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nutrition mid term Flashcards

1
Q

Describe food

A

products derived from plants or animals that can be taken into the body to yield energy and nutrients for the maintenance of life and the growth and repair of tissue

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2
Q

what are the 11 factors that influence food choice

A
  1. personal preference/taste
  2. habit
  3. ethnic heritage or tradition
  4. social interactions
  5. availability/ convenience- economy
  6. positive/ negative associations
  7. emotional comfort
  8. athletic performance
  9. values
  10. body weight and image
  11. nutrition and health benefits
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3
Q

What is a therapeutic diet

A

a diet ordered by a physician as part of treatment for a disease or clinical condition, or to eliminate, decrease, or increase specific nutrients in the diet

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4
Q

What is: a diet ordered by a physician as part of treatment for a disease or clinical condition, or to eliminate, decrease or increase specific nutrients in the diet

A

therapeutic diet

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5
Q

what is another name for therapeutic diet

A

medical nutrition therapy

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6
Q

what is another name for medical nutrition therapy

A

therapeutic diet

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7
Q

what is: a chemical substance obtained from food and used in the body to provide energy, structural material and regulating agents to support growth, maintenance and repair of the body’s tissue

A

nutrient

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8
Q

what is a nutrient

A

a chemical substance obtained from food and used in the body to provide energy, structural material and regulating agents to support growth, maintenance and repair of the body’s tissue

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9
Q

what two forms are nutrients found in?

A

organic

inorganic

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10
Q

what is a macronutrients

A

required in large amounts because they provide the body with energy in the form of calories

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11
Q

what is a calorie

A

food energy is measure in kilocalories (kcal)

one calorie is the amount of heat necessary to raise the temperature of 1 kilogram of water 1 degree Celsius

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12
Q

what: required in large amount because they provide the body with energy in the form of calories

A

macronutrients

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13
Q

what: food energy is measure in kilocalories

one calorie is the amount of heat necessary to raise the temperature of 1 kilogram of water one degree Celsius

A

Calorie

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14
Q

how many calories in a gram of carbohydrates

A

4kcal

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15
Q

what are examples of carbohydrates

A

simple sugars, fibre and starches

bread pasta rice cereal milk fruit

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16
Q

how many calories are in a gram of protein

A

4kcal

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17
Q

what are some examples of protein

A

milk eggs legumes gains animal products

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18
Q

what is protein composed of

A

compounds composed of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen arranged into chains

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19
Q

how many calories per gram of fat

A

9kcal

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20
Q

what is fat determined by

A

a family of compounds that are insoluble in water

fats are solid at room temperature while oils are liquid

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21
Q

what are the three diet recommendations?

A

variety
moderation
wholesomeness

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22
Q

what is a great source of: B vitamins, fibre and carbs

A

Grains and starches

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23
Q

what is a great source of: fibre, carbs, water soluble vitamins and potassium

A

Fruits and Vegetables

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24
Q

What foods provide amino acids to the muscles

A

protein

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25
Q

what can simultaneously be a source of saturated fats

A

proteins

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26
Q

what is a source of: calcium, phosphorus, B vitamins and protein

A

Dairy

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27
Q

DRI

A

Dietary Reference Intake

-set of nutrient intake value

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28
Q

EAR

A

Estimated Average Requirements

-estimated to meet about 1/2 population

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29
Q

RDA

A

Recommended Dietary Allowance

-intake meets (97-98%) of healthy individuals

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30
Q

AI

A

Adequate Intake

-empirical method when RDA is unknown

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31
Q

TUL

A

Tolerance Upper Level

-max intake of a nutrient without risk

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32
Q

Harris Benedict Equation for men

A

66.5+(13,75 kg) + (5.003 * cm) - (6.775age) *AF *SF

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33
Q

Harris Benedict Equation for Women

A

655.1 + ( 9.563* kg) + (1.850cm) - (4.676age) AFSF

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34
Q

What is the acceptable range for CHO, fat and protein

A

CHO- 45-60%
Fat-20-35%
protein 10-35%

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35
Q

four main uses for nutrition facts

A
  1. easy comparison
  2. Look for specific nutrient
  3. special diet
  4. informed decisions
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36
Q

Three steps to reading a label

A

step 1: look at the amount
step 2: read the DV %
step 3: choose

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37
Q

Nutrient Claim:

Free

A

none or hardly any of this nutrient

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38
Q

nutrient claim:

low

A

a small amount

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39
Q

Nutrient Claim:

reduced

A

at least 25% less than a comparable product

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40
Q

Nutrient claim

light

A

reduced in fat or calories

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41
Q

Nutrient Claim:

Source

A

contains a significant amount of the nutrient

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42
Q

Nutrient Claim:

high or good source

A

contains a high amount of a nutrient

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43
Q

Nutrient Claim:

very high or excellent source

A

contains a very high amount of the nutrient

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44
Q

Canada’s Food guide message

A

choose foods with none or little added sugar, fat or salt

and select lean meats

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45
Q

What are the 8 stages of digestion

A
  1. mouth
  2. salivary glands
  3. pharynx
  4. esophagus
  5. stomach
  6. small intestine
  7. large intestine
  8. rectum
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46
Q

what is on the tongues surface covered with taste buds and taste pores

A

papilla

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47
Q

what does salvia contain

A

99,5% water
electrolytes [ sodium chloride, bicarbonate, potassium]
protein [ enzyme, mucus and lysozyme]

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48
Q

function of salvia

A

moistening and lubricating food
initiating carbohydrate digestion
antibacterial protection
acts as a buffer

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49
Q

approx. how many times do we swallow a day

A

600

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50
Q

what are the four stages of the swallow

A
  1. oral preparatory phase
  2. oral phase
  3. pharyngeal phase
  4. esophagus phase
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51
Q

what is involved at the oral preparatory phase

A

food chewed and mixed with saliva

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52
Q

what is involved at the oral phase

A

voluntary movement of bolus to back of oral cavity

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53
Q

what is involved at the pharyngeal phase

A

bolus directed to esophagus, uvula seals off nasal cavity

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54
Q

what is involved in the esophageal phase

A

autonomic; sphincter closes and breakdown resums

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55
Q

what are the four layers of the esophagus

A
  1. inner layer
  2. submuscosa layer
  3. muscular layer
  4. outer layer
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56
Q

what are the two sphincter of the esophagus

A

upper esophageal sphincter [ pharnygoesophageal ]

lower esophageal sphincter LES

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57
Q

where is food stored in the stomach

A

the upper portion

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58
Q

what is the semiliquid substance in which food is converted by gastric secretions

A

chyme

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59
Q

what are the two types of gastric digestion

A

mechanical digestion

chemical digestion

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60
Q

What does GERD stand for

A

gastroesophogeal reflux Disease

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61
Q

what is GERD

A

incompetence of LES; greater pressure in esophagus therefore food has the tendency to travel upwards.

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62
Q

what are the factors that decrease the pressure differential from the esophagus and the stomach in individuals that have GERD

A
  • increase in gastrin, estrogen, progesterone
  • hiatal hernia or sclerosis
  • smoking
  • medications use [ dopamine, morphine]
  • specific foods
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63
Q

symptoms of GERD

A

difficulty swallowing
heartburn
increases salivation
belching

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64
Q

treatment strategies/ goals for GERD

A
  • increase LES competence
  • decrease acidity of gastric contents [ use of medication and nutrition therapy]
  • improve clearance of esophagus
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65
Q

What are some symptoms of Dysphagia

A

CVA, Parkinson’s disease, stroke, MS, muscular dystrophy, Huntington’s disease, chemotherapy

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66
Q

What is a common side affect of dysphagia

A

aspiration where oropharygeal contents are inhaled into lungs aspiration pneumonia secondary to bacterial overgrowth

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67
Q

what is a treatment for dysphagia

A

eating thinker liquid foods so there is time for the body to react and digest the food slower, and allow for the epiglottis to properly direct the bolus

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68
Q

what are the three main land marks of the small intestines

A

duodenum
jejunum
ileum

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69
Q

what stimulates the release of pancreatic and gall bladder secretions in the small intestines

A

cholecystokinin
gastrin
secretin

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70
Q

how does the pancreatic juices enter the small intestine

A

pancreatic bile ducts

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71
Q

what are the two aspects of the pancreatic juices

A

bicarb

enzymes

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72
Q

what does a bicarb do

A

neutralizes the pH

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73
Q

what does the enzymes in the pancreatic juices do

A
  • protein breakdown: trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypeptinases and elastase
  • carbohydrate breakdown: amylase
  • lipid breakdown: pancreatic lipase and colipae
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74
Q

what kind of contraction is peristalsis

A

longitudinal so it makes bulges

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75
Q

what kind of contractions is segmental

A

circular muscle. creates a pinch

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76
Q

what are on the folds of the small intestines

A

villi and on that microvilli

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77
Q

what are the three ways of nutrient absorption

A
  1. simple diffusion
  2. facilitated diffusion
  3. active transport
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78
Q

Three main areas of large intestines

A

ascending, transverse, descending

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79
Q

what are the segmentations of the large intestines called

A

hustration

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80
Q

what are the small sacs on the large intestines called

A

hustra

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81
Q

what does the hustra have in the sacs

A

chyme as it mixes with the colon secretions

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82
Q

what is propulsion

A

alternating waves of relaxation and contraction of smooth m.

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83
Q

what is mass movement

A

significant contraction of a large portion of intestinal contents along colon

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84
Q

what is defecation

A

rectum relaxes the anal sphincter

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85
Q

How long does absorption take to start after the food is consumed

A

4 hours

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86
Q

When you have celiac disease what layer of the intestine is damaged

A

mucosa layer

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87
Q

what is the treatment for celiac disease

A

limit gluten in diet

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88
Q

what does carbo mean

A

carbon

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89
Q

what does hydrate mean

A

water

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90
Q

what is the primary nutrient for the brain and nervous system

A

carbohydrates

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91
Q

is CHO a high or low density source of energy

A

low

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92
Q

what is a complex carbohydrate

A

long chains of sugar units arranged to form starch or fibre

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93
Q

what is the process called that plants create CHO

A

photosynthesis

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94
Q

what are the two components in which glucose is created by

A

CO2 and H2O

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95
Q

what is a simple sugar

A

basic sugar molecule contains 6 carbons with oxygen and hydrogen

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96
Q

what is a monosaccharide

A

single sugar unit

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97
Q

what is a disaccharide

A

double sugar unit

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98
Q

what are the three types of monosaccharide’s

A

glucose
fructose
galactose

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99
Q

where is fructose found

A

fruits

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100
Q

where is galactose found

A

milk products

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101
Q

what are the three disaccharide’s

A

lactose
maltose
sucrose

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102
Q

what two monosaccharide’s make up lactose

A

glucose and galactose

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103
Q

what two monosaccharide’s make up maltose

A

glucose and glucose

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104
Q

what two monosaccharide’s make up sucrose

A

glucose and fructose

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105
Q

what needs to breakdown before absorption can occur

A

disaccharides, by enzymes

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106
Q

all monosaccharide’s are converted to glucose by?

A

the liver

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107
Q

what enzyme breaks down disaccharides to monosaccharide’s

A

disaccarideases

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108
Q

how is glucose and galactose absorbed

A

active transport

109
Q

how is fructose absorbed

A

facilitated diffusion

110
Q

the three polysaccharides

A

starch
glycogen
fibre

111
Q

where is starch found

A

plants

112
Q

where is glycogen found

A

animals

113
Q

list the polysaccharides in order starting with most branched

A

glycogen
starch
fibre

114
Q

what is an example of an insoluble fibre

A

cellulose and hemicellulose

115
Q

benefits to a fibre rich diet

A 
norm blood cholesterol concentrations 
modulate blood sugar
maintains healthy bowel function 
healthy body weight
complex CHO protect against heart disease and stroke
viscous fibres lower cholesterol level
116
Q

true or false soluble fibres prevent large fluctuations of blood glucose

A

true

117
Q

what is the glycemic index

A

ranking of how quickly a food rises blood glucose and corresponding insulin results
there are many factors affecting the rank so it is hard to predict

118
Q

what is the glycemic load

A

evaluation of amount eaten at one time

119
Q

what would a high butyrate [SCFA] high diet protect against

A

colon injuries

120
Q

Fermentation of fibre in large bowels yields what

A

short chain fatty acids [SCFA]

121
Q

fibre helps maintain a healthy body weight because it is generally low in

A

saturated fats and added sugars

122
Q

fibre helps maintain a healthy body weight because you feel

A

full for a longer time, because the gastric emptying is delayed

123
Q

what are the three main fibre cautions

A
  1. too much fibre and not an adequate amount of fibre will cause bowel blockage
  2. fibre acts as a chelating agent [ binding with minerals such as iron zinc and calcium]
  3. fibre is avoided by people with marginal intake and those at risk of malnutrition
124
Q

what is the recommended serving of fibre

A

14g of fibre/1000kcal

125
Q

how much CHO is needed to feed the brain every day

A

130g

126
Q

when there is an inadequate amount of glucose for the body to break down what does it break down the in process of glycogenesis

A

protein

127
Q

without adequate amount of CHO what is produced that throws off the acidity balance

A

Ketones

128
Q

what can chronic ketones cause

A
  • vitamins and mineral disturbance
  • bone loss
  • altered blood lipids
  • kidney stones
  • scant glycogen stores
129
Q

how much glycogen does the liver store

A

60-120g [240-480kcals]

130
Q

what percent glycogen is stored in the average persons skeletal muscle fibres

A

1%

131
Q

how much glycogen does is stored in muscles

A

200-500g [800-2000kcal]

132
Q

what percent of our glycogen is stored in out muscles

A

66%

133
Q

when blood glucose levels are low what breaks down glycogen from the muscles and liver

A

glucagon

134
Q

true or false: due to the highly branched nature of glycogen glucagon acts slowly to release glucose into the blood stream

A

false, because it is branched it acts quickly because there is an attachment site on each branch

135
Q

CHO before exercise

A

3-4 hours

136
Q

why would someone want to consume CHO before exercise

A

max. glycogen stress at the onset of exercise

allow athletes to start in a hyperglycemic state

137
Q

CHO 30 minutes before exercise puts the athlete in what state

A

hypoglycemic state

138
Q

true or false high glycemic index foods allow for rapid recovery

A

true

139
Q

what is glycogen loading

A

max. stores of glycogen at onset of exercise

140
Q

true of false: increase in secrum glucose results in decrease secrum insulin

A

false it would cause an increase in secrum insulin

141
Q

what are the two concerns with fibre intake before exercise

A
  1. produce gas, bloating and abdominal pains

2. undigested CHO increase mass of stool in colon

142
Q

Approx what Is the general intake recommendation of CHO

A

6-10g/kg

143
Q

how many people are living with diabetes and are unaware

A

1/2

144
Q

what is type 1 diabetes also known as

A

insulin dependent diabetes mellitus

145
Q

what type of diabetes is the own person immune system attacks the cells of the pancreas

A

type 1

146
Q

what is the leading chronic disease among children and adolescents

A

type 1 diabetes

147
Q

what time of diabetes does the blood glucose level remain high while the muscles and tissue are starved for glucose

A

type 1

148
Q

what is type two diabetes known as

A

insulin resistant

149
Q

what type of diabetes can be managed with medications

A

type 2

150
Q

how many veg servings are recommended for diabetics

A

5+

151
Q

how many fruit servings are recommended for diabetics

A

3

152
Q

how many grain and starch servings for diabetics

A

6-8

153
Q

how many milk and alternative for diabetics

A

2-3

154
Q

how many meat and alternatives for diabetics

A

4-8

155
Q

how much fat and oil recommended for diabetics

A

moderation

156
Q

what are the three lipids found

A
  1. triglycerides
  2. phospholipids
  3. sterols
157
Q

true or false fat is necessary in a healthy diet

A

true

158
Q

what contains a higher level of energy CHO or fat

A

fat has twice the amount of energy than CHO

159
Q

what is: FFA usually incorporated into a complex compound

A

triglycerides

160
Q

what are the three FFA acids attached to in a triglyceride

A

glycerol molecule

161
Q

true or false all the FFA on the glycerol molecule is always the same length

A

false it can differ by saturation

162
Q

how are triglycerides formed?

A

endogenously but dietary intake can influence their composition

163
Q

what does saturated refer to

A

hydrogenation of FFA

max. hydrogen part of FFA= saturated

164
Q

when does the point of unsaturation occur

A

when a carbon does not contain a max H.

165
Q

what are common sources of unsaturated fats

A

plants and fish

166
Q

what is it called when there is only one point of unsaturation

A

monosaturated fatty acid [MUFA]

167
Q

what is it called when there is two plus points of unsaturation

A

polyunsaturated fatty acid [PUFA]

168
Q

how are fatty acids named

A

based on the location of the first double bond

169
Q

what is the transports of fat

A

lipoprotein

170
Q

what are the four lipoproteins

A
  1. chylomicron
  2. VLDL
  3. LDL
  4. HDL
171
Q

what are the chylomicrons

A

within the intestinal cells, monoglycerides and LCFA[long chain fatty acids] are re-packed into triglycerides and combined with protein and phospholipids

172
Q

how do LCFA and monoglycerides travel the blood stream

A

via chylomicron

173
Q

true or false as the chylomicron pass through the body tissues are able to remove needed components

A

true

174
Q

what does the apolipoprotein portion of the chylomicron do

A

provides structural support, cellular recognition and binding

175
Q

what is larger LDL or HDL

A

LDL

176
Q

what is higher in cholesterol LDL or HDL

A

LDL

177
Q

what is higher in protein LDL or HDL

A

HDL

178
Q

does LDL or HDL deliver cholesterol from the liver to the tissues

A

LDL

179
Q

does LDL or HDL scavenge cholesterol and return it to the liver

A

HDL

180
Q

what is the risk of heart attack and atherosclerosis is closely related to ____elevated levels

A

LDL

181
Q

consumption of trans fat raises____ and lowers___

A

raises LDL

lowers HDL

182
Q

what is dyslipidemia

A

a lipid profile that increase the risk of atherosclerotic development
condition with increased LDL and decreased HDL

183
Q

individuals with dyslipidemia should follow what dietary recommendations

A

avoid saturated fat, trans fat, and dietary cholesterol [no more than 10% sat a day]
include unsaturated fats
choose lean meats

184
Q

what are the three ways in which fatty acids differ

A
  1. length
  2. saturation
  3. shape
185
Q

what are the two ends of a fatty acid

A
  1. methyl [ 3 H]

2. acid end [ double bond with O and a OH group]

186
Q

How many carbon, double bonds, saturation and common food sources in stearic acid

A

18 carbons
0 double bonds
saturated
animal fats

187
Q

how many carbons, double bonds, saturation and common food sources for oleic acid

A

18 carbons
1 double bond
monounsaturated
olive and canola oils

188
Q

how many carbons, double bonds, saturation and common food sources for linoleic acid

A

18 carbons
2 double bonds
polyunsaturated
sunflower, safflower, corn soybeans

189
Q

how many carbons, double bonds, saturation and common food sources for linolenic acid

A

18 carbons
3 double bonds
polyunsaturated
soybeans, canola, flax and walnuts

190
Q

what is linoleic acid also known as

A

omega 6

191
Q

What is linolenic acid known as

A

omega 3

192
Q

where are the double bonds on the linoleic acid

A

carbon 6 and 9

193
Q

where are the double bonds on the linolenic acid

A

carbons 3, 6 and 9

194
Q

how much linoleic acid is recommended each day for both genders

A

17g/day Men [approx. intake 14g/day]

12g/day Women [approx. intake 9.5g/day]

195
Q

how much linolenic acid is recommended each day for both genders

A
  1. 6g/day Men [approx. intake 2.5g/day]

1. 1g/day Women [approx. intake 1.5g/day]

196
Q

what acid is used to synthesis arachadonic acid

A

linoleic acid

197
Q

what does arachadonic acid make

A

eicosanoids

198
Q

what do eicosanoids act like

A

hormones and mediate inflammation

199
Q

what are the sources of arachadonic acid

A

vegetables

200
Q

linolenic acid is used to synthesis what two acids

A

EPA- eciosapentarnoic acid

DHA- docosahexaenoic acid

201
Q

true or false linoleic acid increases triglycerides synthesis and VLDL

A

false it decreases it

202
Q

omega 3 is thought of as being…

A

anti-inflammatory

203
Q

omega 6 is thought of as being…

A

pro-inflammatory

204
Q

fish supplements may interfere with…

A

bleeding and coagulation time and may suppress immune system

205
Q

true or false fish supplements can contain harmful toxins such a mercury

A

true

206
Q

catabolic hormones are elevated when____ levels are low

A

insulin

207
Q

FFA usage is promoted by hormones associated with exercise and fasting:

A

glucagon, epinephrine, cortisol

adrenicortictrpic hormones, thyroid stimulating hormone, growth hormone

208
Q

during exercise where does FA come from

A

within the muscle cell of the circulation

209
Q

FA from adipose tissue

circulation TG are dependent on two factors:

A
  1. rate of lipolysis

2. association of FFA with albumin

210
Q

true of false during endurance exercise the relative contribution made by fat to muscle fuel decreases with increased intensity

A

true

211
Q

what us the most import stimulator of lipolysis during exercise

A

catecholamine’s

212
Q

what are the three catecholamine’s

A

epinephrine
cortisol
glucagon

213
Q

how does cortisol influence hormone levels

A

stimulates HSL[hormone sensitive lipase] during higher intensity longer duration exercise

214
Q

how does glucagon influence hormone levels

A

increase in HSL if blood glucose levels drop during exercise

215
Q

what is the inhibitor of HSL

A

insulin

216
Q

when is max lipolysis occur

A

moderate-high intensity submaximal exercise when increased levels of catecholamine’s are present with a blunting of insulin released

217
Q

does glucose undergo some anaerobic metabolism

A

yes

218
Q

what is the explanation of decrease in FA use with increasing intensity

A

due to m. contraction, BP increasing which increases CO to the lungs for oxygenation

219
Q

what two FA form circulating lipoprotein

A

chylomicron

VLDL

220
Q

is chylomicron or VLDL available during exercise

A

VLDL

221
Q

muscle adaption in response to ________ training by increasing _______ capabilities which increases_____ and decreases _____ use during exercise

A

cardiorespiratory
oxidative
fat
glycogen

222
Q

how does regular cardiorespiratory training affect LDL and HDL

A

increase HDL and total cholesterol

decrease LDL

223
Q

chronic elevation in BP is called

A

hypertension

224
Q

what measurement is BP expressed in

A

mmHg

225
Q

what are the two measurements of BP

A

systolic

diastolic

226
Q

what is the desired BP

A

120/80mmHg

227
Q

what is known as the silent killer

A

hypertension

228
Q

Hypertension can cause:

A 
kidney disease
congestive heart failure 
myocardial infarction 
stroke
aneurysm
229
Q

what is the origin of high vasopressin

A

hypothalamus

230
Q

hypertension is a result of increased______&______

A

vasopressin

angiotensin II

231
Q

common causes of hypertension

A

smoking
neurological disease
adrenal disorder

232
Q

lifestyle changes for HTN

A

increase in PA
smoking cessation
nutrition adjustments
weight loss

233
Q

nutritional interventions for HTN

A

sodium decrease to 2300mg/day
ETOH 2d/day Men 1d/day Women
Potassium, calcium, Magnesium- reduce BP
4-6 potassium per day

234
Q

what is the key difference between CHO and fats with protein

A

amino acid

235
Q

how many different kinds of amino acids are there

A

20

236
Q

true or false all amino acids contain the same backbone

A 
true:
carbon 
amine 
acid group
side chain
237
Q

how do amino acids connect together

A

peptide bonds

238
Q

what are the three AA

A

dipeptides
tripepides
polypeptides

239
Q

two varieties of protein

A

globular shape

protein strands can function alone or in networks

240
Q

what is the protein shape called with 4 associated strands

A

hemoglobin

241
Q

what changes the protein shape and loss of function

A 
heat 
acid 
base 
alcohol 
heavy metal 
agitation
242
Q

what breaks down protein in stomach

A

HCL hydrochloric acid

243
Q

what cleaves proteins to smaller polypeptides and some free amino acids

A

pepsin

244
Q

in small intestines what does polypepides get broken down into

A

tripeptides
dipeptides
amino acids

245
Q

once protein is in the blood stream where is it transported

A

liver

246
Q

what are the 7 functions of proteins

A
  1. growth and maintenance
  2. enzymes and hormone
  3. antibodies
  4. fluid electrolytes balance
  5. acid and base balance
  6. blood clotting
  7. protein for energy
247
Q

what does protein growth and maintain include

A

protein turnover

continuous breakdown and synthesis of body protein involving the recycling of amino acids

248
Q

what does protein enzyme and hormones include

A

facilitate chemical raxns/ regulates internal environment

249
Q

what does protein antibodies include

A

protein in blood recognizes foreign proteins

250
Q

what does protein fluid electrolytes balance include

A

albumin maintains oncotic pressure and prevents edema

251
Q

what does protein acid and base balance include

A

acts as a buffer to maintain pH

252
Q

what does protein blood clotting include

A

trap platelets

253
Q

what does protein for energy include

A

protein break down
FA cannot be converted into glucose
no protein storage

254
Q

what does the NS NEED

A

glucose

255
Q

what can be adapted by the CNS for energy

A

ketosis

256
Q

what are the concerns with ketones

A 
elevated lipid levels
rapid weight loss 
insulin limits skeletal m. breakdown 
increase in urea excretion from kidneys 
high obesity with high fat diets
257
Q

AA in a cell is used to:

A

build protein

convert to other AA or small Nitrogen containing compounds

258
Q

AA striped of N:

A

burned as fuel

converted to glucose and fat

259
Q

AA wasted when:

A

energy is lacking
protein is over abundant
quality of protein is low

260
Q

Protein quality for plants and animals %

A

plants 70-90%

animal 90-99%

261
Q

true or false: if essential amino acids are missing, body must dismantle its own proteins to obtain it

A

true

262
Q

by limiting AA limits_____________

A

protein synthesis

263
Q

what is a more complete protein source animals or plants

A

animals

264
Q

complimentary proteins means

A

combining incomplete plant sources to create array of AA ex. legumes and grains

265
Q

what does PDCAAS sound for

A

protein digestibility-corrected amino acid score

scale of 0-100 on protein quality

266
Q

what is concerned 100 on the PDCAAS

A

egg whites
tuna
chicken
ground beef

267
Q

what is PEM

A

protein energy malnutrition

- inadequate intake of protein and calories

268
Q

what is Marasmus

A
  • overall inadequate diet

- lean

269
Q

what is kwashiorkor

A
  • edema and swollen belly

- protein inadequacy

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