past exams

Question 1

A Labrador is an example of a (dolichocephalic/ mesocephalic/ brachycephalic) breed.

Answer 1

mesocephalic

Question 2

Release of hydrochloric acid by parietal cells in the stomach contributes to the (enzymatic chemical /mechanical /microbiological / non-enzymatic chemical) digestion of food.

Answer 2

non-enzymatic chemical

Question 3

given a picture of duodenum epithelium

what are 4 layers from outer to inner

Options are Tunica adventitia, Tunica mucosa, Tunica submucosa, Tunica serosa, Tunica muscularis

Answer 3

A: tunica mucosa
B: tunica submucosa
C: tunica muscularis
D: tunica serosa

Question 4

longer papilla on lateral aspect of tongue are

Answer 4

Conical

Question 5

conical papilla function

Answer 5

direct food into the pharynx during swallowing

Question 6

Saliva is a complex secretion resulting from the activities of several glands. Identify the four (4) major salivary glands of common domestic species and indicate which one (1) of them is only present in carnivores.

Answer 6

parotid, mandibular, sublingual and zygomatic (only in carnivores)

Question 7

(there is a pic here to go with it that shows mixed gland) The mandibular salivary gland in a dog is a:

Serous-secreting gland, which produces a watery secretion that may contain enzymes

Mixed gland with both mucous and serous elements

Mucous-secreting gland, which produces a lubricating secretion called mucin

Answer 7

Mixed gland with both mucous and serous elements

Question 8

Describe the dental formula of an adult cat

Answer 8

2(I3/I3, C1/C1, P3/P2, M1/M1) = 30

Question 9

Contraction of the (lateral pterygoid/ digastric/ masseter/ temporalis) muscle opens the jaw.

Answer 9

digastric

Question 10

Swallowing is a complex event. During swallowing, the (temporalis /masseter /basihyoid/ geniohyoid) muscle contracts, which moves the hyoid and the base of the tongue rostrally and dorsally.

Answer 10

geniohyoid

Question 11

At the upper oesophageal sphincter, the oesophagus sits (dorsal to/ventral to/to the left of/to the right of) the trachea. As the oesophagus passes down the neck, it travels to the (left/right) -hand side, where it can be observed when a nasogastric tube is passed.

Answer 11

dorsal to
left

Question 12

Parietal cells, what secretion

Answer 12

Hydrochloric acid

Question 13

chief cells what secretion

Answer 13

Pepsinogen and prorenin

Question 14

mucous neck cells what secretion

Answer 14

Alkaline mucus that protects epithelium

Question 15

The lesser omentum is made up of two ligaments: the ______ ligament, which connects the liver to the stomach, and the _____ ligament, which connects the liver to the duodenum.

Answer 15

hepatogastric

hepatoduodenal

Question 16

The small intestine has a large surface area, which facilitates absorption. One anatomical feature which contributes to this are projections of lamina propria and epithelium known as (villi/plicae circularis/microvilli), which are covered with absorptive cells called (enterocytes/enteroendocrine cells/parietal cells/goblet cells/paneth cells)

Answer 16

villi
enterocytes

Question 17

Which of the following arteries supplies blood to the jejunum?
- Coeliac artery
- Internal iliac artery
- Caudal mesenteric artery
- Cranial mesenteric artery

Answer 17

• Cranial mesenteric artery

Question 18

The function of the gall bladder is to (store and concentrate bile/produce bile/detoxify blood/synthesise protein). However, the (horse/cat/cow/dog) does not have a gall bladder, and its sphincter of Oddi is non-functional. In species that have a gall bladder, the presence of food containing fat in the duodenum stimulates the endocrine cells of the GI tract to release (secretin/CCK/gastrin/GIP), which relaxes the sphincter of Oddi and contracts the gall bladder.

Answer 18

store and concentrate bile

horse

CCK

Question 19

The right lobe of the pancreas is closely associated with the (liver/stomach/spleen/duodenum).

Answer 19

duodenum

Question 20

The islets of Langerhans are small masses of endocrine cells scattered throughout the exocrine pancreas; 70–80% of cells in the islets are (alpha cells/ non-granular C cells/ beta cells/ delta cells), which produce (insulin/CKK/glucagon/somatostatin).

Answer 20

beta cells

insulin

Question 21

The (reticulum/rumen/omasum/abomasum) does NOT have a muscularis mucosa present.

Answer 21

rumen

Question 22

The horse is an obligate nasal breather. The soft palate extends caudally from the hard palate to the level of the (guttural pouch/oesophagus/trachea/epiglottis), completely separating the oropharynx from the nasopharynx, except during deglutition

Answer 22

epiglottis

Question 23

Which of the following hormones is involved in the extrinsic endocrine control of the GI tract?
- Gastrin
- Aldosterone
- Secretin
- Motilin

Answer 23

Aldosterone

Question 24

Slow waves are a unique feature of GIT smooth muscle. Slow waves are initiated and controlled by specialised cells within the GIT called interstitial cells of Cajal.

(a) What are slow waves?

(b) Do slow waves directly cause muscle contraction?

(c) When will a muscle contraction occur in relation to a slow wave?

(d) How can the resting membrane potential be “primed” to generate an action potential leading to muscle contraction?

Answer 24

(a) rhythmic fluctuations in resting membrane potential due to changes in intracellular calcium levels

(b) no

(c) the potential of the slow waves builds until it overcomes a threshold which in turn causes muscle contraction

(d) through parasympathetic input, the cell membrane is depolarised making the action potential more likely to overcome the threshold for muscle contraction

Question 25

Which of the following is characteristic of the digestive phase of small intestinal motility?

• Complete relaxation of small intestinal smooth muscle
• Adaptive relaxation
• Short waves of peristalsis that die out after a few centimetres, and non-propulsive contractions of 3–4 cm segments of inner circular muscle

-Migrating motility complexes consisting of waves of peristaltic contractions that pass over the entire length of the small intestine

Answer 25

Short waves of peristalsis that die out after a few centimetres, and non-propulsive contractions of 3–4 cm segments of inner circular muscle

Question 26

Water (H2O) and carbon dioxide (CO2) combine within the cytoplasm of parietal cells and centroacinar cells to produce carbonic acid (H2CO3). The carbonic acid then spontaneously dissociates into a hydrogen ion (H+) and a bicarbonate ion (HCO3–).

(a) What is this reaction catalysed by?

(b) What is the main hormonal stimulus for centroacinar and duct cells?

(c) What stimulates the release of this hormone?

Answer 26

(a) carbonic anhydrase

(b) secretin

(c) low pH chyme in proximal duodenum

Question 27

During the process of hydrolytic digestion, molecules of (water/fatty acid/glucose/guanine) are consumed.

Answer 27

water

Question 28

Considering the functional differences between foregut and hindgut fermenters, indicate whether each activity or condition (row) is more likely to be associated with foregut or hindgut fermentation

a) Detoxification of ingested toxic compounds is more likely

b) Proteins (amino acids) from bacterial death are available for absorption by the animal

c) Sizes of particles can be reduced through rumination

d) Dietary glucose is highly available for absorption by the animal

Answer 28

a) foregut
b) foregut
c) foregut
d) hindgut

Question 29

Which of the following statements about absorption of volatile fatty acids by ruminants are CORRECT? Select all that apply.

a) Absorptive cells lining the gastrointestinal tract change the microenvironment at their surface to facilitate absorption of the volatile fatty acids.

b) The proportion of volatile fatty acids available for absorption can change with the dietary source of the animal.

c) Volatile fatty acids in the disassociated state are more likely to be absorbed.

d) Volatile fatty acids are primary absorbed by the small intestine.

Answer 29

a)
b)
c)

Question 30

true or false

In ruminants, nitrogen for protein synthesis in the microbiome of the rumen is only available with food or food supplements the animal eats.

Answer 30

false

Question 31

true or false

In horses, urea recycled by the animals across the walls of the caecum and colon can be used as a source of nitrogen for protein synthesis by the microbiome.

Answer 31

true

Question 32

The microbiome of the rumeno-reticular system of cattle can be best described as:

a) A highly diverse assemblage consisting of true bacteria only, which constitutes a symbiotic community that benefits the cattle host by providing nutrients through digestion of indigestible plant material

b) A highly diverse assemblage of bacteria, archaeans, ciliates, fungi, and phages (viruses that attack microbes), which constitutes a community that takes advantage of the bovine host’s ability to digest cellulase through enzymes produced by that bovine host

c) A highly diverse assemblage of bacteria, archaeans, ciliates, fungi, and phages (viruses that attack microbes), which constitutes a symbiotic community that benefits the cattle host by providing nutrients through digestion of indigestible plant material

d) A highly pathogenic community of bacteria, archaeans, ciliates, fungi, and phages (viruses that attack microbes) that must be kept from invading the stomach by a keratinised lining

Answer 32

c) A highly diverse assemblage of bacteria, archaeans, ciliates, fungi, and phages (viruses that attack microbes), which constitutes a symbiotic community that benefits the cattle host by providing nutrients through digestion of indigestible plant material

Question 33

true or false

In the ruminant gastrointestinal tract, the greatest numerical density of microbial organisms is found in the small intestine.

Answer 33

false

Question 34

Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using glycogen to store energy

Answer 34

glycogen
Advantages:

Rapid Mobilization: Glycogen can be quickly broken down into glucose for immediate energy, making it ideal for short-term energy needs, especially during high-intensity activities.

Water Solubility: Glycogen is stored in a form that is readily accessible in the bloodstream, facilitating quick energy release.

Short-Term Energy Supply: Glycogen is particularly useful for activities that require quick bursts of energy, such as sprinting or weightlifting.

Disadvantages:
Limited Storage Capacity: The storage capacity of glycogen is relatively small which may not be sufficient for prolonged activities.

Water Weight: Glycogen storage requires water (approximately 3-4 grams of water per gram of glycogen), which can add to body weight and may be less efficient for endurance events.

Easily Depleted: Glycogen stores can be quickly exhausted during prolonged exercise or fasting.

Question 35

Which word is best defined by the following: “An edible material that provides nutrients”?

Ration
Nutrients
Carnivore
Food

Answer 35

food

Question 36

Which of the following feeding behaviours typically results in an animal with a combination of sharp teeth (for shearing through meat) and flat molars (for grinding plant matter)?

Concentrate selectors
Grazers
Obligate carnivores
Omnivores

Answer 36

Omnivores

Question 37

Grazing animals preferentially select feeds that maximise the availability of energy and provide them with positive experiences. This can be referred to as:

Nutritional wisdom
Meal choice
Avoidant eating
Herd health

Answer 37

Nutritional wisdom

Question 38

Which of the following is the chemical formula of a triose monosaccharide?
- C3H6O3
- C5H10O5
- C6H12O6
- C4H8O4

Answer 38

C3H6O3

(3 carbons)

Question 39

What is the main form of energy storage in domestic animal species?

Fat
Muscle
Carbohydrates
Calcium

Answer 39

Fat

Question 40

Which domestic species is MOST likely to suffer from vitamin C (ascorbic acid) deficiency?
- Guinea pigs
- Horses
- Cats
- Cattle

Answer 40

Guinea pigs

Question 41

Are pasture animals in Queensland more likely to experience calcium or phosphorus deficiency?

Answer 41

Phosphorus deficiency

Question 42

Which of the following statements is NOT true of legumes?

Legumes belong to the family Leguminosae.

Legumes generally have a lower protein content than grasses.

Legumes grow in a symbiotic relationship with nitrogen-fixing bacteria.

Legumes are generally more drought hardy than grasses.

Answer 42

Legumes generally have a lower protein content than grasses.

Question 43

Casein is an example of a:

Processed animal protein

Cereal grain

Plant protein meal

Forage food

Answer 43

Processed animal protein

Question 44

Indicate which of the recognised grazing behaviours are connected to each species

Options are sheep or cattle

a) Better suited to pastures with less overall roughage but high variance of feed available

b) Prefer to consume large amounts of high-fibre feed

c) Prefer leaf material (over stems) and green material (over browned material)

d) Poorly selective intake

e) Avoid material with physical irritants (e.g., prickles)

f) Better suited to mature pastures with little variance

Answer 44

a) sheep
b) cow
c) sheep
d) cattle
e) sheep
f) cattle

Question 45

Which of the following statements is TRUE in relation to nutrition recommendations for pregnant canines?

Pregnant bitches should never be fed a commercially available puppy diet.

Feeding a diet rich in organ meats is desirable during pregnancy.

Calcium supplementation is desirable during pregnancy.

Pregnant bitches have a higher metabolic demand for nutritional energy sources after week 4–5 of gestation.

Answer 45

Pregnant bitches have a higher metabolic demand for nutritional energy sources after week 4–5 of gestation.

Question 46

Which of the following would be appropriate to recommend to a client with an obese companion animal?

Transition diet to Hills Metabolic food

Reduce daily food intake by 50%

Aim for rapid weight loss: at least 5% of body weight per week

Reduce current exercise levels

Answer 46

Transition diet to Hills Metabolic food

Question 47

Why is nutrition important in the general health care of companion animals?

Answer 47

Optimal nutrition supports healthy growth and development so they are physically and mentally at their best for quality of life

Optimal nutrition (a diet with a balance of essential vitamins and minerals) helps maintain a strong immune system and thus prevent diseases and conditions such as obesity, heart failure, arthritis

Question 48

Name two (2) essential fatty acids in the mammalian diet.

Answer 48

Linoleic acid
Alpha-linolenic acid

Question 49

Over a 24-hour period, a cow consumed 10 kg of hay, which had a dry matter content of 8.5 kg. She excreted 3 kg of dry matter in her faeces.

(a) What is the formula used to calculate dry matter digestibility? (1 mark)

(b) Calculate the digestibility of the hay consumed by this cow.

Answer 49

a) (Weight of feed consumed - weight of feed excreted) / weight of feed consumed )

b) 8.5 - 3 / 8.5 → 5.5 / 8.5 = 0.647 = approximately a digestibility of 65%

Question 50

Describe the advantages and disadvantages of using triglycerides to store energy.

Answer 50

Advantages:

High Energy Density: Triglycerides provide a much higher energy yield (about 9 kcal/g) compared to glycogen (about 4 kcal/g), making them efficient for long-term energy storage.

Large Storage Capacity: The body can store large amounts of triglycerides in adipose tissue, allowing for significant energy reserves for extended periods without food.

Sustained Energy Release: Triglycerides are ideal for low-intensity, prolonged activities, providing a steady source of energy.

Disadvantages:

Slower Mobilization: The process of breaking down triglycerides into fatty acids for energy is slower compared to glycogen, making them less suitable for immediate energy needs.

Not Water-Soluble: Triglycerides are stored as fats, which are not readily accessible in the bloodstream like glucose from glycogen, leading to longer mobilization times.

Requires Oxygen for Metabolism: The oxidation of fatty acids requires more oxygen than glucose metabolism, making it less efficient during high-intensity activities where oxygen is limited

Question 51

Compare and contrast how phosphorylation and gene expression regulate metabolic pathways.

Answer 51

Phosphorylation regulates metabolic pathways by quickly activating or inhibiting enzymes through the addition of phosphate groups, providing short-term control.

In contrast, gene expression regulates by changing the amount of enzyme produced, leading to long-term changes in metabolism.

Phosphorylation acts fast and is reversible, while gene expression is slower but more sustained.

Question 52

Describe how lack of leptin leads to obesity in ob/ob mice.

Answer 52

In ob/ob mice, the lack of leptin leads to constant hunger and increased food intake because the brain doesn’t receive signals to stop eating. It also causes reduced energy expenditure, resulting in severe obesity due to excessive fat accumulation.

Question 53

Which one of the following statements BEST describes the dolichocephalic classification of head shape?
Select one alternative:
A rounded cranium with a short nose.
A normal, average shape of a skull.
A long, narrow head and nose.
It is the correct classification for a Beagle

Answer 53

A long, narrow head and nose.

Question 54

Which one of the following papillae is involved in the transduction of taste (i.e., contains taste buds)?

Filiform papillae -
Lenticular papillae -
Vallate papillae -
Conical papillae -

Answer 54

Vallate papillae

Question 55

The ‘anatomic’ crown of a tooth contains the tissue termed (pulp, dentine, cementum, enamel).

Answer 55

enamel

Question 56

There are four (4) large, ‘proper’ salivary glands, which are generally a combination of tubular and alveolar patterns and have a complex system of ducts. Which of the following is one of the four (4) large, major salivary glands?

Palatine gland
Lingual gland
Sublingual gland
Labial gland

Answer 56

Sublingual gland

Question 57

Tonsils are classified according to their position in the pharynx. In the carnivore, there are large, non-follicular tonsils that lie in the tonsillar fossa just caudal to the palatoglossal arches. These are called the

Select alternative (pharyngeal tonsils, tubal tonsils, palatine tonsils, lingual tonsils).

Answer 57

palatine tonsils

Question 58

During deglutition (swallowing), the glottis (opening of the airways) is covered to prevent the bolus of food/liquid from entering the trachea. Which one of the following structures covers the glottis during this process?

Epiglottis
Styloglossus
Soft palate
Hyoglossus

Answer 58

Epiglottis

Question 59

Fundic glands contain four (4) types of secretory cells: mucous neck cells, chief cells, parietal cells, and enteroendocrine cells. Pepsinogen and prorenin are zymogens, which are converted to the active enzymes pepsin and renin in the gastric lumen, where they help to break down protein. Pepsinogen and prorenin are secreted by which of one the following types of cells?

Select one alternative:
Enteroendocrine cells
Parietal cells
Chief cells
Mucous neck cells

Answer 59

Chief cells

Question 60

The terminal region of the small intestine is termed the (duodenum, descending colon, ileum, jejunum).

Answer 60

ileum

Question 61

The large surface area of the small intestine facilitates absorption. Which one of the following structures does NOT contribute to this large surface area?

Villi
Microvilli
Glycocalyx
Plicae circularis

Answer 61

Glycocalyx

Question 62

The stomach and the small intestine play different roles in the digestive process. This is reflected by a change in the wall of the digestive tract, mainly in the tunica mucosa. As you move aborally (away from the mouth) through the duodenum, which one of the following structures disappears?

Villi
Brunner’s glands
Crypts of Lieberkuhn
Pyloric glands

Answer 62

Pyloric glands

Question 63

The stomach rotates during development. At the level of the stomach, the ventral primitive mesentery will become the (mesenteries, visceral peritoneum, lesser omentum, greater omentum).

Answer 63

lesser omentum

Question 64

he root of the mesenteries is the site of origin for the (cranial mesenteric, external iliac, caudal mesenteric, coeliac) artery.

Answer 64

cranial mesenteric

Question 65

Which one of the following organs lies in the retroperitoneal space?

Spleen
Stomach
Liver
Kidneys

Answer 65

Kidneys

Question 66

During development there is a temporary, but normal, herniation of the intestine through the umbilicus into the umbilical cord. An omphalocoele is an abdominal wall defect through which various abdominal organs can protrude. This congenital defect can be mild or severe. The omphalocoele occurs as a result of a failure of which stage(s) in the development of the intestines?

Re-entry and placement
Completion
Growth and rotation
Herniation and coilin

Answer 66

Re-entry and placement

Question 67

When does full secretory activity of the stomach occur?

After birth
Just prior to birth
Halfway through gestation
Three quarters of the way through gestation

Answer 67

After birth

Question 68

in the diagram of the liver lobules upclose

green triangle is

grey hexagon is

the diamond/ oval shape is

Answer 68

portal lobule

hepatic lobule

hepatic acinus

Question 69

The species of domestic animal that has a right medial AND a right lateral lobe of the liver is the
(horse, cow, sheep, pig)

Answer 69

pig

Question 70

When an animal with a gall bladder ingests food that contains some fat, the gallbladder is
signalled to contract. The presence of fat in the proximal (duodenum,
jejunum, ileum, pylorus) stimulates (absorptive cells, enteroendocrine
cells, enterocytes, goblet cells) in the mucosa to produce (motilin, secretin,
gastrin, cholecystokinin), which signals the gall bladder to contract.

Answer 70

duodenum
enteroendocrine cells
cholecystokinin

Question 71

The islets of Langerhans are small masses of endocrine cells scattered throughout the exocrine pancreas. Identify the substances that the different types of cells in the pancreatic islets produce. (options are somatostatin, insulin, glucagon, pepsin)

alpha
beta
delta

Answer 71

Alpha - glucagon
Beta - insulin
Delta - somatostatin

Question 72

The longitudinal muscle layer in the intestines in some species are thickened, forming distinct longitudinal bands that are called taenia along the intestines. Which one of the following species does NOT have taenia?

Horse
Pig
Sheep
Cat

Answer 72

Cat

Question 73

In pigs and ruminants there is a fatty protrusion in the lesser curvature of the pylorus, which serves to narrow the pyloric opening. This fatty protrusion is known as the (pyloric sphincter, saccus caecus, diverticulum ventriculi, torus pyloricus)

Answer 73

torus pyloricus

Question 74

The ascending colon in pigs and ruminants forms a spiral loop. Which one of the following correctly describes the structure of the spiral colon in ruminants?

a) The spiral loop is flat, disc-shaped, and has several centripetal loops terminating in a central flexure. It then turns and heads back into parallel centrifugal loops.

b) The spiral colon is composed of 3 ½ centrifugal turns (towards outer), enclosing tightly coiled returning centripetal turns (towards centre), which lead out of the base of the cone into the transverse colon.

c) The spiral loop is flat, disc-shaped, and has several centrifugal loops terminating in a central flexure. It then turns and heads back into parallel centripetal loops.

d) The spiral colon has 3 ½ centripetal turns, enclosing tightly coiled returning centrifugal turns, which lead out of the base of the cone into the transverse colon

Answer 74

d) The spiral colon has 3 ½ centripetal turns, enclosing tightly coiled returning centrifugal turns, which lead out of the base of the cone into the transverse colon

Question 75

honeycomb; Which compartment of the ruminant stomach has folded epithelium that forms hexagonal “cells”

Answer 75

Reticulum

Question 76

The histological section shown above is of a region of the complex stomach. This section shows three (3) layers of smooth muscle in the laminae. In which compartment is this feature
observed?

Answer 76

Omasum

Question 77

There are five (5) major gastrointestinal hormones that are part of the intrinsic endocrine system.
Which one of the following hormones is produced in the distal stomach and stimulates parietal cells to secrete hydrochloric acid?

Answer 77

Gastrin

Question 78

In the horse, there is a raised border between the glandular and non-glandular regions of the stomach. What is this ridge called?

Margo plicatus
Guttural pouch
Diverticulum ventriculi
Saccus caecus

Answer 78

Margo plicatus

Question 79

Briefly, using short notes or dot points, identify the four (4) functions of movement in the digestive tract.

Answer 79

Propel ingesta from one location to the next.

Retain ingesta for digestion, absorption, and storage.

Physically break up food and mix it with secretions.

Circulate ingesta so it can be absorbed at the luminal surface.

Question 80

Describe the dental formula of a dog in the following format:
X(I X/X, C X/X, P X/X, M X/X) = XX

Answer 80

2(I3/3 C1/1 P4/4 M2/3) = 42

Question 81

Fundic glands have three (3) main types of secretory cells, one of which is the parietal cell.
Parietal cells secrete hydrochloric acid (HCl), which can be upregulated in response to certain stimuli.

a) Water (H O) and carbon dioxide (CO ) combine within the cytoplasm of the parietal cell to produce carbonic acid (H CO ). What is this reaction catalysed by?

b) The carbonic acid then spontaneously dissociates into a hydrogen ion (H ) and a bicarbonate ion (HCO ). What is the name of the proton pump that transports hydrogen ions into the lumen of the canaliculi?

c) At rest, the number of proton pumps in the parietal cell membrane is minimal, with more proton pumps being sequestered within “tubulovesicles” – canicular precursors. However, the parietal cell membrane is dynamic, with the number of canaliculi rising and falling according to secretory need. Tubulovesicles fuse with the membrane to increase surface area, increasing the number of proton pumps in the membrane, which increases acid production. Identify the three (3) ways in which the production of gastric acid is increased.

Answer 81

a) carbonic anhydrase

b) Hydrogen/Potassium ATPase Ion Pump

c)
1) Histamine: Stimulation of H2 Histamine receptors, leading to increased fusing of tubulovesicles to the membrane and an increase in surface area.

2) Acetylcholine: Stimulation of G-cells via acetylcholine to produce gastrin, which stimulate parietal cells to produce more HCl. Food entering the stomach stimulates this process via distension of stretch receptors, causing afferent stimulation of the enteric nervous system.

3) Gastrin: Peptides from protein digestion activate G-cells, which secrete gastrin. Gastrin directly stimulates parietal cells to secrete HCl.

Question 82

The greater omentum has two (2) layers, a superficial layer and a deep layer. In the ruminant:

(a) What groove of the rumen does the superficial layer of the greater omentum arise from?

(b) What groove of the rumen does the deep layer of the greater omentum arise from? (1 mark)

(c) What do both the superficial and deep layers of the greater omentum attach to, to form the supraomental recess? (1 mark)

Answer 82

a) Left Longitudinal groove

b) Right longitudinal groove

c) Ventral descending duodenum + greater curvature of abomasum

Question 83

Which of these ruminant stomach compartments are involved in fermentation?

Answer 83

rumen

Question 84

Which of these ruminant stomach compartments is the true “glandular” stomach?

Answer 84

abomasum

Question 85

The microbiome of the rumen of a day-old calf born by vaginal delivery will contain microbial populations most similar to that of the (reproductive tract of the dam, skin of the dam, semen of the bull, soil of pastures).

Answer 85

reproductive tract of the dam

Question 86

Briefly outline one (1) way by which the microbiome of the gastrointestinal tract can protect the host from pathogenic organisms.

Answer 86

producing immunoglobulins

Question 87

The ciliates are abundant components of the luminal microbiome. Briefly outline one (1) way in which the ciliates interact with other members of the microbiome community, and the consequence of the interactions.

Answer 87

Remove protozoa from rumen which reduces methane production and increases amino acid supply or
Ciliates produce Hydrogen which some prokaryotes use to produce metabolic byproducts

Question 88

Which one of the following statements is a reason why ruminants require a community of microbes in their rumen?

Answer 88

Ruminants, as with other mammals, do not produce cellulases needed to break down the major components of plant cell walls.

Question 89

Rumination is an important component of the digestive process in ruminants. What is rumination? In your answer, list one (1) advantage to the digestive process brought about by rumination.

Answer 89

Rumination is a complex digestive process in ruminant animals, such as cows, where food is initially swallowed, then regurgitated from the rumen back to the mouth for further chewing and mixing with saliva, before being re-swallowed for fermentation and digestion in the stomach chambers

advantage; increasing SA for fermentation

Question 90

Voluntary feed intake is affected by:

Environmental factors only

Nutritional status of the animal only

Internal body, digestive tract, psychological, and environmental factors

Protein amount in the diet

Answer 90

Internal body, digestive tract, psychological, and environmental factors

Question 91

hirst is important for maintaining (bone structure, adequate weight, hormonal balance, body fluid homeostasis) and may arise from deficits in either intracellular or extracellular fluid volume.

Answer 91

body fluid homeostasis

Question 92

The MOST important reason to maintain a healthy ecology of microbes in the rumen of sheep and cattle is to optimise the supply of (glucose, VFA, amino acids of microbial origin,
VFA and amino acids of microbial origin) to the small intestine.

Answer 92

VFA and amino acids of microbial origin

Question 93

Compared to dogs and cats, the availability of protein to metabolism in ruminants is MOST dependant on:

The correct balance and amount of vitamins in the diet

Optimisation of the microbial ecology in the rumen

The balance and amount of essential amino acids produced in the hind gut

The balance of essential amino acids in the diet

Answer 93

Optimisation of the microbial ecology in the rumen

Question 94

Which one of the following statements about silage is MOST CORRECT?

Silage is an excellent method of preserving high moisture forages at optimal nutritional composition (CP, ME, vitamins).

Even if correct ensiling conditions are maintained, silage will degrade rapidly.

Silage is a poor low-cost drought feed.

Silage is easily affected by fire and vermin.

Answer 94

Silage is an excellent method of preserving high moisture forages at optimal nutritional composition (CP, ME, vitamins)

Question 95

Chronic deficiency of vitamins:

Depends on the daily water intake of an animal

Cannot happen because vitamins can be synthesised in ample amounts in the body

Is unlikely to cause any physical signs

Is likely to cause physical signs

Answer 95

Is likely to cause physical signs

Question 96

Which one of the following minerals is MOST likely to cause a toxicity if accidentally added to a formulated pelleted diet in excessive amounts?

Phosphorus
Iron
Selenium
Calcium

Answer 96

Selenium

Question 97

Processing sorghum grain by grinding it into a powder and correctly heat-treating it by steam flaking or extruding it would MOST likely achieve which of the following?

Increase feed intake but reduce feed conversion ratio

Increase feed intake and feed conversion ratio

Destroy important minerals

All of the above

Answer 97

Increase feed intake and feed conversion ratio

Question 98

The term “roughage” when applied to stockfeed USUALLY includes:

Pastures and their conserved products

Plant proteins such as soybean meal and canola meal

Grains such as wheat and barley

All of the above

Answer 98

Pastures and their conserved products

Question 99

The nutritive value of a hay or pasture for grazing animals is defined by:

Available nutrient content and the balance thereof relative to animal requirements

Potential level of intake

Palatability

All of the above

Answer 99

All of the above

Question 100

In ruminants, fresh green pasture, compared to grains such as wheat and barley, is a richer source of (digestible energy, fat-soluble vitamins, starch, metabolisable energy).

Answer 100

fat-soluble vitamins

Question 101

Which one of the following vitamins or vitamin mixes are MOST likely to directly enable blood clotting and bone health?

The water-soluble vitamins
Vitamin B complex
Vitamin K
Vitamin D

Answer 101

Vitamin K

Question 102

Biochemical factors in feeds MOST often considered to be anti-nutritional include:

Nitrates, tannins, mycotoxins

Crude protein and NDF

Copper and selenium

All of the above

Answer 102

Nitrates, tannins, mycotoxins

Question 103

Glucose is the primary fuel of the central nervous system. Compare and contrast the processes by which glucose is obtained from feed in cattle and dogs.

Answer 103

Similarities:
- Both require glucose for maintenance of cells.
- Both are capable of creating glucose via gluconeogenesis in the liver.

Contrast
- Cattle rely on gluconeogenesis to produce glucose much more than dogs.
- Cattle have a diet of cellulose, vs a dog’s high-variety diet of proteins, fats, carbohydrates.
- Cattle obtain glucose from the diet via the fatty acids produced by the rumen microbes via fermentation of cellulose. Fatty acids are absorbed via the intestinal lumen, travel to the liver, and undergo gluconeogenesis to produce glucose.
- Dogs can obtain glucose directly via breakdown of carbohydrates, breakdown of muscle and liver glycogen, and also gluconeogenesis.

Question 104

Metabolic pathways can be regulated at many different time scales, from sub-second to months.
Describe and contrast two (2) different mechanisms of metabolic pathway regulation.

Answer 104

Change in amount of protein ligands like hormone directly enters membrane to nucleus and binding to transcription factor, thus altering transcription of specific genes and causing a change in gene expression and protein profile.
→ slow change (days-week) but huge effect

Activation of preformed precursor protein by covalent modification
Hydrolyse or phosphorylase
E.g. pro-insulin to insulin
protein kinase A adding Phosphate group into glycogen phosphorylase
→ medium

Non-covalent binding: Allosteric activation or inhibitor alter activity of existing enzymes
→ fast sub second

Question 105

The hormone glucagon acts to increase blood glucose concentrations. Describe the consequences of glucagon action that mediate this effect.

Answer 105

Glucagon slows down glycolysis of liver by inhibiting enzymes involved in irreversible reactions [phosphorylation of these enzymes]

Glucagon promotes gluconeogenesis in the liver

glucacgon stimulates liver: glycogen is depolymerized back into glucose, which is excreted from liver cells into blood

stimulates adipose tissue: release of fatty acids and glycerol from fat –> back into blood: doesn’t effect glucose concentration directly but then other things such as muscle can use these fats instead of using glucose (alternative energy source)

Question 106

Which of the following statements is correct? Auerbach’s plexus in the GIT:

A. Is part of the parasympathetic nervous system found in the tunica mucosa.
B. Is part of the enteric nervous system found in the tunica submucosa.
C. Is part of the enteric nervous system found in the tunica muscularis.
D.Is part of the parasympathetic nervous system found in the tunica submucosa.

Answer 106

C. Is part of the enteric nervous system found in the tunica muscularis.

Question 107

Which of the following structures are ALL found in the ileum of the dog?

A. Lamina propria, outer circular muscle, Brunner’s glands, villi
B. Muscularis mucosa, crypts of Lieberkühn, microvilli, enterocytes
C. Outer longitudinal muscle, Meissner’s plexus, villi, lamina propria, Chief cells
D. Auerbach’s plexus, submucosa, centroacinar cells, muscularis mucosa

Answer 107

B

A wrong bc brunners galnds in duodenum
C wrong because chief cells found in gastric glands of stomach
D wrong bc centroacinar cells in exocrine pancreas

Question 108

Which of the following is not found in the abomasum?
A. tunica mucosa
B. tunica serosa
C. muscularis mucosa
D. stratified squamous epithelium

Answer 108

D. stratified squamous epithelium

Question 109

The stomach of the horse is distinct because it has:

A. Diverticulum ventriculi, extensive cardiac glandular region
B. Saccus caecus , extensive cardiac glandular region
C. Oesophagus and pylorus close to each other, margo plicatus
D. Diverticulum ventriculi, extensive non-glandular cardiac region, torus pyloricus

Answer 109

C. Oesophagus and pylorus close to each other, margo plicatus

Question 110

Which of the following teeth are ALL hypsodont?
A. Canine teeth in horses
B. All bovine teeth
C. All cheek teeth in horses, pigs and cattle
D. All incisor teeth in horses

Answer 110

D. All incisor teeth in horses

Question 111

Which of the following salivary glands lies immediately ventral to the eye in the dog?
A. Zygomatic gland
B. Mandibular gland
C. Parotid gland
D. Sublingual gland

Answer 111

A. Zygomatic gland

Question 112

Which of the following are ALL part of the mesenteries of the dog?
A. Mesojejunum, ileocaecal fold, mesopancreas
B. Ileocaecal fold, mesocolon, superficial leaf of the greater omentum
C. Mesocolon, mesoduodeum, hepatogastric ligament, broad ligament
D. Both A and B

Answer 112

B. Ileocaecal fold, mesocolon, superficial leaf of the greater omentum

Question 113

A. Cranial duodenum exits pylorus on left, sternal flexure receives bile and pancreatic ducts, descending duodenum runs caudally right abdomen, pelvic flexure, ascending duodenum runs cranially left abdomen, forms duodenocolic fold with descending colon, jejunum, ileum, caecum

B. Cranial duodenum exits pylorus on right, proximal duodenum receives bile and pancreatic ducts, descending duodenum runs caudally left abdomen, ascending duodenum runs cranially right abdomen forming duodenocolic fold with descending colon, then jejunum, ileum, caecum.

C. Cranial duodenum exits pylorus on right, proximal duodenum receives bile and pancreatic ducts, descending duodenum runs caudally right abdomen, caudal flexure, ascending duodenum runs cranially, forming duodenocolic fold with descending colon, then jejunum, ileum, caecum

D. Exits pylorus on left, descending duodenum left abdomen, forms duodenocolic fold with ascending colon, ascending duodenum right abdomen, jejunum, ileum, caecum

Answer 113

C. Cranial duodenum exits pylorus on right, proximal duodenum receives bile and pancreatic ducts, descending duodenum runs caudally right abdomen, caudal flexure, ascending duodenum runs cranially, forming duodenocolic fold with descending colon, then jejunum, ileum, caecum

Question 114

Which of the following arteries ALL supply the gastro-intestinal tract?

A. Splenic artery, left gastric artery, caudal mesenteric artery, phrenicoabdominal artery
B. Hepatic artery, cranial mesenteric artery, external iliac artery
C. Renal artery, left gastric artery, caudal mesenteric artery
D. Hepatic artery, caudal mesenteric artery, splenic artery

Answer 114

D. Hepatic artery, caudal mesenteric artery, splenic artery

Question 115

The tunica mucosa of the duodenum of the horse is characterised by:

A. Intestinal crypts, villi, no absorptive cells, enteroendocrine (argentaffin) cells, no Paneth cells, goblet cells
B. Intestinal crypts, no villi, absorptive cells, some enteroendocrine (argentaffin) cells, Paneth cells, goblet cells
C. No intestinal crypts, villi, absorptive cells, some enteroendocrine (argentaffin) cells, no Paneth cells, no goblet cells, thick mucus that limits bacterial penetration
D. Intestinal crypts, villi, absorptive cells, enteroendocrine (argentaffin) cells, Paneth cells, goblet cells

Answer 115

D: Intestinal crypts, villi, absorptive cells, enteroendocrine (argentaffin) cells, Paneth cells, goblet cells