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VETS1003 > digestive anatomy of HORSE > Flashcards

digestive anatomy of HORSE Flashcards

1
Q

describe oral cavity

A
  • small entrance
  • long and narrow
  • dark; gag and flashlight needed to examine
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2
Q

horses lips are v

A

mobile; graze close to ground

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3
Q

horse incisors are what kind of teeth

A

hypsodont

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4
Q

do horses have a dental pad

A

no

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5
Q

hypsodont teeth in horses have ____ crown

A

high crown in relation to roots

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6
Q

horse hypsodont teeth; how long to fully erupt

A

can take a long time to fully erupt; large proportion of tooth body can lie under gum line, enables more wear and tear

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7
Q

what teeth in horses are brachydont

A

the canines; often not present/ erupted in females

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8
Q

what are canine teeth in horses for

A

fighting now chewing

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9
Q

what teeth in horse are hypsodont

A

incisors and cheek teeth

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10
Q

as the tooth surface wears, pulp cavity may become exposed, sealed with _____ formed as result of odontoblast activity

A

secondary/tertiary dentine

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11
Q

what allows us to age the animal

A

enamel crests

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12
Q

wolf teeth

A

rudimentary upper first premolar, sits immediately rostral to PM2

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13
Q

horse dental formula

A

2(I3/3, C1/1, P3(4)/3, M3/3) = 40(42)

baby teeth:
2(Di3/3, Dc0/0, Dp3/3) = 24

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14
Q

temporary teeth eruption

A

i1= 6 days
i2= 6 weeks
i3= 6 months

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15
Q

permanent teeth eruption

A

I1= 2.5-3 years
I2= 3.5-4 years
I3= 4.5=5 years
canine= 4-5 years

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16
Q

describe cups and stars

A

infundibulum as teeth wear creates cups: like a dark circle on the tooth

as tooth wears more the pulp cavity becomes exposed and you can see stars

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17
Q

infundibulum is filled with

A

cementum

There is the outer layer of enamel, then the dentine, then the inner ring of enamel that is the edge of the infundibulum, and then the cementum in the centre, which is darker

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18
Q

wear of permanent teeth

A

cups gone (smooth):
- I1= 6 years
- I2= 9 years
- I3= 8 years

start to see stars
- I1= 8 years
- I2= 10 years
- I3= 11 years

round
- I1= 9 years
- I2- 10 years
- I3= 11 years

triangular
- I1= 16 years
- I2= 17 years
- I3= 18 years

rectangular
- 18-20+ years

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19
Q

diastema

A

space in between incisors and premolars

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20
Q

what may be present in diastema in males

A

canine tooth

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21
Q

for the molar teeth the upper arcade sits ____ to lower arcade

A

lateral (so upper and lower teeth have a slope like a pyramid ^)

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22
Q

where will sharp edges occur on the maxillary (upper) teeth and on the mandibular (lower) teeth

A

buccal surface in upper/maxillary

lingual surface in lower/ mandibular

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23
Q

wave mouth

A

Some teeth will be worn away excessively, while others grow too long. This leads to a wave‐
like appearance of the molar teeth

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24
Q

what is dental procedure called on horses where sharp edges are filed away

A

floating

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25
Q

in young horses the molars and occasionally last premolar project into the

A

maxillary sinus
(but as horse ages and teeth grow amount of tooth in sinus decreases)

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26
Q

tooth root access and dental fractures can result in

A

sinus empyema (collection of pus)

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27
Q

are growth bumps of deciduous teeth normal

A

yes

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28
Q

tongue is velvety due to the many fine

A

filiform papillae

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29
Q

where do you find vallate papilla

A

dorsal surface of root of tongue

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30
Q

where do you find foliate papillae

A

lateral surfaces of root of tongue

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31
Q

root of tongue has diffuse ____ tonsils

A

lingual

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32
Q

parotid salivary gland location

A

extend from base of ear to ventral neck behind mandible

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33
Q

mandibular gland location

A

medial to the parotid

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34
Q

what is the largest salivary gland in horse

A

parotid

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35
Q

parotid duct lies

A

ventral to mandible

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36
Q

lampas

A

condition when incisor teeth are erupting where the hard palate swells, normal

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37
Q

soft palate is ____ in horse

A

longest

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38
Q

soft palate completely separates the

A

oropharynx from laryngopharynx
EXCEPT during swallowing

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39
Q

the epiglottis rests within the

A

nasopharynx

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40
Q

horse is an ______ nose breather

A

obligate

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41
Q

why is the horse an obligate nose breather (3 reasons)

A
  1. The tongue rests against the hard palate when the mouth is closed.
  2. The soft palate position below the epiglottis,
  3. the palatopharyngeal arches complete the sphincter around the opening of the larynx
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42
Q

palatopharyngeal arches help seal off

A

the oropharynx from the nasopharynx

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43
Q

DDSP (dorsal displacement of soft palate)

A
  • flipped soft palate
  • soft palate displaced dorsally over epiglottis
  • upper airway pathology that can contribute to poor performance in horses
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44
Q

at the opening of the trachea what kind of cartilage can you see almost lining the top of it

A

arytenoid cartilage

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45
Q

esophagus is dorsal or ventral to trachea

A

dorsal (above)

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46
Q

guttural pouches

A

large diverticula, extending from the eustachian (auditory) tubes that connect the nasopharynx to the ear

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47
Q

in horses esophagus where can you find submucosal glands

A

only near pharynx

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48
Q

in horse esophagus, cranial 60% is

A

skeletal muscle

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49
Q

similar to other species, esophagus starts dorsal to trachea and then moves to

A

LHS

50
Q

describe the passing of a nasogastric tube (in the nose)

A
  • Insert tube to level of pharynx and wait for horse to swallow tube
  • View tube progress down LHS of neck as it passes down the oesophagus
  • Can “rattle” the underside of neck to hear if in trachea
51
Q

choke

A
  • esophageal obstruction; common equine emergency
  • commonly occurs when horse eats concentrated feed to quickly without chewing properly
  • food bolus lodged in esophagus
  • sedate and pass nasogastric tube, flush w water
52
Q

the simple stomach is bent sharply so the ____ and ____ are close

A

esophagus and duodenum (ie esophagus and pylorus are close together)
makes a C shape

53
Q

why does stomach shape make it difficult for horses to vomit

A

The oesophagus enters obliquely, and the cardiac sphincter is well developed, so it’s really difficult for the contents of the stomach to enter the oesophagus

54
Q

stomach has enlarged fundus, called the

A

saccus caecus

55
Q

where does stomach lie

A

deeply under ribs, almost entirely to LHS and never contacts ventral abdominal wall

56
Q

where is spleen and liver in relation to stomach

A

spleen to left
liver cranially and to right

57
Q

describe internal morphology of horses stomach

A

more extensive non‐glandular mucosa than other species. It covers nearly half of the total area, and extends into the saccus caecus. The cardiac
glandular region is a narrow zone running along the border of the non‐glandular mucosa. This border is thrown up into a thickened ridge, the margo plicatus. The fundic and the pyloric gland area are about equal size

58
Q

margo plicatus

A

border between cardiac (glandular) and non glandular regions, thickened ridge

59
Q

are cardiac sphincter and pyloric sphincters well developed in horse

A

yes

60
Q

describe non glandular mucosa of stomach

A
  • Whitish
  • Stratified squamous epithelium
  • Often folded, may be thick and cornified
  • Involved with storage
61
Q

describe glandular muscosa of stomach

A
  • Reddish to yellow
  • Covered with simple columnar epithelium
  • May have folds (rugae)
  • Involved with digestion
62
Q

where are gastric ulcers more commonly found in horse stomach

A

non glandular region bc not protected from acidic contents

63
Q

normally non glandular region is full of ____ to buffer stomach acid

A

fiber

64
Q

non glandular region of horse stomach is extensive and extends from _____ to _____

A

esophageal sphincter to margo plicatus

65
Q

describe epithelium and lamina propria of non glandular stomach

A
  • keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
  • dense irregular connective tissue
66
Q

equine gastric ulcer syndrome (EGUS) is subdivided into

A
  • equine squamous gastric ulcer syndrome (ESGUS). (common! non glandular mucosa)
  • equine glandular gastric ulcer syndrome (EGGUS) which is less recognized, has high prevalence in some pops, and is less responsive to traditional treatments
  • these are unrelated to each other
67
Q

how does equine squamous gastric ulcer syndrome occur, what are some risk factors

A

A horses’ stomach produces acid continuously, creating up to 42L of acid a day. When the stomach isn’t full, acid can splash onto the
vulnerable upper portion of the stomach – the squamous mucosa, or non‐glandular mucosa, causing acid burn.

Risk factors include heavy training or competition schedules, low roughage or high grain diets, extended travel, so the stomach is empty for prolonged periods of time, and stabling horses, so they’re unable to graze.

68
Q

in small intestine what is extremely long and why

A

mesentery is extremely long; allows jejunum to be v mobile

69
Q

where does most of jejunum lie

A

left dorsal quadrant, rest of SI in unremarkable

70
Q

is there taenia or haustra in the small intestine

A

no!

71
Q

what can occur to make the SI die/ become necrotic

A

SI gets twisted/ blood flow gets cut off

72
Q

how does a small intestinal volvulus occur

A

segment of SI rotates more than 180 degrees around its mesentery

acute and severe, painful abdominal pain

73
Q

where are brunners glands found

A

entire length of duodenum

74
Q

what do brunners glands open into

A

base of crypts of lieberkuhn

75
Q

secretion of brunners glands

A

alkaline, mucous, viscous

protects duodenum from gastric secretions

76
Q

where are paneth cells found

A

at base of crypts of lieberkuhn

77
Q

small intestine in horses contains what 4 cells

A
  • absorptive cells (enterocytes),
  • goblet cells,
  • enteroendocrine cells,
  • paneth cells
77
Q

what do paneth cells secrete

A

secrete dense granules which contain antimicrobial peptides and proteins to keep the microbial population in check

78
Q

where is the major site for bacterial fermentation

A

caecum

79
Q

where is caecum

A

very large, comma shaped, fills most of RHS of abdomen

80
Q

base of ceacum is bulbous and lies doral in right

A

paralumbar fossa

81
Q

base of caecum has

A

greater curvature (dorsal) and lesser curvature (ventral)

82
Q

describe caecum curving

A

has curved body that extends ventrally and then cranially and medially to an apex, when full the apex can reach level of xiphoid process at end of sternum

83
Q

can auscultate apex of caecum for

A

sand colic

84
Q

large intestine taenia and haustra

A
  • taenia; longitudinal muscle bands providing support
  • haustra; sacculations in the intestine wall
85
Q

caecum has how many taenia

A

4

86
Q

the 4 taenia divide the caecum into 4 haustra separates by deep folds, describe them

A
  • The dorsal band attaches to the ileocaecal fold.
  • The lateral band attaches to thecaecocolic fold.
  • The medial and ventral bands join together near the apex
87
Q

The openings to the ilium – the ileocaecal orifice ‐ and the colon ‐ the caecocolic orifice ‐ both open
into the

A

lesser curvature of the base of caecum

88
Q

is ileum directly connected to colon

A

no

89
Q

does all the food a horse eat pass through the caecum

A

yes

90
Q

ascending and descending colon in horse are

A

very large; 3-5m long and 50-130 L

91
Q

does colon have taenia and haustra

A

yes

92
Q

describe acending colon aka the great colon

A
  • long, double U‐shaped loop which is doubled on itself. It’s not technically ascending as it doubles
    back on itself, but it’s analogous to the ascending region of the simple colon.
  • It’s got 4 main parts, which are joined by flexures.
  • In order, there’s the right ventral colon, the
    left ventral colon, the left dorsal colon, and the right dorsal colon
93
Q

4 part of ascending colon (in order)

A
  • Right ventral (attached to the caecum by the caecocolic fold) 25cm diameter
  • Left ventral 25 cm diameter
  • pelvic flexure; abrupt decrease in diameter 10cm
  • Left dorsal 10 cm diameter
  • diaphragmatic flexure
  • Right dorsal 50cm diameter
94
Q

how is right ventral part of ascending colon attached to caecum

A

attached to the caecum by the caecocolic fold

95
Q

describe diqmeter from right dorsal colon (last part of ascending colon where diameter is 50cm ish) to transverse colon to descending colon

A
  • transverse colon is short, right to left, cranial to the root of mesentery and abrupt decrease in diameter: 7-10cm
  • descending colon (aka small colon) continues at this diameter and is very long 3-4 m, has a mobile loose mesocolon
96
Q

right and left ventral colon have how many bands (ie taenia)
describe them

A
  • 4; 2 dorsal and 2 ventral
  • 2 dorsal bands of RVC and LVC form intercolonic mesenteric bands (lateral and medial mesocolic)
  • attach to right and left dorsal colon respectively
  • ventral bands of both colons (lateral and medial) are free
  • both RVC and LVC are sacculated
97
Q

describe taenia and haustra of levic flexure and left dorsal colon

A
  • only 1 taenia (band)
  • no haustra
  • 2 new dorsal bands start at diaphragmatic flexure
98
Q

describe taenia of right dorsal colon

A

3 bands

99
Q

describe taenia and haustra of descending colon

A
  • 2 bands, wide
  • deep sacculations form fecal balls
100
Q

summary of taenia of large intestine

A
  • caecum 4
  • right ventral colon 4
  • left ventral colon 4
  • left dorsal colon 1
  • right dorsal colon 3
  • small colon 2
101
Q

colonic volvulus

A

same as SI; if colon revolves more than 180 degrees around mesenteric attachment

102
Q

straight terminal part of LI

A

rectum

103
Q

rectum passes through

A

pelvic cavity

104
Q

does the anus have glands

A

no

105
Q

liver lobes

A

L medial
L lateral
single R lobe
fluted quadrate lobe
caudate lobe
no papillary processes
NO gall bladder

106
Q

abdominal muscles

A

external abdominal oblique
internal abdominal oblique
rectus abdominus
transverse abdominus

107
Q

tunica flava

A

deep layer of fascia over the external abdominal oblique muscle, which is made of elastic tissue. This layer is yellowish in colour and is known as the tunica flava . It is thickest ventrally, where it helps to support the enormous weight of the GI tract.

108
Q

The dental formula of an adult horse that does not have wolf teeth is 2(Ia/a, Cb/b, Pc/c, Md/d) = 40. Which of the following is CORRECT?

A.
a = 3; b = 1; c = 3; d = 3

B.
a = 3; b = 0; c = 4; d = 3

C.
a = 3; b = 1; c = 3; d = 4

D.
a = 3; b = 0; c = 3; d = 0

A

A.
a = 3; b = 1; c = 3; d = 3

109
Q

As the surface of hypsodont teeth wears, the pulp of the tooth may become exposed. This is sealed with __________ and is visible as the dental star in the incisors.

A

B.
Secondary/tertiary dentine

110
Q

Where can you view the passage of a stomach tube as it passes down the oesophagus of the horse?

A

left side of neck

111
Q

What is the name given to the enlarged fundus of a horse

A

saccus caecus

112
Q

The internal surface of a horses’ stomach is lined by two types of mucosa: non-glandular and glandular mucosa. Which type of mucosa appears reddish to yellow in colour?

A

Glandular mucosa

113
Q

In the horse, there is a raised border between the glandular and non-glandular regions of the stomach. What is this ridge called?

A

A.
Margo plicatus

114
Q

In which quadrant of the abdomen do the majority of the small intestines reside?

A

Left dorsal quadrant

114
Q

The secretion from Brunner’s glands plays a role in protecting the duodenum from acidic gastric secretions. How far along the duodenum do Brunner’s glands extend in the horse?

A

Entire length of the duodenum

115
Q

How many taenia does the caecum of the horse have?

A

4

115
Q

Which part of the equine colon attaches to the caecum?

A

Right ventral colon

116
Q

Which part of the equine colon connects to the transverse colon

A

Right dorsal colon

117
Q

Which part of the equine colon has a single taenia?

A

Left dorsal colon

118
Q

liver lobes

A

Left medial and lateral lobes; single right lobe; fluted quadrate lobe; caudate lobe with no papillary process

119
Q

The 4 main abdominal muscles in the horse are:

A

External and internal abdominal oblique muscles, the rectus abdominus, and the transverse abdominus

VETS1003 (23 decks)

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