NMB's Flashcards

1
Q

which subunits must be occupied to open the nicotinic receptor at the motor end plate

A

alpha and alpha (either by Ach or succ)

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2
Q

2 types of NachR’s at NMJ

A
  1. pre junctional Nn receptors present on presynaptic nerve
  2. post synaptic Nm receptors present on motor end plate of muscle
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3
Q

subunits on post synaptic nicotinic (Nm) receptor

A

2 alpha, 1 beta, 1 delta, 1 epsilon

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4
Q

subunits on extra junctional receptors and why they return

A

denervation or prolonged immobility allows for return of these receptor types (that were present in early fetal development)

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5
Q

why do extra junctional receptors increase risk for fatal hyperkalemia

A

-far more sensitive to succ and remain open for a longer period of time allowing for more Na to enter the cell
-stimulated by choline

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6
Q

extra junctional receptors and non depolarizers

A

up regulation of extra junctional receptors creates resistance to non depolarizers

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7
Q

fade during TOF is most likely caused by

A

antagonism of pre synaptic Nm receptors

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8
Q

MOA of NDNMB’s

A

competitively antagonize presynaptic Nn receptors

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9
Q

which receptor is integral to the fade mechanisn

A

presynaptic nicotinic (Nn).

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10
Q

what type of block does succ create

A

phase 1 (diminished but equal- no fade)

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11
Q

what type of block does NDNMB’s create

A

phase 2 (nerve terminal can only release avail Ach not stored Ach so fade occurs)

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12
Q

can succ cause a phase 2 block?

A

high dose, yeah
>7-10mg OR >30-60m infusion

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13
Q

post tetanic potentiation

A

none with phase 1 but yes with phase 2

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13
Q

post tetanic potentiation

A

none with phase 1 but yes with phase 2

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14
Q

most sensitive indicator for recovery of NMB

A

inspiratory force better than -40cmH2O

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15
Q

best place to measure onset of blockade

A

orbicularis oculi (closes eyelid) or corrugator supercilli (eyebrow twitch)
facial nerve (CN7)

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16
Q

best place to measure recovery blockade

A

adductor pollicis (thumb adduction) or flexor hallucis (big toe flexion)
nerve= ulnar or posterior tibial

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17
Q

TOF ratio that correlates with full recovery

A

> .9 at adductor pollicis

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18
Q

Vt and VC are normal in the setting of what amount of NMB?

A

70-80%

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19
Q

acceptable clinical end point and max % of receptors occupied when acceptable clinical endpoint is reached for tidal volume

A

> 5mL/kg and 80%

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20
Q

acceptable clinical end point and max % of receptors occupied when acceptable clinical endpoint is reached for TOF

A

no fade and 70%

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21
Q

acceptable clinical end point and max % of receptors occupied when acceptable clinical endpoint is reached for VC

A

> 20mL/kg and 70%

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22
Q

acceptable clinical end point and max % of receptors occupied when acceptable clinical endpoint is reached for sustained tetanus (50hz)

A

no fade and 60%

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23
Q

acceptable clinical end point and max % of receptors occupied when acceptable clinical endpoint is reached for DBS

A

no fade and 60%

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24
acceptable clinical end point and max % of receptors occupied when acceptable clinical endpoint is reached for inspiratory force
> -40cmH2O and 50%
25
acceptable clinical end point and max % of receptors occupied when acceptable clinical endpoint is reached for head lift >5 seconds
sustained for 5 seconds and 50%
26
acceptable clinical end point and max % of receptors occupied when acceptable clinical endpoint is reached for hand grip same as pre induction
sustained for 5 seconds and 50%
27
acceptable clinical end point and max % of receptors occupied when acceptable clinical endpoint is reached for holding tongue blade in mouth against force
cant remove tongue blade against force and 50%
28
best qualitative test for neuromuscular function
tongue blade
29
how does succ cause bradycardia or asystole
stimulates M2 receptor on SA node (primary metabolite, succinomonocholine, is probably responsible)
30
how does succ cause tachycardia/HTN
mimics Ach at sympathetic ganglia
31
succ transiently increases IOP by
5-15mmHg for up to 10m
32
how does succ affect intragastric pressure and LES tone
increases intragastric pressure but decreases LES tone. they cancel each other out so the barrier at the GE junction is unchanged
33
different names for acetylcholinesterase at NMJ
genuine cholinesterase true cholinesterase type 1 cholinesterase specific cholinesterase
34
different names for pseudocholinesterase in plasma
butyrylcholinesterase type 2 cholinesterase false cholinesterase plasma cholinesterase
35
where is pseudocholinesterase produced and what function does it help monitor
produced in liver, indicator of hepatic synthetic function
36
which atypical pseudocholinesterase problem can prolong succ duration
homozygous variant
37
drugs that reduce pseudocholinesterase activity
metoclopramide esmolol neostigmine echothiopate oral contraceptives/estrogen cyclophosphamide MAOI's nitrogen mustard
38
co existing diseases that reduce pseudocholinesterase activity
atypical PchE severe liver disease chronic renal disease organophosphate poisoning burns neoplasm advanced age malnutrition pregnancy (late stage)
39
dibucaine test is an
amide LA that inhibits normal plasma cholinesterase
40
outcome of normal dibucaine test
dibucaine inhibits normal pseudocholineseterase normal dibucaine number is 80 which means 80% of the pseudocholinesterase is in the sample
41
outcome of abnormal dibucaine test
does not inhibit atypical pseudocholinesterase if the patient had a dibucaine number of 20 then the dibucaine did not inhibit the patients PchE
42
PchE variant: typical homozygous genotype: incidence: dibucaine #: succ duration:
genotype: UU incidence: dibucaine #: 70-80 succ duration: 5-10min
43
PchE variant: heterozygous genotype: incidence: dibucaine #: succ duration:
genotype: UA incidence: 1/480 dibucaine #: 50-60 succ duration: 20-30m
44
PchE variant: atypical homozygous genotype: incidence: dibucaine #: succ duration:
PchE variant: typical homozygous genotype: AA incidence: 1/3,200 dibucaine #: 20-30 succ duration: 4-8h
45
define atypical plasma cholinesterase defect
qualitative. sufficient amounts are made theyre just not functional
46
tx for patient with atypical plasma cholinesterase
postop mechanical ventilation and sedation is tx of choice for cost reasons but can also do whole blood, FFP, or purified human cholinesterase
47
succ black box warning
most common is duchenne muscular dystrophy but overall the warning is for skeletal muscle dystrophy -lack of dystrophin doesn't allow actin and myosin to anchor which which increases sarcolemma permeability, facilitates breakdown, releases creatinine kinase and myoglobin to systemic circulation
48
mild hyperkalemia presents with
peaked t waves and PR prolongation
49
tx for hyperkalemia
1. stabilize myocardium: ca chloride 20mg/kg or ca gluconate 60mg/kg 2. shift k into cells (.3-.5mg/kg of 10% glucose solution, 1U insulin per 4-5g IV glucose, 1-2mmol/kg sodium bicarb) 3. enhance k elimination (furosemide 1mg/kg, volume resuscitation, hemodialysis, hemofiltration)
50
who is at risk for postop myalgia related to succ
young adults (women>men) undergoing ambulatory surgery that do not routinely engage in strenuous activity.
51
what 3 drugs (and doses) can you administer before succ to help with postop myalgia
2mg roc 1.5mg atracurium .3mg vec 3-5min before succ
52
what to do with dose of succ if giving defasciculating dose
increase dose to 1.5-2mg/kg
53
who should not receive a defasciculating dose
those with pre existing skeletal muscle disease/weakness
54
who with pre existing skeletal muscle co morbidities may respond to succ with MH
hypokalemic periodic paralysis malignant hyperthermia patient
55
which patient population is resistant to succ but sensitive to non depolarizers
MG
56
who with pre existing skeletal muscle co morbidities may be sensitive to non depolarizing NMB's?
duchennes, Gillian barre, MS, ALS, myotonic dystrophy, huntington chorea, MG
57
which patient population would respond to succ with muscle contractures that may compromise aw management?
myotonic dystrophy
58
who with pre existing skeletal muscle co morbidities may have a hyperkalemic response to succ?
DMD (plus rhabdo), guillan barre, MS, ALS, charcot marie tooth, hyperkalemic periodic paralysis
59
the higher the ED95, the lower the
potency
60
short acting: mivacurium intubation time to max block (onset) duration
intubation: .15 time to max block (onset): 3.3 duration: 16.8
61
intermediate acting: cisatracurium intubation time to max block (onset) duration
intubation: 0.1 time to max block (onset): 5.2 duration: 45m
62
intermediate acting: vecuronium intubation time to max block (onset) duration
intubation: .1 time to max block (onset): 2.4 duration: 45m
63
intermediate acting: atracurium intubation time to max block (onset) duration
intubation: 0.5 time to max block (onset) 3.2 duration 45m
64
intermediate acting: rocuronium intubation time to max block (onset) duration
intubation: .6 time to max block (onset): 1.7m duration: 35m
65
long acting: pancuronium intubation time to max block (onset) duration
intubation: .08 time to max block (onset): 2.9m duration: 85m
66
benzylisoquinolinum compounds
atracurium cisatracurium mivacurium
67
aminosteroid compounds
rocuronium vecuronium pancuronium
68
how is atracurium metabolized
hoffman elimination and non specific plasma esterases
69
how is cisatracurium metabolized
hoffman elimination
70
how is mivacurium metabolized
pseudocholinesterases which explains its short DOA
71
describe hoffman elimination
base catalyzed reaction that is dependent on normal blood pH and temperature -faster with alkalosis and hyperthermia -slower with acidosis and hypothermia
72
toxic metabolite of benzylisoquinolinum compounds
laudanosine
73
74
how is rocuronium metabolized
biliary excretion as unchanged molecule
75
metabolism of vec
via liver too 3OH vec
76
metabolism of pancuronium
hepatic deacetylation to 3OH pancreatic
77
drugs that potentiate NMB include
78
electrolytes that potentiate NMB include
79
patient factors that potentiate NMB include
hypothermia (decreased potassium and clearance) gender (women>men)
80
2 NMB's that block M2 receptors in heart
pancuronium (moderate blockade) roc (slight to none)
81
which NMB's release histamine
cisatracurium, atracurium, succ
82
which NMB is most likely to cause anaphylaxis?
succ
83
how too NMB's cause anaphylaxis
they contain quarternary amines that interact with IgE, causing mast cell and basophil degranulation. this is reflected via an elevated tryptase level (peak 15-120 min after exposure)