nutrition 1-6 practice questions (NOT DONE) Flashcards
Which word is best defined by the following: “An edible material that provides nutrients”?
a. Nutrients
b. Food
c. Carnivore
d. Ration
b. Food
Which of the following components of dry matter is considered inorganic?
a. Minerals
b. Protein
c. Vitamins
d. Lipids
a
Which of the following is not true of carnivores?
a. They typically have relatively large brains
b. They may be further classified as obligate carnivores or mesocarnivores
c. One example of an obligate carnivore is the ferret
d. They typically have a more complex digestive system than herbivores
d
Which of the following feeding behaviours typically results in an animal with a combination of sharp
teeth (for shearing through meat) and flat molars (or grinding plant matter)?
a. Omnivores
b. Obligate carnivores
c. Concentrate selectors
d. Grazers
a
Which of the following is an example of a concentrate selector?
a. Deer
b. Lion
c. Sheep
d. Horse
a
Which two feeding behaviour groups are able to greatly vary their diet depending on food
availability?
a. Obligate carnivores
b. Omnivores
c. Intermediate feeders
d. Concentrate selectors
b,c
Grazing animals preferentially select feeds which maximise the availability of energy and provide
them with positive experiences. This can be referred to as:
a. Meal choice
b. Avoidant eating
c. Nutritional wisdom
d. Herd health
c
Which of the following is not a means by which cattle obtain water?
a. Drinking water
b. Transdermal absorption
c. Water present in food
d. Water formed during metabolism
b
Which of the following is the chemical formula of a triose monosaccharide?
a. C3H6O3
b. C4H8O4
c. C5H10O5
d. C6H12O6
a
What is the main form of energy storage in domestic animal species?
a. Muscle
b. Calcium
c. Carbohydrates
d. Fat
d
Below is a photograph of two, 11-week-old male rats. Which is more likely to have been fed a diet
deficient in essential fatty acids? a or b
b
Which of the following is a common symptom of vitamin A (retinol) deficiency in horses?
a. Coagulopathy
b. Calcification of soft tissues
c. Night blindness
d. Anaemia
c
‘Curled toe paralysis’ is most often seen in chicks with a deficiency of which vitamin?
a. Vitamin B12 (riboflavin)
b. Vitamin K (phylloquinone)
c. Arginine
d. Monosaccharides
a
Vitamin B12 (cobalamin) is most often supplemented in dogs suffering from which symptom?
a. Allergic dermatitis
b. Diarrhoea
c. Coagulopathy
d. Seizures
b
Which domestic species is most likely to suffer from Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) deficiency?
a. Cats
b. Cattle
c. Horses
d. Guinea pigs
d
Vitamin A (retinol) acts as a precursor for rhodopsin, which is important for which body function?
a. Blood clotting
b. Skeletal strength
c. Low-light vision
d. Cardiac muscle contraction
c
Vitamin D (calciferol) plays a key role in which metabolic system?
a. Low-light vision
b. Blood clot stabilisation
c. Antioxidant protection of cell membranes
d. Calcium regulation
d
What is the most common cause of Vitamin K deficiency seen in small animal clinical practice?
a. Anti-coagulant rodenticide toxicosis
b. Dietary deficiency
c. Genetic malabsorption
d. Failure of placental transfer
a
The below photograph shows a structural deformity in a horse colloquially known as ‘big head’.
What is the most likely mineral deficiency this horse is experiencing?
a. Copper
b. Calcium
c. Vitamin A (retinol)
d. Selenium
b
Are pasture animals in Queensland more likely to experience calcium or phosphorous deficiency?
a. Calcium
b. Phosphorous
b
The below photograph shows a hoof which has grown abnormally. Would this horse be more likely
to be experiencing selenium deficiency or selenium toxicosis?
a. Selenium deficiency
b. Selenium toxicosis
b
Iodine is closely associated with the production of which hormone?
a. Leptin
b. Oestrogen
c. Thyroxine (T4)
d. Cortisol
c
Digestibility can be best defined as:
a. The proportion of feed that is not excreted in the faeces, and therefore is assumed to be
absorbed by the animal
b. The proportion of energy that is lose in urine and combustible gases
c. The amount of heat that is produced by complete oxidation of a unit of food
d. A traditional method of conserving green crops
a
A bomb calorimeter is used to measure what property of food?
a. Gross energy
b. Digestible energy
c. Metabolisable enery
d. Net energy
a
Crude protein is…?
a. A useful measure of nutritional composition of the diet
b. Based on the assumption that nitrogen can be present in a variety of compounds in food
c. A comparable measure of digestible protein between species
d. An estimation of the protein content of food based on the nitrogen content
d
Which of the following is not true of legumes?
a. They belong to the family Leguminoseae
b. They grow in a symbiotic relationship with nitrogen-fixing bacteria
c. They have a generally lower protein content than grasses
d. They are generally more drought hardy than grasses
c
Which of the following has a higher moisture content?
a. Hay
b. Silage
b
Pelleting cereal grains can be best defined as:
a. Grain is exposed to hot steam for 15 to 30 minutes before rolling, producing a flat ‘flake’
b. Corn is exposed to dry heat, causing sudden expansion of water to gas that ruptures the
endosperm
c. Grain is passed through a flame
d. Grain is ground (and often steamed), then shaped into pellets.
d
Casein is an example of a:
a. Processed animal protein
b. Plant protein meal
c. Cereal grain
d. Forage food
a
Non-protein nitrogen provides a protein source for which of the following domestic species?
a. Horses
b. Cats
c. Cattle
d. Pigs
c
Newly weaned piglets typically experience a decrease in feed intake. This is known as:
a. Growth check
b. Maximal production
c. Feed palatability
d. Feed requirements
a
Which of the following is not appropriate to feed to backyard pigs in Australia?
a. Root crops such as sweet potato
b. Fruits such as banana
c. Legume crops such as alfalfa
d. Food scraps which have been in contact with meat products
d
Faeces are considered the window to gut health in a feedlot environment. Which of the following
lists all aspects of the faeces which should be considered?
a. Colour, consistency, volume
b. Colour, consistency, content
c. Consistency, content, shape
d. Colour, content, dry matter
b
Cresty neck scores are scaled from 0 to what number?
a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 9
b
Which of the following is the foundation of good equine nutrition? (1 mark)
a. Medium-quality hay or pasture
b. Carbohydrate-rich supplements
c. Processed grains
d. Straw
a
True or false: creep feeding is an effective way to prevent a growth check in weaned piglets.
a. True
b. False
b
Which of the following is not a contributing factor to nutritional requirements in equines?
a. Level of work
b. Gestation and lactation
c. Coat condition
d. Temperament
c
Under-feeding puppies during growth can predispose to which of the following health concerns?
a. Reduced immunity
b. Hip dysplasia
c. Osteochondrosis
d. Obesity in adulthood
a
Which of the following is true of nutrition recommendations for pregnant canines?
a. Calcium supplementation is desirable during pregnancy
b. Feeding a diet rich in organ meats is desirable during pregnancy
c. Pregnant bitches have a higher metabolic demand for nutritional energy sourced after week
4-5 of gestation
d. Pregnant bitches should never be fed a commercially available puppy diet
c
Senior feline diets typically do not target which of the following nutritional demands?
a. Anti-oxidants for free-radical protection
b. High quality, easily digested protein for muscle maintenance
c. Phosphorous control for renal care
d. Calcium:phosphorous ratio for optimal bone and joint growth
d
Which of the following is not a recognised nutritional management strategy for post-weaning
diarrhoea in pigs?
a. Restrict intake of feed during early weaning
b. Decrease fat component in weaner diet
c. Process feeds to reduce antigenicity
d. Add pre- and pro-biotics to weaner diet
b
Providing roughage of sufficient fibre length can help to prevent urolithiasis in sheep because:
a. Longer fibres have lower silica composition = reduced rick of silica uroliths forming
b. Longer fibres increase rumination behaviour = increased phosphorous excretion in saliva =
reduced risk of struvite uroliths forming
c. Longer fibres have higher water content = dilute urine = reduced risk of mineral
precipitation
d. Longer fibres have improved mineral composition = reduced risk of all uroliths forming
b
Which of the following diet components is most likely to increase the risk of osteochondrosis
dessicans lesions in horses?
a. Easily digested carbohydrates such as grains
b. Straw roughage
c. Pasture grasses
d. Periods of fasting
a
Which class of equine athlete is most likely to suffer clinically significant gastric ulcers?
a. Show horses
b. Pleasure horses
c. Working stock horses
d. Racing thoroughbreds
d
Which of the following would be appropriate to recommend to a client with an obese companion
animal?
a. Reduce daily food intake by 50%
b. Transition to Hills Metabolic food
c. Reduce current exercise levels
d. Aim for rapid weight loss, at least 5% of body weight per week
b
obligate carnivore
Diet consists of at least 70% meat. Cannot properly digest
vegetation
mesocarnivore
Diet consists of at least 50% meat. Diet may be
supplemented with fruits/vegetables/fungi.
Sheep grazing behaviours
choose 3 out of
(i) Prefer leaf material (over stems) and green material (over browned material)
(ii) Poorly selective intake
(iii) Avoid material with physical irritants (eg. prickles)
(iv) Prefer to consume large amounts of high-fibre feed
(v) Better suited to mature pastures with little variance
(vi) Better suited to pastures with less overall roughage but, high variance of feed available
Prefer leaf material (over stems) and green material (over
browned material)
Avoid material with physical irritants (eg. prickles)
Better suited to pastures with less overall roughage but high variance of feed available
cattle grazing behaviour
choose 3 out of
(i) Prefer leaf material (over stems) and green material (over browned material)
(ii) Poorly selective intake
(iii) Avoid material with physical irritants (eg. prickles)
(iv) Prefer to consume large amounts of high-fibre feed
(v) Better suited to mature pastures with little variance
(vi) Better suited to pastures with less overall roughage but, high variance of feed available
Poorly selective intake
Prefer to consume large amounts of high-fibre feed
Better suited to mature pastures with little variance
Adaptation period
Animals gradually introduced to the experimental diet.
Maintenance period
Animals fed only the experimental diet, completely accustoming them to it and removing residues of other foods from the GI tract.
Collection period
Intake and output actively measured and recorded
Steam rolling
Grain is exposed to hot steam for 3 to 5 minutes before
rolling to soften.
Extruding
Grain is finely ground, then heated (at high temperatures
and pressure) and forced through a barrel to form a long
ribbon which can be chopped to various lengths.
Micronizing
Heat treated with infrared heat, rather than dry heat.
Humanisation
Desire to feed pets like a human family member
Premiumisation
Desire to feed pets the best perceived quality possible
Suckling piglets diet
Growth rate is directly related to milk yield in the sow and
formation of nursing order.
Weaner pigs diet
Rations should be high in digestible energy and crude
protein. Individuals have limited intake capacity, so should be
fed smaller amounts frequently or offered food ad libitum.
Grower/finisher pigs diet
Rations should be high in digestible energy and crude
protein. Dividing this group into three or four phases, with
declining protein composition as body weight increases, is
often the most economical use of resources. Offer feed ad
libitum.
Pregnant sows diet
Rations should have moderate energy and protein content,
and intake controlled based on the individual’s body
condition.
Lactating sows
Rations should be high in digestible energy and fed ad
libitum, with the aim of maintaining body condition before the next breeding cycle.
Fasting effect on equine
Continued acid secretion with no buffering from saliva
or feed + increasingly watery contents more likely to splash
gastric fluid onto squamous mucosa
High-starch rations effect on equine
Rapid production of VFA and lactic acid + inadequate
saliva production + lower calcium intake.
“Slug feeding” effect on equine
Combination of periods of fasting and sudden rapid acid
production.
Transport effect on equine
Disturbed water and feed intake.
Straw roughage effect on equine
Damage to gastric epithelium + low calcium and protein
intake.
Restricted water access effect on equine
Reduced gastric acid dilution.
Why is nutrition important in the general health care of companion animals?
Poor nutrition represents a major health and welfare issue in companion animals. It can contribute to
digestive disorders, obesity, orthopaedic disease, cardiorespiratory disease, and predisposes to infectious and
parasitic diseases. Feeding our animals is also known to both support and proliferate the human animal bond.
Why is nutrition important in the general health care of production animals?
Nutrition has health and welfare implications for both the individual and the herd. It is a key determinate of
productivity, which in turn determines the economic viability of the animal enterprise. Feed costs alone
account for 50-70% of the cost of production, so it is important to spend this money on nutrition that will
provide the greatest benefit to the individual animal, the herd at large, and as a result the enterprise.
Provide one example of an advance in nutritional science which aims to improve the environmental impact of animal production
ANY ONE OF:
Feeding tannin-containing feeds to reduce methane-producing rumen protozoa.
Better matching soluble nitrogen supply to the requirements of rumen microbes reducing urinary ammonia
excretion and effluent pollution.
Optimising calcium:phosphorous ratios for laying birds to reduce phosphorous excretion and pollution.
Describe the similarities and differences between a concentrate selector, an intermediate feeder,
and a grazer.
Each of these is similar in that they are all herbivores, which gain their nutrition exclusively from feeds that
photosynthesise (plants). Their digestive system is typically more complex than carnivores, with specialised
dentition for grinding fibre and large digestive tracts for extracting nutrients.
Concentrate selectors preferentially select feeds which are rich in sugars, proteins and fats, such as seeds,
fruits and young foliage. They cannot tolerate large amounts of fibre and typically feed on small amounts of
food more frequently.
Intermediate feeders have the ability to change their diet depending on availability.
Grazers mostly feed on leaves or grasses.
Describe the behavioural variation in feed selection seen in cattle and sheep.
Sheep are adept at selecting for specific foods. They prefer leaf material (over stems), young plant parts (over
mature parts), green material (over browned material), and they avoid any material with physical irritants
(such as prickles). This makes them best suited to pastures with less overall roughage but high variance of
feed available. Cattle are poorly selective of what they eat. They are best suited to mature pastures with high amounts of
roughage and minimal variance.
What is the empirical formula of carbohydrates?
(CH2O)n
Name two essential fatty acids in mammals.
Linoleic acid, α-linolenic acid, arachidonic acid.
Name two essential amino acids in the cat.
Arginine, histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine,
tryptophan, valine, taurine.
Name the two ways domestic animals can experience thiamine deficiency.
Low dietary thiamine intake, ingestion of thiaminase (e.g. in raw fish)
Name three major essential mineral elements to mammalian species.
Calcium, phosphorous, potassium, sodium, sulphur, chlorine, magnesium
What is the formula used to calculate dry matter digestibility?
(Weight of feed consumed – weight excreted) ÷ weight of feed consumed.
Over a 24-hour period, a cow consumed 9kg of hay, which had a dry matter content of 8kg. She excreted 3kg of dry matter in her faeces. Calculate the dry matter digestibility of the hay consumed
by this cow.
0.625 or 62.5%
Name two reasons that cereal grains are often processed.
ANY TWO OF: Improve carbohydrate digestibility, improve protein digestibility, prevent spoilage, improve
palatability
Name three ways to maximise feed intake in production pigs.
ANY THREE OF: Ensure feed is fresh and palatable (no mould/mycotoxins, unpalatable odours, bitter flavours),
ensure feed is nutritionally balanced to the needs of the class of pig, feed several times per day, ensure fresh
water is always accessible, ensure adequate feeding space, avoid temperatures above 20oC.
The rodent model of feline diets suggests that which two nutrients should predominate?
Protein and fat.
Across an ‘ideal’ 365-day period, dairy cows typically experience four phases in their nutritional
cycle. Describe each phase and the nutritional intake at each phase. You may draw a diagram to assist with this.
PHASE 1: Early lactation, 0-4 months after calving. Medium nutritional intake – weight loss provides much of
the energy required for milk production.
PHASE 2: Mid-lactation, 5-8 months after calving. Nutritional intake peaks and body weight stabilises.
PHASE 3: Late lactation, 8-10 months after calving. Milk yield reduces (lactation drying up), nutritional intake
reduces but nutrition is now directed at supporting recovery of body weight.
PHASE 4: Dry period, final 60 days of the year. Critical period of mammary recovery. Nutritional intake
increasing through late stages of pregnancy
Name and describe two factors contributing to post weaning diarrhoea in pigs.
ANY TWO OF:
Sudden withdrawal of whole milk – milk has protective components such as lactobacilli, which competitively
exclude pathogens.
Poor maturation of digestive function – particularly in piglets below 4 weeks of age, intestinal morphology
and microbe population are specialised to digesting milk and aren’t able to digest solids effectively.
Presence of anti-nutritive factors in post-weaning diets – increasing reliance on protein sources such as
soybeans and peas which contain enzyme inhibitors.
Role of dietary antigens in creating hypersensitivity reactions – local hypersensitivity reactions in the intestine
appear to play a role, some evidence that exposure to creep feeds play a sensitising role.
Name one short-term treatment and one long-term prevention strategy for cases of grass tetany in
cattle.
Short term: move lactating cows to higher magnesium pasture, increase roughage intake, provide magnesium
oxide supplement (daily supplement or slow-release intra-rumen bullet).
Long term: apply phosphate fertilizers, plant legume crops such as clover, plant tree line for shelter
There are a wide range of documented risk factors for small animal obesity. Provide one example
for each of the following risk factor types: patient signalment factors, environment factors, diet factors.
Patient signalment: neutering (desexed individuals more at risk), gender (female dogs, male cats more at risk),
age (older animals more at risk), breed.
Environment: exercise (lack of exercise more at risk), single-dog households.
Diet: price of pet food (cheaper foods increase risk), treats (increased risk), once-daily feeding (increased risk),
food intake quantity.
