathology?

A

Demonstration, instruction, and performance of bed mobility
The functional exercise….

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A PT prepares to perform volumetric measurements as a means to measure edema. Which of the following conditions is most appropriate for this type of object measure?

A

Colles’ fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A PT examines breath sounds of a patient diagnosed with pulmonary disease. The therapist identifies crackles during inspiration and expiration. This finding is MOST indicative of which of the following?

A

Impaired secretion clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A PT needs to instruct a patient rehabilitating from a thoracic surgery on how to produce an effective cough. Which of the following positions would be the MOST appropriate to initiate the treatment.

A

Sitting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A PT is treating a patient on the cardiovascular ICU and notices that the IV solution appears to be infusing the tissues surrounding the dorsum of the patient’s hand. Which of the following is the most appropriate action?

A

Contact nursing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A PT attempts to prevent alveolar collapse in a patient following thoracic surgery. Which breathing technique would be the most beneficial to achieve the established goal.

A

Incentive spirometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following is the primary side effect associated with heparin? (because we are ignoring that c and d are also major side effects of heparin but whatever) - I know… again “primary”… the others are secondary.. well it’s still a big side effect.

A

Excessive anticoagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A PT is performing postural drainage to the anterior basal segments of the lower lobes of the lungs. The patient starts to suddenly ℅ dizziness and mild dyspnea. What is the therapists’ most appropriate action

A

Elevate the pts head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

A PT is examining a patient that exhibits several signs and symptoms of anemia. Which question would be most useful to gather additional information related to anemia?

A

Do you have SOB at rest or with mild exertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which of the following is most appropriate hand placement to facilitate coughing in a patient with a mid-thoracic SCI?

A

Epigastric area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A physician orders a patient to have a lower extremity compression garment due to edema in his legs. How much pressure needs to be exerted by the garment to control the edema?

A

35 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which of the following ECG changes could be facilitated by beta-blockers?

A

Sinus bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A patient who is 2 days s/p posterolateral thoracotomy procedure is complaining of ipsilateral shoulder pain. Which of the following is most likely a cause of the shoulder pain?

A

Diaphragmatic irritation referred by phrenic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

A PT is treating a patient diagnosed with Cystic Fibrosis. The PT wants to improve ventilator volume during breathing. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate manual technique to encourage full expansion at the base of the lungs?

A

Applies pressure over the lateral borders of ribs/patient in supine position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

A PT elects to use the 6MWT as a means to quantify endurance for a patient in cardiac rehab. Which variable would be most appropriate to measure when determining the patient’s endurance level?

A

Distance walked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which of the following cardiac complications leads to death most often in patients with eating disorders?

A

Arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Normal pH of body fluids

A

7.4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What represents ventricular Repolarization

A

T wave = ventricular repolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Congestive HF abnormal lung sounds

A

Crackle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Cyanosis, peripheral edema, ascites, and fatigue is due to what?

A

CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Central cord cervical SCI will look like?

A

Weakness of UE>LE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What will cause central canal stenosis but NOT lateral

A

Ligamentum flavum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Closed pack position of the GHJ

A

Abduction and ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Arthrokinematics of humerus on glenoid fossa during ABD

A

Superior roll, inferior glide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Arthrokinematics of the femoral condyle on tibial plateau from standing to sitting

A

Roll posterior, slide anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Osteokinematics of seated knee ext

A

Distal on proximal, OKC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Position of the subtalar joint when femur adduction in closed chain

A

Pronation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is an example of a transverse plane stability exercise?

A

Unilateral rows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Result of demyelination of neurons due to MS

A

Decreases the speed of impulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Most beneficial initial exercises for CTS?

A

Tendon glides (unsure…)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Pt had a CVA 2 weeks ago and now has blurry vision, weakness, dizzy, nausea. What is most likely the cause?

A

Anemia (we think)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Hypercapnia

A

excessive CO2 in bloodstream caused by hypoventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

A pt has increased shld girdle, horizontal ribs, cylindrical chest, and a flat diaphragm. What condition does this person have?

A

COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the most common cardiac arrhythmia

A

PVC (we think); but I think could also very well be Afib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

A T1 SCI was have HTN, HA, and was diaphoretic. What is it likely that they are experiencing?

A

Autonomic Dysreflexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is a Modified Ashworth score of 3

A

Increase in spasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Pt with a C5 SCI what motion for highest level of function?

A

Elbow flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Pt presents with low level, constant dizziness with head movement and a (+) head thrust. What should be the treatment?

A

Habituation exercises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is homonymous hemianopsia

A

Loss of 1/2 of visual field (loose vision out of the R half of each eye for example)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What intervention focus for GHJ impingement?

A

Do RTC strengthening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

If they pt has scapular winging with shld elevation to 90 deg which exercise should be included?

A

Supine punches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What happens with B contraction of multifidi?

A

Trunk extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

You have been treating a patient with a 4cm stage 3 decubitus over the right heel. You note green/yellow, pungent exudate at the wound site and opt to use electrical stimulation. Your choice of electrode placement and polarity would be which of the following?

A

Negative electrode is placed in the wound

72
Q

You are treating a patient admitted to an ICU 48 hours ago with an acute deep partial-thickness burn covering 25% of the total body. As a PT, what should be your major concern?

A

Initiating ROM

73
Q

A 65 y/o patient has a wound on the medial malleolus of the left ankle. Upon inspection, you notice the ankle is swollen, red, and painful with moderate to high amounts of exudate. Which of the following would be the BEST for this wound?

A

Alginate

74
Q

You are instructed to provide electrical stimulation to a 65 y/o patient with a nonhealing stasis ulcer on the left lower extremity. Which of the following forms of electrical stimulation would be most suitable to promote wound healing?

A

Direct Current

75
Q

A patient is referred to your clinic with a burn to the right hand. Upon examination, you find the majority of the wound is anesthetic, but that there is significant eschar formation over the dorsum on the involved hand with moderate subcutaneous tissue damage. What is the most likely classification of this burn?

A

Full thickness

76
Q

A PT has been asked to estimate a percentage of burn on a patient that is 22 y/o, male, of normal size, and the burns are over the entire posterior surface of the head, the entire posterior surface of the LUE, and entire back. Which of the following would be accurate using the rule of nines to calculate the percentage burned?

A

27%

77
Q

A PT needs to wash their visibly soiled hands after treating a patient. Which of the following is the MOST accurate procedure for adequate hand washing?

A

Wet hands, apply soap, rub hands vigorously for 20 secs, rinse, dry

78
Q

A PT instructs a patient’s spouse to remove and reapply a wound bandage. Which of the following instructional methods would be most appropriate to ensure the dressing is being applied correctly?

A

Instruct the spouse to perform the dressing change and observe the performance.

79
Q

A LE amputation patient suffered cramping, burning in the limb, general fatigue, and pain prior to the surgery. Which of the following is the MOST probable cause of LE amputation based on these symptoms?

A

Peripheral Vascular Disease

80
Q

A PT inspects a wound that has large quantities of exudate which require frequent dressing changes. The PT applies a dressing that cannot handle the drainage of the fluid. Which of the following would be the most likely outcome?

A

Maceration

81
Q

A LE wound has a mixed wound bed containing slough, eschar, and granulation tissue present. Which of the following would be the most appropriate to perform?

A

Enzymatic debridement

82
Q

A patient suffering from an abdominal wound has clear exudate oozing from the site. Which of the following descriptors would be MOST accurate for the PT to use to describe the exudate?

A

Serous

83
Q

Which of the following would be the correct order for describing phases of wound healing?

A

Hemostasis, Inflammation, proliferation, repair

84
Q

A pressure ulcer is identified on the ischial tuberosity of a patient and the wound presents with partial thickness loss of the dermis. The wound bed is shallow with no slough present. What is the MOST accurate staging of this pressure ulcer?

A

Stage 2

85
Q

A PT would like to minimize the likelihood of a burn when using iontophoresis. Which action would be most consistent with the PT’s objective?

A

Increase the size of the cathode relative to the anode

86
Q

Which of the following medications would be the FIRST treatment of most inflammatory musculoskeletal conditions in patients with a healthy gastrointestinal system?

A

Naproxen

87
Q

Which of the following medications is contraindicated in a pregnant patient?

A

Coumadin

88
Q

You pt has a blood pH of 7.8 which is consistent with which of the following descriptions

A

Alkalosis

89
Q

A PT is seeing a patient in the hospital who underwent a THA 24 hours ago. At bedside the patient presents with sudden dyspnea, is diaphoretic, and tachycardiac. Which of the following conditions would be the most likely and must urgent concern?

A

Pulmonary emobli

90
Q

Which of the following physical findings in a type 1 diabetic patient would be consistent with diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

Kussmal breathing

91
Q

A hyper functioning tumor in which of the following locations would be the most likely to result in acromegaly?

A

Anterior lobe of the pituitary

92
Q

Which of the following portions of a standard EKG corresponds to ventricular repolarization?

A

T wave

93
Q

Which of the following events of the cardiac cycle causes the p-wave on the standard EKG?

A

Atrial depolarization

94
Q

Which of the following anatomic changes to the heart is the most likely to be seen in a patient with aortic stenosis?

A

Hypertrophy of the L ventricle

95
Q

Which of the following correctly describes diabetes insipidus?

A

May be caused by piuitary disease

96
Q

A patient recently diagnosed with a lower extremity DVT is being treated with heparin. Which of the following is a potential adverse effect associated with heparin use?

A

Thrombocytopenia (excessive anticoagulation is the answer to another question)

97
Q

A 63 y/o male patient presents with ℅ left calf pain with walking more than 50 feet. The pain is relieved with sitting or reclining but it takes about 10 minutes of rest from the activity for the pain to subside. Which of the following would be the most likely etiology of the patient’s pain?

A

L side foraminal stenosis at L1

98
Q

Which of the following would not be considered an invasive diagnostic imaging technique?

A

CT

99
Q

A 53 y/o female has recently developed a non-productive cough. Which of the recent medication additions could be responsible for the cough?

A

Enalapril

100
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding orthotic devices such as the TOT collar?

A

It should only be used when the child is awake and supervised

101
Q

Which of the following treatments are generally recommended for Congenital Muscular Torticollis during the first 12 months?

A

Active cervical ROM with subsequent strengthening; prolonged passive stretching of SCM through positioning; symmetrical developmental activities

102
Q

Which of the following is an example of the malformation disorder of morphogenesis?

A

Septal heart defect

103
Q

Which of the following measurements is used to determine rotational variation of the tibia and hindfoot?

A

Thigh foot angle (TFA)

104
Q

A 5 y/o child with a diagnosis of CP is extending his right arm and flexing his left arm when turning his head to the right side. What is this child demonstrating?

A

Obligatory ATNR (this is ATNR however it is persistent past what is considered normal)

105
Q

A PT has a referral to see a 3 month old baby with a diagnosis of osteogenesis imperfecta. What should be a paramount intervention in the treatment of this baby?

A

Caregiver instruction on proper handling and positioning to prevent fractures

106
Q

During an evaluation of a 5 y/o boy, a PT notes weakness of the shoulder and hip girdles and decreased ankle ROM. The child’s mother states that he has been getting progressively worse with time and now requires both hands to pull himself up using handrails when ascending stairs at their apartment complex. Mom also states that her son started walking much later than his older brother did. What pathology should be suspected?

A

Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

107
Q

What is the correct term describing the condition when a baby is born with a vertebral abnormality of the lumbar spine covered by a cyst which contains part of the baby’s spinal cord?

A

Myelomeninogocele

108
Q

A 13 y/o girl is referred to PT for evaluation and treatment of acute-onset knee pain. There is no history of injury and she has not participated in any physical activity for the past week per her doctor’s instructions to restrict physical activity following recent removal of her wisdom teeth. During the evaluation, the PT notes localized erythema, tenderness above the patella, and localized edema. The patient has also been running a low-grade fever. What primary pathology may be causing her knee pain?

A

Osteomyelitis

109
Q

What is the best way to elicit a Babinski sign in an infant?

A

Stroke the lateral part of the sole of the foot from the heel to the ball and then across the ball of the foot

110
Q

A newborn baby demonstrates physiological flexion. What is the next expected kinesiological movement that the baby should develop?

A

Antigravity extension

111
Q

During an evaluation of a 4 month old infant, a PT elicits the STNR. When the infant’s head is flexed, what should the PT expect to observe?

A

Flexion of the UE and extension of the LE

112
Q

In what direction does development tend to occur?

A

Cephalic control to caudal control, proximal to distal, and extensor antigravity control before flexor antigravity control

113
Q

A PT is observing a typically developing full-term infant ring sit independently unsupported, creep forward a distance of 5 feet, and pull to stand at a couch independently. Based on this information, what is the most likely age of this infant?

A

10 months

114
Q

Which of the following symptoms are associated with Chiari II malformation?

A

Apnea when crying, GI reflux, swallowing difficulty

115
Q

A 70 y/o patient who is 2 weeks s/p transtibial amputation of the LLE is instructed by his physician to remain at rest for 2 days after developing pneumonia. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate position for the patient in bed?

A

Supine with legs extended

116
Q

A 70 y/o male patient with muscle weakness and compromised balance uses a four-point gait pattern with 2 canes. The PT would like to instruct the patient to ascend/descend stairs according to the normal flow of traffic. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate method to instruct the patient in how to ascend the stairs?

A

Use the handrail in the R hand and place the 2 canes in the L hand

117
Q

A patient presents to the clinic with a prescription from the physician for an “ankle brace” for walking. The patient reports to you that he had a “mild” stroke 4 months ago and that his only remaining complaint is that he is stubbing his right toes when he walks. The patient expresses to you that he must be able to return to his job as a roofer in order to provide for his family. During dynamic gait assessment the patient demonstrates moderate foot drop and excessive pronation (flexible) on the RLE. Dorsiflexion for the RLE is 3+/5. The patient has no spasticity and no ROM deficits including no plantar flexion contracture. Proprioception is intact. Given the information provided, which of the following is the BEST AFO option for the patient?

A

Thermoplastic articulating AFO with DF assist

118
Q

An elderly patient is an acute rehab hospital confides to the PT that he no longer feels useful and has been thinking of committing suicide. What is the MOST appropriate action for the PT to take?

A

Discuss the situation with the pt case manager

119
Q

A PT observes that his 68 y/o patient slightly vaults during gait as he moves through midstance and demonstrates an early toe off. The patient has normal strength bilaterally and equal leg length. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this gait deviation?

A

Limited DF

120
Q

A 73 y/o male had a THA (posterior approach) on the LLE yesterday. He has had difficulty with alertness since coming to the room after surgery. The PT needs to transfer him from sitting at bedside to his wheelchair, but is concerned that the patient does not remember how to complete the maneuver while maintaining his hip precautions. What is the best way to ensure his understanding?

A

Ask him to repeat the steps back to you before you begin

121
Q

Which of the following groups would have the highest risk for developing osteoporosis?

A

Caucasian females over the age of 60

122
Q

A patient who is 100 years old refuses to participate in PT after being transported to the gym. The PT educates the patient about the importance of PT and the potential consequences of refusing treatment, however, the patient does not change her mind. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial PT action?

A

Document the incident in the medical record

123
Q

Which of the following situations best represents when a person will most likely use a “hip strategy” to maintain balance?

A

They are standing on a BOS that is narrower than the length of the feet.

124
Q

A PT examines a 70 y/o patient who fell and as a result fractured the right hip. The patient is 48 hours s/p ORIF of the right hip. The patient ℅ general malaise and reports a slightly elevated body temperature. Physical examination reveals an edematous right hip that is warm to the touch and a small amount of yellow fluid is observed seeping from the incision. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action for the PT?

A

Communicate the information to the referring physician

125
Q

A PT measures a 90 y/o patient for a straight cane prior to beginning ambulation activities. Which gross measurement method would provide the BEST estimate of cane length?

A

Measuring from the greater trochanter straight to the floor

126
Q

A 70 y/o patient who is 48 hours s/p left THA loses his balance and falls to the ground during a PT session. The patient is visibly shaken by the fall, but insists that he is uninjured. The PT examines the left hip and finds AROM elicits pain. All other findings are inconclusive. Which of the following is the PT’s BEST course of action?

A

Document incident and contact physician to examine patient prior to continuing POC

127
Q

A PT completes an examination on an 80 y/o patient with Parkinson’s disease. Results of the exam include ⅘ strength in LEs, 10º flexion contracture at the hips, and exaggerated forward standing posture. The patient has difficulty initiating movement and requires manual assistance for gait on level surfaces. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate priority activity to incorporate into an HEP?

A

Prone lying

128
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the cardiovascular consequences of bed rest?

A

Increased venous compliance – venous pooling – poor venous return – decreased CO.

129
Q

The PT has a physician’s order to evaluate and treat a patient who is receiving anticoagulant therapy due to chronic atrial fibrillation. The patient’s lab values state that his INR is 2.0. Which of the following is the most appropriate plan of action?

A

Perform evaluation and treatment of the patient as planned
(I think this was the right answer)

130
Q

A patient presents to outpatient PT 1 week after a TKA. The PT inspects the post-op incision and finds that the area is slightly swollen and red with a trace amount of serous fluid leaking from the lower portion of the incision underneath the staples. How should the PT proceed?

A

Normal signs of healing and proceed with exam

Other answer choices:
Call the physician immediately
Clean site with soap & water, apply bandage, avoid ROM exercises
Delay starting treatment and reassess in 2 days

131
Q

Which of the following should a PT perform if they are treating a patient who is on isolation precautions for chicken pox?

A

Rub the hands vigorously with an alcohol-based hand rub for 15 seconds followed by donning of N-95 respirator, gown, and gloves

132
Q

A PT working in a hospital evaluates a patient with newly diagnosed COPD. At rest on room air, the patient’s O2 sat is 92%. His HR is 82bpm. BP 140/70. The patient ambulates 300’ with SBA. After this bout of ambulation, his vital signs are: O2 sat 86%, HR 90bpm, BP 148/70. The patient ℅ SOB. What is the PT’s next course of action?

A

Call physician immediately for O2 recommendations

Other answer choices:
Allow pt to use walker for ambulation
Apply supplemental O2 at 2L/min and recheck O2 saturation
Ambulate the patient back to his room quickly

133
Q

What is the primary advantage of mid-wheel drive w/c over a rear-wheel drive w/c?

A

Small turning radius

Other choices:
Provides for pressure mapping
Better for navigating over obstacles
Cross brace is easily changed

134
Q

Which of the following wheelchairs would be most appropriate for a patient with THA who is under hip precautions, demonstrates OH, and is unable to sit erect for prolonged periods of time?

A

Reclining-back 2/c with swing away, elevating leg rests

135
Q

Your patient has had a THA. It is your responsibility to educate her regarding her total hip precautions. Which of the following contains the correct precautions for a patient with a THA?

A

No adduction past neutral, no IR past neutral, no hip flexion above 90 deg.

Other choices:
- No abduction past neutral, no IR past neutral, no hip flexion past 90º
- No abduction past neutral, no ER past neutral, no hip flexion above 90º
- No adduction past neutral, no ER past neutral, no hip flexion above 90º

136
Q

During normal walking speed, what percentage of the gait cycle is double limb stance?

A

20%

137
Q

During normal walking speed, what is the percentage of the gait cycle is psent in the stance phase?

A

60%

138
Q

What level of Nagi’s disablement model describes an individual who cannot perform a socially defined role or task.

A

Disability

Other choices:
Functional limitation
Impairment
Pathology

139
Q

A patient performs a sit<>stand transfer. The PT only holds onto the gait belt to provide safety during the transfer but does not provide physical assistance. Which of the following is the correct level of assistance needed by the patient?

A

CGA

140
Q

Which of the following can occur due to poor patient positioning?

A

Muscle contraction

Other choices:
Bone regeneration
Joint hypermobility
Orthostatic hypotension

141
Q

Which of the following methods places the least stress on the PT when ascending/descending curbs with a patient in a w/c?

A

Descending a curb backward and ascending a curb forwards

Other choices:
Descending a curb forward and ascending a curb backwards
Descending and ascending a curb forwards
Descending and ascending a curb backwards

142
Q

According to ADA, the ratio of slope to ramps in inches should be no greater than which of the following?

A

1:12 (one inch of rise:12 inches of run)

143
Q

Which of the following government agencies are primarily responsible for developing ADA rules and regulations and enforcing the law?

A

The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission and the Department of Justice

Other choices:
- The Administration Committee of the Federal Register and the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality
- The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality and National Institute of Health
- The Department of Justice and the Commission on Civil rights

144
Q

What level of assistance would be documented if a patient requires 50% assistance to transfer from the w/c to the exercise mat?

A

ModA

145
Q

Which of the following is the least appropriate use of peer-reviewed chart audit?

A

If the care will be reimbursed by a 3rd party payer

Other choices:
If the treatment was medically necessary
If the treatment was cost effective
Care was provided by appropriate personnel

146
Q

When performing a chart audit, the PT realizes that the date was documented inappropriately. Which of the following is the correct response?

A

Put a single line through the date, initial, and provide the correct date

147
Q

Which of the following provides the highest level of provider risk in reimbursement?

A

Capitated payment method

Other choices:
Fee for service plan
Fee schedule
Per diem payment method

148
Q

A center that specializes in work conditioning would be accredited by which of the following agencies?

A

Commission on Accreditation of Rehab Facilities (CARF)

Other choices:
- Joint Commission on Accreditation of Health Care Organization (JACHO)
- Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
- Department of Health and Human Services (DHS)

149
Q

A PT and PTA are conducting a cardiac rehab class for 20 patients, and the PT gets called out of the room. What is the MOST appropriate procedure in this situation?

A

Have the PTA supervise the class using the outlined protocol until the PT returns

Other choices:
-Terminate the session and have the patients monitor their pulse until the PT returns
-Have the patients perform a lower intensity exercise until the PT returns
- Have a PTA supervise the patients in a cool down activity

150
Q

Which of the following best defines homebound status for Medicare patients receiving Home Healthcare?

A

Leaving the home requires considerable and taxing effort

Other choices:
Dependency on others for all transportation needs
All medical care must be received at home
Patient uses an assistive device

151
Q

Which of the following topics should an interviewer refrain from asking about during an interview for a position at a hospital?

A

Age

Other choices:
Reason for leaving last job
Gaps in work history
Salary requirements

152
Q

Under HIPAA rules, which of the following entities would it be illegal to release a competent patient’s information to without written authorization?

A

The spouse

Other choices:
The insurance company paying for the services
Other healthcare workers involved in the case
Adult protective services (if abuse suspected)

153
Q

A physician orders PT for a 69 year old Medicare patient who is in an acute care facility following a TKA. Which of the following would be the appropriate frequency and duration?

A

Daily

Other choices:
3x/week
Every other day
2x/day for 4 days

154
Q

The daughter of an elderly patient asks the PT if she can come by and read his chart so she can help her father at home. Which of the following is the appropriate response?

A

Tell her she must have her father’s written permission

Other choices:
Let her read the file since she is family
Tell her she can’t see it because it is in medical terms
Tell her to ask the physician

155
Q

A 16 y/o patient with osteosarcoma presents to the clinic for crutch training. Her parents have decided not to tell her about her diagnosis, but she feels that something is wrong and asks the PT if she has cancer. Which of the following is the appropriate response?

A

Schedule a conference with the physician and parents about the question

Other choices:
Discuss her condition gently indicating her parent’s fears
Change the subject and talk about the day’s treatment
Tell the patient to ask her physician

156
Q

A sports PT is working with a local football team and after a violent tackle, a player is left unresponsive. Which of the following is the most appropriate to complete first?

A

Summon EMS

Other choices:
Log roll the patient onto their back while supporting the neck
Open the airway using the chin-lift method
Stabilize the head and flip back the facemask

157
Q

Which of the following typically funds long term care for institutionalized elderly who have exhausted their financial resources?

A

Medicaid

Other choices:
Medicare
HMO
Social Security

158
Q

Which of the following would NOT be included in the operating budget of a PT clinic for the upcoming fiscal year?

A

Treadmill purchase

Other options:
Therapy balls
Utility expenses
Lease of an offsite therapy pool

159
Q

Which of the following would be considered unethical for a PT who sells custom made orthotic shoe inserts to patients?

A

The need for the inserts is exaggerated

Other options:
The PT realizes all of the profits made for the sale
The patient’s ability to pay is in doubt
The services are provided as part of pro bono services

160
Q

If an investigator wants to establish the ability of a new piece of equipment to consistently produce the same result then which of the following types of reliability is the investigator seeking to establish?

A

Test-retest reliability

Other choices:
Internal consistency
Inter-rater reliability
Parallel forms reliability

161
Q

A researcher wants to investigate the effects of one therapeutic exercise and two different joint mobilizations on knee ROM. How many independent variables are employed in this study?

A

2

162
Q

A PT is assessing a patient using standard MMT with grades of poor, fair, average, good, and excellent. Which of the following measurement scales is the test using?

A

Ordinal

Other options:
Interval
Nominal
Ratio

163
Q

Which of the following is the correct term for the outcome of interest in a study?

A

Dependent variable

Other options:
Extraneous interval
Independent variable
Multifactorial variable

164
Q

Which of the following best describes the effect of a large sized randomized sample?

A

Increased power, decreased chance of type 2 error

Other options:
Decreased power, decreased chances of type 2 error
Decreased power, increased chance of type 2 error
Increased power, increased chance of type 2 error

165
Q

Which of the following is a probabilistic sampling method?

A

Cluster sampling

Other options:
Purposive assignment
Random assignment by individual
Convenience sampling

166
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of probabilistic sampling methods?

A

Reduces sampling error

Other options:
Ensure equal numbers and equal characteristics in each group
Less costly than non-probabilistic methods
More time efficient than non-probabilistic methods

167
Q

A researcher conducts a randomized control trial in which patients are treated in the clinic by PTs. What concept is this researcher investigating?

A

Effectiveness

Other options:
Efficacy
Reliability
Validity

168
Q

A researcher wants to know if a PT can consistently perform a clinical test several times and get the same result. What is the researcher investigating?

A

Measurement reliability

Other options:
Measurement plausibility
Measurement validity
Prospective validity

169
Q

Which of the following is a retrospective design?

A

Case control study

Other options:
Cohort design
Methodological design
Single system design

170
Q

Which type of hypothesis correctly describes the statement “subjects who perform sit-ups will increase abdominal strength more than subjects who perform push-ups”?

A

Directional alternative hypothesis

Other options:
Directional null hypothesis
Nondirectional alternative hypothesis
Nondirectional null hypothesis

171
Q

Which of the following are combinations of clinical findings that provide meaningful predictions about an outcome of interest?

A

Clinical prediction rules

Other options:
Diagnostic factors
Prognostic factors
Self-report outcome measures

172
Q

Which type of publication would be best suited to answer questions about the efficacy of a treatment?

A

Systematic review

Other options:
Cohort study
Expert editorial
Randomized clinical trial

173
Q

Which type of study design manipulates the experimental technique but only has one subject group?

A

Quasi-experimental

Other options:
Case control
Observational study
Single system design

174
Q

What is the process by which research is appraised by one or more content experts prior to publication?

A

Peer Review

Other options:
Bias control
Critical appraisal
Literature review

175
Q

DONT HAVE THE SECOND TEST IN HERE YET

A

pt Study (49 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions