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Musculoskeletal injuries 2 final Flashcards

1
Q

what is tylenol?

A

acetaminophen

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2
Q

what is the purpose of acetaminophen?

A

reduce pain and fever

NOT ANTI INFLAMMATORY OR ANTI PLATELET

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3
Q

what are the two most common analgestics and antipyretics

A

acetaminophen (tylenol) & Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin)

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4
Q

what is aspirin?

A

acetylsalicylic acid

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5
Q

what is the purpose of acetylsalicylic acid?

A
  • anti platelet properties (blood thinning)

- anti- inflammatory

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6
Q

what are common side affects of acetylsalicylic acid?

A
  • gastrointestinal bleeding
  • nausea
  • vomiting
  • gastric ulcers
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7
Q

if a child has aspirin what disease to the risk developing?

A

ryes syndrome

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8
Q

what is advil?

A

NSAIDs

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9
Q

_____ like drug that reduced inflammation?

A

aspirin

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10
Q

what does advil do?

A

reduce:

  • pain
  • fever
  • anti-inflammatory
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11
Q

is an advil (NSAIDs) safer to take than aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid)

A

advil is safer

-lacks the gastrointestinal and hemorrhagic effects

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12
Q

what are common side affects of NSAIDs?

A
  • gastrointestinal irritation
  • cardiovascular complications
  • renal impairment
  • hypersensitivity reactions to toxicity
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13
Q

what is corticosteroids purpose?

A

-decrease swelling, warmth, redness and pain

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14
Q

____ is used to inhibit inflammation

A

corticosteriods

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15
Q

what are some common side effects of corticosteroids

A
  • itching
  • burning
  • dry skin
  • fluid retention
  • increase or decrease appetite
  • dizziness
  • restlessness
  • facial or body hair growth
  • gastrointestinal irrational
  • menstrual irregularities
  • optic pain
  • decrees in body’s immune
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16
Q

what conditions should not be used with corticosteroids

A
  • HIV or AIDS
  • heart disease
  • hypertension
  • diabetes
  • gastritis
  • peptic ulcer
  • lupus
  • bronchitis
  • flu
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17
Q

what does a local anesthetic do?

A

inhibits the sensory nerve receptors in the skin, to reduce pain or itching

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18
Q

what are some examples of a local anesthetic

A

-ben gay
-absorbine junior
-lanacaine
eyolcaine or fluromethane

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19
Q

what is the purpose of a muscle relaxant?

A

blocking the afferent messages that travel from the muscles to the brain. resulting in decrease pain, muscle spasm and tenderness.

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20
Q

what are common side effects of muscle relaxants?

A

dizziness
drawsiness
tenderness

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21
Q

what are some examples of muscle relaxants?

A

flexoril
robaxin
norflex

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22
Q

what is polysporin considered?

A

topical antibiotics

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23
Q

what is the purpose for topical antibiotics?

A

kill disease producing bacteria such as strepococcus or staphylococcus. Therefore used to prevent and treat infection

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24
Q

what is hydrogen peroxided?

A

antiseptics and disinfectants

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25
Q

what is the purpose of antiseptics and disinfectants

A

antiseptics- stops the growth of micro-organisms or bacteria (alcohol)
disinfectant- chemical agents applied to non living Vira Quat or Iso Quin

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26
Q

what is the purpose of an antifungal agent?

A

treat infects caused by fungal cells (in humans often mold or yeast)

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27
Q

what are common side effects for antifungal agents?

A

worsen of condition
increase redness
itching of the area

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28
Q

what is pulmonary contusion?

A

crushing injury to the tissue of the lungs as a results of a direct blow to the area

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29
Q

what is the clinical presentation for a pulmonary contusion? (4)

A
  • difficulty breathing
  • chest pain
  • hemoptysis (spitting up blood)
  • diagnosis requires a CT scan or an x-ray
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30
Q

what is common referred to as a collapsed lung?

A

pneumothorax

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31
Q

what is a pneumothorax

A

(collapsed lung)

air becomes trapped in the pleural space if the lung causing a porting of the lung to collapse

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32
Q

what are the three common causes for pneumothorax?

A
  • traumatic injury
  • fractured rib
  • spontaneously after strenuous physical activity
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33
Q

what are the clinical presentations for pneumothroax? (8)

A
  • shortness of breath
  • severe chest pain
  • asymmetrical chest expansion
  • confusion
  • fatigue
  • anxiety
  • restlessness
  • referred pain to the TIP OF THE SHOULDER
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34
Q

during the hyperextension phase of whiplash what type of injury may results to the trachea or larynx

A

contusion

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35
Q

what is the clinical presentation of a contusion of the trachea or larynx? (8)

A
  • hoarseness or loss of voice
  • shortness of breath
  • cyanosis or acute respiratory distress
  • blood tinged sputum
  • difficulty swallowing
  • palpable tenderness
  • bruising and redness
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36
Q

what is the most common ribs to fracture?

A

ribs 4-9

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37
Q

what is the clinical presentation for sternal or rib fracture? (9)

A
  • leaning towards fractured side
  • localized bruising and swelling
  • step deformity
  • palpable pain and crepitus
  • increased pain on inspiration
  • increase pain with trunk rotation and side flexion
  • shallow breathing
  • rapid and weak pulse
  • low blood pressure
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38
Q

what is solar plexus contusion

A

a diaphragmatic spasm and stimulation of a parasympathetic nervous system (getting the wind knocked out of you). common a result of a blow to the abdomen when muscles are relaxed

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39
Q

what are the clinical presentation for a intra-abdominal injury(11)

A
  • abdominal pain (mild then rapidly increases in severity)
  • referred pain to TIP OF THE SHOULDER, BACK OR GROIN REGION
  • nausea
  • weakness
  • thirst
  • may lean forward with knees to their chest
  • shallow breathing
  • coughing up or vomiting blood that looks like coffee grounds
  • diffuse hemorrhage or distension of the abdomen
  • palpable tenderness or rigidity over injured organ
  • cramps or muscles guarding
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40
Q

what area of the abdomen needs to take a blow to get a splenic rupture?

A

left upper abdominal quadrant

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41
Q

what is the clinical representation of a splenic rupture?(6)

A
  • history or blunt trauma to region
  • sharp pain initially followed by a constant dull pain
  • referred pain to LEFT SHOULDER (Kehr’s sign)
  • cold and clammy
  • signs of shock evident
  • nausea and vomiting
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42
Q

what is known as Kehr’s sign?

A

referred pain to the left shoulder

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43
Q

what abdominal quadrant needs to take a blow for a liver contusion or rupture?

A

upper right

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44
Q

what are the clinical presentations for liver contusion and rupture? (3)

A
  • hypotension
  • signs of shock
  • referred pain to the RIGHT INFERIOR OF THE SCAPULA
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45
Q

for a kidney contusion and rupture where is the referred pain?

A

left anterior abdomen and sides of buttocks and blood in the urine

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46
Q

inflammation of the appendix which can lead to ___ and ____

A

ischemia

gangrene

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47
Q

what the appendix ruptures feces and bacteria are sprayed over the abdominal content resulting in___

A

peritonitis (can cause organ shut down with months in the hospital)

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48
Q

what are the clinical presentation for appendicitis? (6)

A
  • abdominal pain in the right lower quadrant
  • loss of appetite
  • nausea
  • vomiting
  • low grade fever
  • rebound pain on palpation of McBurney’s point (use lilac crest for finding the site)
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49
Q

what is a hernia

A

a protrusion of the abdominal viscera through the weakened abdominal wall

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50
Q

what are the clinical presentation for a hernia?(5)

A
  • subjective aching in the groin region that increases with coughing
  • visible swelling in the groin region
  • palpable tenderness in the groin region
  • invagination of the scrotum increases pain
  • sport hernia- only pops out during activities
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51
Q

what are the six causes of sudden death in athletes?

A
  • hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
  • mitral valve prolapse
  • myocarditis
  • acquired valvular heart disease
  • coronary artery disease
  • drug abuse-cocaine
52
Q

what is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

abnormal thickening of the LEFT VENTRICLE wall that leads to electrical problems and abnormal hearth rhythms

53
Q

what is auricular hematoma commonly referred to as?

A

cauliflower ear

54
Q

how does a auricular hematoma develop?

A

blunt trauma pulls the cartilage away from the perichondrium resulting in a hematoma

55
Q

what are the clinical presentations for a detached retina?(3)

A
  • floaters in the visual field
  • light flashes in the visual field
  • the sensation that a curtain fell over their eye
56
Q

What is RA (rheumatoid arthritis)

A

a chronic systemic inflammation disorder and usually symmetric inflammation of the peripheral joints and progressive destruction of the articular and peri articular structures.

57
Q

what are the 5 steps of developing RA?

A
  1. immune complex becomes activated
  2. migration of the polymorphonuclear leukocytes into the joint. these phagocytes release enzymes that cause synovitis
  3. synovial tissue is infiltrated with lymphocytes and plasma cells
  4. proliferation of the vascular connective tissue in the synovium
  5. inflamed synoival tissue then release pannus that causes the destruction of the articular cartilage and subchondral bone
58
Q

what are the clinical presentations for RA? (8)

A
  • pain and swelling in multiple joints
  • symmetric involvement of the small joints
  • morning stiffness greater than 30 minutes
  • low endurance and muscular weakness
  • joint deformity and resultant instability
  • nodule over pressure areas
  • anorexia
59
Q

what are three categories of associated complications for RA?

A
  • cardiovascular
  • respiratory
  • neurological
60
Q

what are 3 cardiovascular associated complicated with RA

A
  • iron deficiency anemia
  • pericarditis
  • vasculitis
61
Q

what are 3 respiratory assoicated complicated with RA

A
  • pleuritis
  • pleural effusion
  • fibrosis of the lungs
62
Q

what is 1 neurological associated complication with RA

A

-neuropathies

63
Q

what is the first line of defense against RA (drug)

A

NSAIDs (advil)

  • anti inflammatory
  • major side effect is gastrointestinal dysfunction
64
Q

what is the aim of drug treatments for RA?

A
  • decrease pain
  • decrease inflammation
  • minimize side effects
65
Q

what is the aim of other treatments for RA?

A
  • to restore and maintain strength, mobility and function fo daily tasks
  • rest
  • appropriate nutrition
  • thermotherapy and cryotherapy
  • TENS
  • splints to immobilize and protect the joints
  • stretching and strengthening exercises
  • surgery
66
Q

what is OA (osteoarthritis)

A

a disorder pf the hyaline cartilage, subcondral bone and associated tissues in which these tissues become hypertrophic

67
Q

what is the clinical presentation for OA? (7)

A
  • initially OA is non inflammatory and the onset is subtle and gradual
  • usually involves only one or few joints
  • joint pain is the first symptom
  • stiffness in the morning or following inactivity 15-30 mins
  • decreased ROM
  • crepitus and grating
  • joint enlargement (40+)
68
Q

what is the treatment for OA?

A
  • education
  • stretching and strengthening exercises
  • thermotherapy and cryotherapy
  • ultrasound, TENS and interferential current
  • drug therapy (aspirin, NSAIDs and muscle relaxants
  • surgery
69
Q

what is systemic lupus erythomatous (SLE)?

A

an inflammatory connective tissue disorder occurring predominately in young women and children.

70
Q

what is the clinical presentation for SLE? (11)

A
  • joint pain swelling and stiffness
  • muscular fatigue and weakness
  • butterfly rash on face
  • chronic low grade fever and frequent infections
  • mouth sores and sore throat
  • decreased appetite and weight loss
  • hair loss
  • sensitivity to sun
  • heart, lung and kidney may be affected
  • nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain
  • raynaud’s phenomenon
71
Q

what is the treatment for SLE?

A

difficult to treat due to the unpredictable clinical presentation
-drug therapy works for some people

72
Q

what is anklyosing spondylitis also known as

A

bamboo spine- frozen spine

73
Q

what is anklyosing spondylitis

A

ossification of insertion sites of ligaments, tendons and the intervertebral discs leading to joint destruction and erosion

74
Q

what gene is linked to anklyosing spondylitis

A

HLA B27 gene

75
Q

what is the clinical presentation of anklyosing spondylitis ? (6)

A
  • loss of mobility (spinal motion and chest expansion)
  • morning stiffness
  • persistent joint aching
  • joint swelling
  • sacroilitis
  • iritis (eye swelling, visual disturbances)
76
Q

what is the treatment for anklyosing spondylitis

A
  • posture correction
  • joint mobilization
  • exercises such as swimming, cycling and walking
77
Q

what is gout?

A

defect of purine metabolisms that results in hypericemia and the disposition of intra articular uric acid crystals

78
Q

what is osteoporosis?

A

a decrease in bone density results in the occurrence of fractures

79
Q

what is the clinical presentation for osteoporosis? (5)

A
  • spontaneous pain follwing exertion or minor trauma
  • increased opain with weight bearing
  • dowagers hump or kyphosis
  • decreased height secondary to anterior wedging of teh vertebrae
  • ribs often rest on iliac crest
80
Q

what is the treatment for osteoporosis?

A
  • weight bearing exercises but avoid exercises that involve twisting or explosive movements
  • adequate calcium and vitamin D intake
  • hormone replacement therapy
81
Q

what is osteogenesis imperfecta

A

cogenital form of osteorosis that is caused by an autosomal dominate gene that affects the body’s production of collagen

82
Q

what is the clinical presentation for osteogenesis imperfecta? (5)

A
  • high incidenece of fractures
  • hypermobility and low muscle tone
  • blue/purple sclera (whites of eyes)
  • brittle teeth
  • hearing loss
83
Q

what is the treatment for osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

-directed towards preventing or controlling symptoms and maximizing mobility and developing optimal bone mass and muscle strength

84
Q

what is horner’s syndrome?

A

a sinking in the eyeball, dropping of the supper eye lide

85
Q

what is grade 1 whiplash?

A

complain of pain, stiffness and tenderness only. no physical signs upper quad scan all comes back negative

86
Q

what is grade 2 whiplash?

A

complains of pain and musculoskeletal signs present including decreased ROM and point tenderness -nerves not involved

87
Q

what is grade 3 whiplash?

A

complains of pain and neurological signs present including decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes, weakness and sensory deficits

88
Q

what is grade 4 whiplash?

A

complains of pain and a fracture or dislocation is present

89
Q

what is acute torticollis?

A
  • sudden onset of neck pain and stiffness upon awakening
  • can be caused by sudden rotation of the cervical spine
  • subluxation of teh facet or uncinated process often occurring at C2-3
90
Q

what is it called when a child (5-7yrs) has torticollis

A

Grisel’s syndrome

91
Q

what is Grisel’s syndrome

A

subluxation of the atlas commonly due to a respiratory tract infection. need antibiotics, not traction.

92
Q

what range is a cervical disc derangement most common?

A

C5-C7

93
Q

what is the main symptom for cervical spinal stenosis?

A

no neck pain

arm symptoms

94
Q

where do supratentorial lesions occur?

A

above the tentorium cerebelli

95
Q

what does the left hemisphere of the brain control? (4)

A
  • logical thinking ability
  • analytical skills
  • other intellectual abilities
  • communication skills
96
Q

what does the right hemisphere of the brain control? (4) in juried

A
  • lack of appreciation for music and art
  • behavioral problems
  • spatial orientation and recognition of relationships may be deficient
  • self care deficits
97
Q

what is a vegetative state? (3)

A
  • loss of awareness and mental capabilities
  • result of diffuse brain damage
  • brainsteam function continues
98
Q

what is lock-in syndrome

A

individual is aware and capable of thinking but is paralyzed and cannot communicate

99
Q

damage in the upper motor neurons (brain) would cause a problem where in the body?

A

contralateral side

100
Q

damage to the lower motor neurons (peripheral) would cause a problem where in the body?

A

same side

101
Q

what is decorticate rigidity

A

flexed response

someone with brain damage may have this response

102
Q

what is decerbrate rigidity

A

extended response

103
Q

what is hemianopia

A

visual loss

104
Q

what is aphasia

A

inability to comprehend or express language

105
Q

what is expressive (motor) aphasia

A
  • impaired ability to speak or write fluently or appropriately
  • occurs in the BROCA’S AREA in the dominate FRONTAL LOBE
106
Q

what is receptive (sensory) aphasia

A

inability to read or understand the spoken words

results of damage to the WERNICKE’S AREA in the left TEMPORAL LOBE

107
Q

what is global aphasia

A

-damage to both areas. Broca’s area and wernicke’s area

108
Q

what is dysarthria

A

cannot articulate words clearly

109
Q

what is agraphia

A

impaired writing ability

110
Q

what is alexia?

A

impaired reading ability

111
Q

what is agnosia?

A

loss of recognition or association

112
Q

what is lethargy

A

decreasing level of consciousness or decreased responsiveness

113
Q

what is a TIA?

A

transient ischemic attacks (mini stroke)

114
Q

what is are the signs and symptoms of TIA?(5)

A
  • related to the location of ischemia
  • intermittent short episodes of impairment function (muscle weakness in arm or leg)
  • visual disturbances
  • numbness and paresthesia in face
  • transient aphasia or confusion may develop
115
Q

what is a CVA

A

cerebral vascular accident -(stroke)

116
Q

CVA s a infraction of the brain tissue that results from lack of blood caused by: (2)

A
  • occlusion of a cerebral blood vessel

- rupture of cerebral

117
Q

___ mins of ischemia causes irreversible nerve cell damage

A

5

118
Q

what are the 3 types of CVAs?

A

ischemic stroke
embolic stroke
hemorrhagic stroke

119
Q

what is a ischemic stroke?

A

occulsion of an artery by antheroma (plaque) that often develops in large arteries

120
Q

what is an embolic stroke?

A

sudden obstruction caused by an embolus (blockage) lodging in a cerebral artery

121
Q

what is a hemorrhagic stroke?

A

intra-cerebral hemorrhage caused by the rupture of a cerebral artery in patients with severe hypertension (effects both sides of the brain)

122
Q

what are some risk factors for CVAs?

A
  • diabetes, hypertension, SLE, atherosclerosis, history of TIAs, obstructive sleep apnea, heart disease, smoking, sedentary lifestyle
  • increasing age
  • congenital malformation of blood vessels
123
Q

what are the signs and symptoms for a CVA? (4)

A
  • depends on location & size of artery
  • lack of voluntary movements of sensation on opposite side of the body
  • initially flaccid paralysis
  • spastic paralysis develops weeks later
124
Q

for ischemia strokes when should they be treated by?

A

60mins to get the medication

125
Q

where is a cerebral aneurysm usually located?

A

at the points of bifurcation on the circle of willis

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