Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BACTERIOLOGY > Part III: Introduction to Bacteriology > Flashcards

Part III: Introduction to Bacteriology Flashcards

1
Q

detection of bacteremia, sepsis, fever of unknown origin in blood collection/phlebotomy

A

Blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

presence of viable bacteria in blood

A

Bacteremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Common agents for Bacteremia

A

CoNS (Coagulase-Negative Staph) Saphrophyticus and epidermidis

H.influenzae

S.aureus

E.coli

B. fragilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

presence of viable bacteria in blood that causes SYSTEMIC INFLAMMATORY INFECTION

A

Septicemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Decontamination of puncture site uses: (3)

A

70-95% alcohol
Chlorhexidine
Iodophor (1 min)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

BLOOD common contaminants

A

DiBa EVA

Diptheriae spp.
Bacillus spp.
S. epidermidis
Viridans streptococci
p. Acnes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Blood-Broth ratio is:

A

1:10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

BLOOD specimen media used

A

Brain Heart Infusion
Trypticase Soy Broth
Brucella Broth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

BLOOD anticoagulant uses

A

0.25% Sodium Polyethanol Sulfonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Addition of _______ in anticoagulant SPS will neutralize effect of SPS

A

1% gelatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Anticoagulant SPS will inhibit growth of

A

Negative VMA

Neisseria
G. vaginalis
S. monoliformis
P. anaerobious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Other anticoagulants:

A
  • Sodium amylosulfate
  • Heparin
  • 0.5-1% Sodium citrate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

additive that CANNOT BE USED FOR BLOOD CULTURE

A

EDTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

BLOOD CULTURE

Heparin is usually used for

A
  • viral agents
  • capable of inhibiting gram (-) bacteria and yeast
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Specimen used for the detection of Respiratory Tract Infection

A

Sputum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Sputum must be handled in

A

BSC Cabinet (BSL-3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Specimen retrieved for Sputum Culture

A

Deep Cough 5-10 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Poor collection of sputum is confirmed in presence of

A

Alveolar macrophange
Columnar cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Sterile sputum

A

Centrifugation –> process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Non-sterile sputum undergoes

A

Digestion - Decontamination - centri -process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

BARTLETT’S CLASSIFICATION

Saliva

A

> 10
< 25 PMN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

BARTLETT’S CLASSIFICATION

Sputum

A

< 10 PMN
> 25 PMN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Sputum Gold Standard sterilization

A

Digestion: n-acetyl-l-cysteine
Decontamination: NaOH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Other decontamination agent for Sputum

A

5 % oxalic acid
Sputolysin
Zephiran Trisodium Phosphate
4% NaOH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

generally for aerobic bacteria, least preferred for anaerobic culture

A

SWAB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Major throat pathogen

A

S. pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

SWAB

Clinical Significance of S.pyogenes

A

Pharyngitis
scarlet fever
erysipelas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

SWAB

Virulence factor of S.pyogenes

A

M protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

SWAB

M protein of S.pyogenes is encoded by what gene

A

emm gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

SWAB

Major throat normal flora

A

Viridans Strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

SWAB

Viridans strep.

Hemolysis =
Optochin =
Neufeld Quellung’s Test =
Bile Esculin =

A

Hemolysis = Alpha
Optochin = Resistant
Neufeld Quellung’s Test = Neg
Bile Esculin = Neg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Major throat flora: Viridans strep causes

A

SBE

Sub-acute Bacterial Endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

NASOPHARYNGEAL SWAB to detect

A

B. pertussis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

B. pertussis is a carrier state of

A

N.meningitis (5-29 yrs old)
H. influenzae
SAR-CoV
MRSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

NASOPHARYNGEAL SWAB uses materials like (3)

A
  • Dacron
  • Rayon
  • Calcium alginate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

NASOPHARYNGEAL SWAB that is toxic to Neisseria

A

Cotton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

NASOPHARYNGEAL SWAB that is toxic to VIRUSES

A

Calcium alginate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

NASOPHARYNGEAL SWAB

Always a pathogen

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

NASOPHARYNGEAL SWAB

  • Can be a normal flora
  • Nasopharyngeal positive result can be non-significant
A

Neisseria meningitidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

manner of collection is thru LUMBAR TAP

A

CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

CSF Sequence of Tube Collection

A

Tube 1: CC
Tube 2 : Microbio
Tube 2: Hema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

CSF Specimen Handling

Storage Temp:
Transport Temp:

A

Storage Temp: 37
Transport Temp: 25-30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

CSF Specimen must be refrigerated

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

CSF culture media

A

BAP
CAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

CSF usual pathogens

A

I Love SPAM

H. influenzae
Listeria
S. pneumoniae
S. agalactiae
N. meningitidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

– to detect enteric pathogens

A

Stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Stool culture media

A

SSA
EMB
MacConkey Agar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Alternative Specimen for enteric pathogen

A

Rectal Swab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

STOOL

Common pathogen

A

Shige Enter Viber Col JeSa

Shigella
Enterocolitica
Vibrio
E.coli
C. jejuni
Salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

submitted to detect UTI, usual request is culture, colony count, and sensitivity

A

URINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

URINE

Most common cause of UTI

A

E.coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Most common cause of UTI in young females

A

S. saprophyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Urine must be processed within

A

1 hr or refrigerated for 24 hrs

54
Q

URINE
Preferred manner of collection:

A

Mid-stream clean catch

55
Q

URINE
Mode collection if patients are infants/ children

A

SUPRAPUBIC urine

56
Q

URINE COLONY COUNT Formula

A

Colonies counted x Dilution

57
Q

URINE COLONY COUNT

Use of ________________CALIBRATED LOOP

A

1uL/10uL

58
Q

URINE COLONY COUNT
Dilution factor is 1000 using

A

1 uL

59
Q

URINE COLONY COUNT
Dilution factor is 100 using

A

10 ul loop

60
Q

URINE Colony count >100,000

A

positive for UTI

61
Q

specimen to collect if the patient is intubated /on a ventilator

A

Endotracheal aspirate

62
Q

Type of Culture Media

Sabouraud’s Dextrose Agar
(fungi

A

General purpose

63
Q

Type of Culture Media

Carrot Broth

A

Enrichment media

64
Q

Type of Culture Media

Alkaline peptone water

A

Enrichment media

65
Q

Type of Culture Media

HEA, XLD, TCBS

A

Differential Media

66
Q

Type of Media

Transgrow

A

Transport Media

67
Q

Type of Media

TSI, LIA, ONPG, Urea agar, Simmon Citrate Agar

A

Biochemical Test

68
Q

Motility Test Media

A

SIM and MIO

69
Q

Type of Media

Bacteroides , Bile Esculin, KVLB (Kanamycin Vancomycin Lake Blod)

A

Media for Anaerobes

70
Q

A device that encloses a workspace

A

BIOSAFETY CABINET

71
Q

HEPA filter can remove objects larger than

A

0.3 um

72
Q

system is entirely open, sterilizes air to be exhausted; least effective

A

CLASS I

73
Q

a.k.a laminar flow, the type that is used in most laboratories

A

CLASS II

74
Q

exhaust air inside the room
70% of air is recirculated

A

BSC CLASS IIA

75
Q

exhaust air outside the building

A

BSC CLASS IIB

76
Q
  • most effective with gloves attached & sealed to the cabinet
  • entirely closed system
A

CLASS III

77
Q

Poses MINIMAL risk to lab personnel

A

BSL-1

78
Q

BSL-1 : Precautions

A

Practice standard Laboratory Techniques

79
Q

BSL-1: Agents

A

B.subtilis
M.gordonae
E. aerogenes

80
Q

Poses MODERATE risk to staff

through ingestion, mucous membrane, percutaneous exposure

laboratory acquired infections

A

BSL-2

81
Q

BSL-2: Precautions

A
  • Agent from BSL-1
  • Warning Signs
  • Wearing of Gown, gloves, or face shields
  • Decontamination of waste
82
Q

BSL-2 : Agents

A

Shigella
Salmonella
S.aureus
HBV
HIV

83
Q

Poses HIGH Risk
acquired through INHALATION
Aerosol transmission

A

BSL-3

84
Q

BSL-3 : Precautions

A
  • Sustainable airflow
  • Wearing of PPE
85
Q

BSL-3: Agents

A

Systemic Mycoses
M. tuberculosis
Coxiella burnetiid
St. Louis Encephalitis virus

86
Q

Poses EXTREME RISK
Causes life threatening diseases

A

BSL-4

87
Q

BSL-4: Precautions

A
  • laboratory must be situated in a different building
  • Full body PPE
88
Q

complete destruction and removal of all forms of all microbial life INCLUDING THE SPORE

A

Sterilization

89
Q

Sterilization:

Physical

A

Use of moist heat
Use of dry heat
Filtration
Ionizing radiation

90
Q

Sterilization:

Chemical

A

chemical sterilants (biocides)
- Ethylene oxide

91
Q

STERILIZATION

Physical - Moist of Heat: (3)

A

Autoclaving
Inspiration
Tyndallization

92
Q

STERILIZATION

Physical - Dry Heat: (4)

A

Oven
Cremation
Incineration
Flaming

93
Q

STERILIZATION

Physical - Filtration (3)

A

Millipore
Nucleopore
HEPA filter

94
Q

STERILIZATION

Physical - Ionizing radiation

A

exposure to gamma rays

95
Q

destruction and removal of
pathogens but not necessarily all microorganisms and their spores

A

Disinfection

96
Q

DISINFECTION

Physical (2)

A

Boiling
Pasteurization
Exposure to UV rays

97
Q

DISINFECTION

Chemical (2)

A

Disinfectant
Antiseptics

98
Q

STERILIZATION done through

A

Steam under pressure (Autoclave)

99
Q

121 deg 15-30mins 15 psi

A

sterilizing use and unused media

100
Q

121 deg 30mins 15 psi

A

for contaminated materials

101
Q

132 deg 30-60mins

A

for infectious medical waste

102
Q

protein particles causing neurological diseases in animals and man

NOT KILLED BY AUTOCLAVING

A

PRIONS

103
Q

Prions causes

A

Borine Spongiform Encelopathy
Mad Cow Disease
Creutzfeldt Jakob Syndrome

104
Q

Process to do To Eliminate Prions

A

Extended steam sterilization in
conjunction with 1M SODIUM HYPCHLORITE

105
Q

100 degC 30 mins 3 days

A

TYNDALLIZATION

106
Q

75-80 degC 2 hrs for 3 days

A

INSPISSATION

107
Q

Recommended in sterilizing media with increased
protein such as Loweinstein Jensen, Petragnani, ATS

A

INSPISSATION

108
Q

Arnold sterilizer and flowing steam

A

TYNDALLIZATION

109
Q

Thickening Through Evaporation

A

INSPISSATION

110
Q

BIOLOGICAL INDICATORS

Autoclave

A

(Geo)Bacillus stearrothermophilus

111
Q

BIOLOGICAL INDICATORS

Oven

A

Bacillus subtilis var niger

112
Q

BIOLOGICAL INDICATORS

Ionizing radiation

A

Bacillus pumilus

113
Q

BIOLOGICAL INDICATOR
Ethylene oxide

A

Bacillus subtilis var. globijii

114
Q

Standard disinfectant:

A

PHENOL

115
Q

Best to remove blood spills

A

Sodium hypochlorite

116
Q

CDC recommends ______ dilution for porous surfaces

A

1:10 dilution

117
Q

dilution for hard surfaces, smooth surfaces

A

1:100

118
Q

Disinfection contact time to remove HBV

A

10 minutes

119
Q

Disinfection contact time to remove HIV

A

2 minutes

120
Q

Commonly used antiseptic:

A

70% alcohol

121
Q

Best antiseptic

A

IODOPHOR

122
Q

Burning of infectious materials into ashes

A

INCINERATION

123
Q

Burning of body into ashes

A

CREMATION

124
Q

Incubator, water bath,
refrigerator
Freezer, heating block

A

Monitor temperature daily

125
Q

Autoclave

A

Monitor spore at least weekly

126
Q

Autoclave temperature

A

Daily

127
Q

GASPAK jar

A

Check every use

128
Q

Centrifuge function/ rpm

A

Every 6 months / monthly

129
Q

Microscopes

A

Clean and adjust objectives 4 times annually / as needed

130
Q

Weighing balance

A

Check annually

BACTERIOLOGY (25 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions