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HOSA: Med Term > Nerves & Special Senses pt 2 > Flashcards

Nerves & Special Senses pt 2 Flashcards

1
Q

describe MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS (MS)

A

progressive autoimmune disease where inflammation causes demyelination of myelin sheath leading to plaque which scars the brain, cord, & optic nerve disrupting transmission

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2
Q

MS leads to what effects/issues

A

pain, physical & cognitive problems, weakness/numbness in limbs, unsteady gait, uncoordinated movements, fatigue

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3
Q

describe BELL’S PALSY

A

temporary paralysis of 7th cranial thought to be caused by virus leading to paralysis of face on affected side; inability to close eye, pain, tearing, drooling, hypersensitivity to sound in affected ear, taste impairment

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4
Q

describe GUILLAIN-BARRE SYNDROME (GBS)

A

inflammation of myelin sheath of many peripheral nerves (polyneuritis) caused by duration/recovery of infectious disease or autoimmune response after viral infection/vaccines leading to rapid extremity muscle weakness & temporary paralysis

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5
Q

describe NEURITIS

A

inflammation of nerve leading to pain & loss of function

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6
Q

describe SCIATICA

A

inflammation of sciatica nerve from pressure on nerve roots leading to pain, burning, & tingling thru thigh/leg/foot

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7
Q

describe TRIGEMINAL NEURALGIA

A

chronic pain condition from inflammation of 5th cranial nerve leading to severe lightning-like pain in gums, cheek, & lips

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8
Q

describe CEREBRAL PALSY

A

group of disorders common in premature/low birth weight infants from a brain condition/injury during pregnancy, birth, or postpartum; s/s: poor muscle control, spasticity, speech defects, neurological deficiencies, poor muscle tone & movement

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9
Q

describe SEIZURE

A

sudden surge of electrical activity affecting feeling, actions, & physical/mental changes from fever, brain injury/lesions, or other disorders

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10
Q

describe TONIC-CLONIC SEIZURE

A

body rigid (tonic) w/uncontrollable jerking (clonic); generally epileptic

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11
Q

aka: tonic-clonic seizure

A

grand mal seizure

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12
Q

describe ABSENCE SEIZURE

A

brief disturbance in function causing brief, sudden lapses of consciousness leading to vacant staring for about 10-15 sec; gen kids

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13
Q

describe FOCAL SEIZURE

A

abnormal electrical activity in at least 1 part of hemisphere; absence seizure symptoms + some repetitive muscle movement

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14
Q

aka: focal seizure

A

partial seizure

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15
Q

describe FEBRILE SEIZURE

A

tonic-clonic seizure in infants & young kids caused by fever & gen outgrown by 5 yrs

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16
Q

define SUDDEN UNEXPECTED DEATH IN EPILEPSY (SUDEP)

A

epileptic patient death during/following seizure w/causes being unknown, respiratory failure, or arrhythmias

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17
Q

define CAUSALGIA

A

persistent, severe burning pain after sensory nerve injury

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18
Q

describe COMPLEX REGIONAL PAIN SYNDROME CRPS)

A

chronic nerve pain of 1 limb after injury causing change in skin color, temperature, & swelling

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19
Q

define HYPERESTHESIA

A

abnormal & excessive sensitivity to pain, touch, & other sensory stimuli

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20
Q

describe PARESTHESIA

A

burning/prickling/numbness/tingling w/o apparent physical cause, caused by irritation/injury to sensory nerves/nerve roots; can be symptom of peripheral neuropathy/drug side effect

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21
Q

define PERIPHERAL NEUROPATHY

A

disorder of peripheral nerves from diabetes, hypothyroidism, or other conditions leading to pain, loss of sensation & no muscle control (esp in hands & feet)

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22
Q

describe RESTLESS LEGS SYNDROME (RLS)

A

uncomfortable feelings in legs leading to urge to move generally at night or when trying to rest bc of an unknown cause

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23
Q

define ANXIETY DISORDERS

A

excessive irrational dread of everyday things/out of proportion fear, worry, or nervousness

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24
Q

describe GENERALIZED ANXIETY DISORDER (GAD)

A

chronic, excessive worrying that is not restricted to specific thing; s/s: muscle tension, sleep disturbances, irritability, trouble concentrating, restlessness, heart palpitations, chest pain, tremors, sweating, nausea, & headaches

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25
Q

describe PANIC ATTACK

A

unexpected, sudden fear during no danger associated w/unneeded activation of flight or fight; s/s: heart palpitations, shortness of breath, chest tightness, dizziness, sweating, nausea, feelings of unreality, & choking sensation

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26
Q

describe PANIC DISORDER (PD)

A

sudden & recurring attacks of intense anxiety & fear/fear of panic attacks that cause the development of other phobias; s/s: imitate heart attack & sense of loss of control

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27
Q

define POST-TRAUMATIC STRESS DISORDER (PTSD)

A

emotional numbing, hyperarousal, anxiety, sleep disorders, & persistent reliving of event after event of intense fear, helplessness, or horror

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28
Q

describe PHOBIA

A

persistent, irrational fear of specific thing that causes significant distress, interferes w/function, & leads to avoidance

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29
Q

define ACROPHOBIA

A

fear of heights

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30
Q

define AGORAPHOBIA

A

fear of environments where panic attack might happen

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31
Q

define SOCIAL ANXIETY DISORDER

A

fear situations of possible negative evaluation of others/embarrassment

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32
Q

aka: social anxiety disorder

A

social phobia

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33
Q

define OBSESSIVE-COMPULSIVE DISORDER (OCD)

A

recurrent obsessions & compulsion w/the belief that doing the behaviors will prevent harm or stop obsession

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34
Q

define OBSESSIONS

A

repetitive, intrusive, & distressing thoughts/impulses

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35
Q

define HOARDING DISORDER

A

over-accumulation of belongings leading to unsafe & unsanitary living conditions

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36
Q

define ATTENTION-DEFICIT HYPERACTIVITY DISORDER (ADHD)

A

short attention span & impulsive behavior inappropriate for developmental age

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37
Q

define ATTENTION-DEFICIT DISORDER (ADD)

A

ADHD w/o hyperactivity

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38
Q

define DYSLEXIA

A

learning disability where the brain unable to process symbols correctly & can affect self expression

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39
Q

aka: dyslexia

A

developmental reading disorder

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40
Q

define LEARNING DISABILITIES

A

normal intelligence w/difficulty in specific skills

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41
Q

define INTELLECTUAL DISABILITY

A

significantly below average intellectual & adaptive function causing them not to be able to develop skills for daily living

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42
Q

define AUTISM SPECTRUM DISORDER (ASD)

A

difficulty to develop normal social relationship & communication skills w/significant developmental delays, repetitive routines, narrowly focused, & unusual/intense interests; gen diagnosed ~ 3 yrs

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43
Q

define ASPERGER’S SYNDROME

A

subgroup of autism w/normal or above average intelligence but poor social interactions & body language

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44
Q

define DISSOCIATIVE IDENTITY DISORDER

A

at least 2 distinct personalities w/own characteristics caused by early childhood trauma & abuse

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45
Q

aka: dissociative identity disorder

A

multiple personality disorder

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46
Q

define IMPULSE CONTROL DISORDERS

A

group of psychiatric disorders w/failure to resist impulse despite negative consequences (kleptomania, pyromania, compulsive gambling, etc)

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47
Q

define OPPOSITIONAL DEFIANT DISORDER (ODD)

A

persistent angry, uncooperative, & disruptive behavior in kids toward authority figures that disrupts daily activities

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48
Q

define BIPOLAR DISORDER

A

cycles of severe mood changes that affect attitude, energy, & function

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49
Q

describe MANIAC BEHAVIOR

A

weirdly euphoric behavior w/inappropriate elation, high irritability, severe insomnia, poor judgment, & inappropriate social behavior

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50
Q

define DEPRESSION

A

feelings of worthlessness/death/harm/suicide, lethargy, sadness, & loss of interest/plaque

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51
Q

describe PERSISTENT DEPRESSIVE DISORDER

A

low-grade chronic depression w/milder symptoms present for majority of days for more than 2 years; includes double depression & disruptive mood dysregulation disorder

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52
Q

aka: persistent depressive disorder

A

dysthymia

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53
Q

define DOUBLE DEPRESSION

A

acute episode of major depression in patient w/dysthymia

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54
Q

define DISRUPTIVE MOOD DYSREGULATION DISORDER (DMDD)

A

children w/frequent & severe temper outbursts & chronically irritable

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55
Q

define SEASONAL AFFECTIVE DISORDER (SAD)

A

bout of depression with low daylight hours

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56
Q

describe ANOREXIA NERVOSA

A

false perception of body appearance w/intense fear of gaining weight & unable to maintain healthy weight; characterized by voluntary starvation or excessive exercising

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57
Q

define BULIMIA NERVOSA

A

binge eating w/compensating behavior such as vomiting, excessive exercising, or misuse of drugs

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58
Q

define BINGE EATING DISORDER (BED)

A

binge eating & sense of loss of control & guilt/shame afterwards

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59
Q

define PERSONALITY DISORDER

A

chronic pattern of inner experience/thinking & behavior that is pervasive & inflexible w/onset in adolescence/early adulthood

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60
Q

define ANTISOCIAL PERSONALITY DISORDER

A

disregard for & violation of rights of ppl

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61
Q

define BORDERLINE PERSONALITY DISORDER

A

impulsive actions, mood instability, chaotic relationships, & self-harm

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62
Q

define NARCISSISTIC PERSONALITY DISORDER

A

complete lack of empathy for others

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63
Q

define PSYCHOTIC DISORDER

A

loss of contact w/reality, hallucination, delusions, & function deteriorates

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64
Q

aka: psychotic disorder

A

psychoses

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65
Q

define DELUSION CATATONIC BEHAVIOR

A

person unresponsive, in stupor, & tends to be in fixed position

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66
Q

describe DELUSION

A

false personal beliefs despite obvious proof; belief not ordinarily accepted

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67
Q

define HALLUCINATION

A

sensory perception w/o external stimuli

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68
Q

define SCHIZOPHRENIA

A

psychotic disorder w/withdrawal from reality, illogical/distorted thinking patterns, delusions, hallucinations, & emotional/behavioral/intellectual disturbances or perceptions

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69
Q

aka: schizophrenia

A

schizophrenia spectrum disorder

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70
Q

define SCHIZOAFFECTIVE DISORDER

A

combo of schizophrenia & bipolar/mood disorder symptoms (either depression or mania)

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71
Q

define SOMATIC SYMPTOM DISORDER (SSD)

A

distress/excessive focus on physical complaints out of proportion to any findings/disease

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72
Q

define ILLNESS ANXIETY DISORDER

A

recurring anxiety of presence of illness w/temporary relief w/normal findings

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73
Q

describe FACTITIOUS DISORDER

A

individual acts as if they have illness motivated by attention & sympathy; visible symptoms are self-inflicted

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74
Q

aka: factitious disorder

A

Munchausen syndrome

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75
Q

define FUNCTIONAL NEUROLOGIC DISORDERS

A

neurologic symptoms w/o physical cause & patient unaware symptoms from psyche

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76
Q

define CONVERSION DISORDER

A

serious temporary/ongoing changes in function such as paralysis/blindness

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77
Q

define MALINGERING

A

intentional creation of false/exaggerated physical/psychological symptoms w/the motivation being avoiding work or incentives

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78
Q

describe SUBSTANCE ABUSE

A

addictive use of substance that is dangerous & leads to significant impaired function & recurrent legal/personal issues

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79
Q

define ALCOHOLISM

A

chronic dependence w/specific withdrawl signs & symptoms

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80
Q

describe DELIRIUM TREMENS

A

sudden & severe mental changes/seizures from going cold turkey from alcohol

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81
Q

define DRUG ABUSE

A

excessive use of illicit/recreational/prescription drugs

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82
Q

describe DRUG OVERDOSE

A

potentially fatal/accidental/intentional overuse of drug; treated w/Narcan or naloxone

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83
Q

describe GENDER DYSPHORIA

A

sex @ birth doesn’t match gender creating stress; begins in early childhood

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84
Q

define PTOSIS

A

drooping of upper eyelid caused by muscle weakness/paralysis

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85
Q

aka: ptosis

A

blepharoptosis

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86
Q

define CHALAZION

A

hard nodule/cyst generally on upper eyelid caused by obstruction of sebaceous gland

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87
Q

define HORDEOLUM

A

pus filled & painful lesion on eyelid from acute infection of sebaceous gland

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88
Q

aka: hordeolum

A

stye or sty

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89
Q

describe BLEPHARITIS

A

swelling of eyelid gen @ eyelash follicles; s/s: redness, swelling, crusting along eyelid

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90
Q

describe EXTROPION

A

eversion of edge of eyelid (lower) associated w/aging that causes eye irritation so the tears don’t drain; s/s: properly, redness, pain, & corneal breakdown

91
Q

describe ENTROPION

A

inversion of edge of eyelid (lower) where the lashes rub against cornea causing abrasion

92
Q

describe PERIORBITAL EDEMA

A

swelling of tissue surrounding eye associated w/allergies, nephrotic syndrome, & cellulitis; s/s: bloated face & swollen eyes

93
Q

describe CONJUNCTIVITIS

A

inflammation of conjunctiva from a viral infection, allergy, or irritants

94
Q

aka: conjunctivitis

A

pink eye

95
Q

describe DACRYOADENITIS

A

inflammation of lacrimal gland caused by bacteria/viral/fungal infection; s/s: sudden severe pain, redness, & pressure above eye

96
Q

define DACRYOCYSTITIS

A

blockage, inflammation, or infection of lacrimal sac & nasolacrimal duct accompanied by bacterial infection

97
Q

define SUBCONJUNCTIVAL HEMORRHAGE

A

bleeding between conjunctiva & sclera from a injury causing red area over white of eye

98
Q

describe XEROPHTHALMIA

A

tear glands don’t make enough tears bc of age, systemic disease, or lack of vitamin A

99
Q

aka: xerophthalmia

A

dry eye

100
Q

describe UVEITIS

A

inflammation of uvea leading to swelling, irritation, & potential permanent vision loss

101
Q

describe IRITIS

A

most common form of uveitis that affects primary structures in front of eye w/ sudden onset for 6-8 weeks

102
Q

define CORNEAL ABRASION

A

injury to outer layers of cornea

103
Q

describe CORNEAL ULCER

A

open sore on cornea from injury/infection; if cloudy scar left it will impair vision

104
Q

define KERATITIS

A

inflammation of cornea from bacterial/viral/fungal infection or other

105
Q

describe KERATOCONUS

A

cornea irregular & cone-shaped leading to blurring & distorted vision

106
Q

define SCLERITIS

A

inflammation of sclera from infection, chemical injuries, & autoimmune diseases

107
Q

define ANISOCORIA

A

pupils unequal in size from congenital, head injury, aneurysm, or pathology of CNS

108
Q

describe CATARACT

A

loss of transparency of lens from accumulation of protein in lens, age, congenital, injury, or disease leading to progressive loss of visual clarity

109
Q

define DIABETIC RETINOPATHY

A

damage to retina as complication of uncontrolled diabetes

110
Q

define ENDOPHTHALMITIS

A

inflammation of intraocular fluids

111
Q

describe FLOATERS

A

particles of cellular debris floating in vitreous humor causing shadows on retina appearing as squiggly lines, small specks, or hair-like strands; common; caused by retinal detachment, shrinkage & detachment of collagen fibers in vitreous humor, or happens normally

112
Q

aka: floaters

A

vitreous floaters

113
Q

define PHOTOPSIA

A

flashes of light from damage to eye or migraines

114
Q

define MIOSIS

A

contraction of pupil from light or drugs

115
Q

define MYDRIASIS

A

dilation of pupil from disease, trauma, or drugs

116
Q

describe NYSTAGMUS

A

involuntary, constant, rhythmic movement of eye leading to limited visual acuity from congenital disorder, neurological injury, or drug use

117
Q

describe PAPILLEDEMA

A

swelling & inflammation of optic nerve @ pnt of entrance through optic disk that increases intracranial pressure leading to swelling

118
Q

aka: papilledema

A

choked disk

119
Q

describe RETINAL DETACHMENT

A

emergency condition of separation of some/all of retina from choroid which can lead to complete detachment & blindness if untreated; s/s: floaters, flashing lights, shadows gradually obscure vision

120
Q

describe RETINITIS PIGMENTOSA

A

progressive degeneration of retina affecting night & peripheral vision & causes dark pigmented spots on retina

121
Q

describe RETINOBLASTOMA

A

rare eye cancer from growth of retinal cells; most common intraocular cancer in kids

122
Q

describe GLAUCOMA

A

group of diseases w/high IOP causing damage to retinal nerve fibers & optic nerve leading to eventual blindness; caused by blockage of fluid flow in & out eye

123
Q

describe OPEN ANGLE GLAUCOMA

A

most common; trabecular meshwork gradually blocked leading to pressure & not noticed until damage to optic nerve; detected thru eye exams

124
Q

aka: open angle glaucoma

A

chronic glaucoma

125
Q

describe CLOSED ANGLE GLAUCOMA

A

opening between cornea & iris narrows so fluid can’t reach trabecular meshwork causing a sudden increase in IOP; s/s: severe pain, nausea, eye redness, blurred vision, & blindness

126
Q

aka: closed angle glaucoma

A

acute glaucoma

127
Q

describe MACULAR DEGENERATION

A

gradually progressive & incurable condition where macula @ center of retina is damaged leading to loss of central vision

128
Q

describe AGE RELATED MACULAR DEGENERATION (AMD)

A

leading cause of vision loss in ppl +60 yrs; starts in 1 eye & develops in other

129
Q

define DRY MACULAR DEGENERATION

A

90% of all AMD w/slow deterioration of macula cells

130
Q

describe WET MACULAR DEGENERATION

A

advanced form of dry AMD where new vessels grow & leak causing damage to macular cells leading to rapid & severe vision loss

131
Q

define DIPLOPIA

A

perception of 2 images of single object & can be symptom of serious disorder like MS or tumor

132
Q

define HEMANIOPIA

A

blindness in 1/2 vision field

133
Q

define COLOR BLINDNESS

A

inability to perceive certain colors normally form absence/abnormal function of cones

134
Q

define NYCTALOPIA

A

normal daytime vision but difficulty seeing @ night

135
Q

aka: diplopia

A

double vision

136
Q

aka: nyctalopia

A

night blindness

137
Q

define PHOTOPHOBIA

A

excessive sensitivity to light from migraines, excessive use of contacts, drugs, or inflammation

138
Q

describe PRESBYOPIA

A

common changes in eye w/age such as hyperopia from loss of elasticity in lens bc of age; associated w/declining near vision, less flexible lens, & ciliary body muscles weaker

139
Q

define STRABISMUS

A

eyes point in different directions or not aligned right bc of weak eye muscles so eyes cannot focus together

140
Q

define ESOTROPIA

A

inward deviation of 1 or both eyes

141
Q

define EXOTROPIA

A

outward deviation of 1 eye

142
Q

aka: strabismus

A

crossed eyes

143
Q

aka: esotropia

A

cross eyes

144
Q

aka: exotropia

A

wall eye

145
Q

describe REFRACTIVE DISORDERS

A

any disorder of irregular shaped lens & cornea so lens & cornea don’t bend light to focus properly leading to blurred vision

146
Q

define AMETROPIA

A

any error of refraction where images don’t focus properly on retina

147
Q

describe ASTIGMATISM

A

uneven curvature of cornea leading to blurred vision & can accompany nearsightedness or farsightedness

148
Q

define HYPEROPIA

A

generally shortened eyeball shape so light focuses behind retina making images close up blurry generally after 40 yrs

149
Q

aka: hyperopia

A

farsightedness

150
Q

describe MYOPIA

A

light focus in front of retina; gen around puberty

151
Q

aka: myopia

A

nearsightedness

152
Q

describe AMBLYOPIA

A

dimness of vision/partial loss of sight w/o disease in 1/both eyes from altered development in childhood

153
Q

aka: amblyopia

A

lazy eye

154
Q

define SCOTOMA

A

abnormal area of diminished vision surrounded by normal vision

155
Q

aka: scotoma

A

blind spot

156
Q

describe IMPACTED CERUMEN

A

accumulation of earwax as solid mass leading to otalgia, tinnitus, temporary hearing loss, & ear infection

157
Q

define OTALGIA

A

pain in ear

158
Q

aka: otalgia

A

earache

159
Q

define OTITIS

A

any inflammation of ear

160
Q

define OTITIS EXTERNA

A

inflammation of external auditory canal

161
Q

aka: otitis externa

A

swimmer’s ear

162
Q

describe OTITIS MEDIA

A

inflammation of middle ear; acute or serous

163
Q

describe OTOMYCOSIS

A

fungal infection of external auditory canal from moist environment

164
Q

aka: otomycosis

A

swimmer’s ear

165
Q

define OTOPYORRHEA

A

flow of pus from ear

166
Q

define OTORRHAGIA

A

bleeding from ear

167
Q

define OTORRHEA

A

any discharge from ear (including CSF)

168
Q

describe BAROTRAUMA

A

pressure related trauma from pressure change when flying/driving/diving or blockage of eustachian tube

169
Q

describe CHOLESTEATOMA

A

destructive epidermal cyst in middle ear/mastoid process made of epithelial cells, cholesterol, skin cells, & cerumen from congenital disorder or complication of chronic otitis media

170
Q

aka: cholesteatoma

A

pearly tumor

171
Q

describe MASTOIDITIS

A

inflammation of any part of mastoid bone that can develop w/spread of uncontrolled acute otitis media

172
Q

describe INFECTIOUS MYRINGITIS

A

contagious inflammation causing blisters on ear drum & associated w/middle ear infection

173
Q

describe OTOSCLEROSIS

A

ankylosis of bones of middle ear leading to conductive hearing loss & treated w/stapedectomy

174
Q

describe LABRYINTHITIS

A

inflammation of labyrinth causing deafness & vertigo

175
Q

describe VERTIGO

A

sense of whirling, dizziness, loss of balance, nausea, & vomiting associated w/inner ear or other disorders; treated w/vestibular rehabilitation therapy

176
Q

describe BENIGN PAROXYSMAL POSITIONAL VERTIGO (BPPV)

A

vestibular disorder w/shift in small crystals in semicircular canals; common cause of vertigo

177
Q

describe MENIERE’S DISEASE

A

relatively rare & chronic vestibular disorder of labyrinth where fluid in inner ear increases intermittently causing vertigo attacks, fluctuating hearing loss in 1 ear, & tinnitus

178
Q

describe TINNITUS

A

ringing, buzzing, roaring in 1/both ears associated w/hearing loss or prolonged exposure to loud noises

179
Q

describe ACOUSTIC NEUROMA

A

benign brain tumor adjacent to cranial nerve from auditory nerve causing hearing loss, vertigo, & tinnitus

180
Q

define DEAFNESS

A

complete/partial hearing loss or inability to hear sounds @ pitch or intensity

181
Q

define PRESBYCUSIS

A

gradual loss of sensorineural hearing w/age

182
Q

describe CONDUCTIVE HEARING LOSS

A

sound waves can’t pass from air to fluid in inner ear so inadequate sound-wave conduction from outer ear to ossicles caused by earwax, infection, fluid in middle ear, punctured eardrum, otosclerosis, or scarring; generally treatable

183
Q

define SENSORINEURAL HEARING LOSS

A

auditory nerve/hair cells damaged from age, noise, or acoustic neuroma

184
Q

aka: sensorineural hearing loss

A

nerve deafness

185
Q

describe NOISE-INDUCED HEARING LOSS (NIHL)

A

nerve deafness caused by repeated exposure to loud or moderately loud sounds from damage to cochlea or auditory nerve; gen not noticed until some hearing permanently destroyed

186
Q

aka: noise-induced hearing loss

A

sensorineural hearing loss

187
Q

define ASTROCYTOMA

A

tumor of neuroglial tissue

188
Q

describe AURA

A

subjective sensation before migraine/seizure including flashing lights, numbness, tingling, or specific odor

189
Q

define BRAIN TUMOR

A

intracranial mass that is either neoplastic, cystic, or inflammatory (abscess)

190
Q

describe EPIDURLA HEMATOMA

A

mass of blood between skull & dura mater from brain hitting the skull; the bleeding can cause pressure which causes brain damage/death

191
Q

describe EPILEPSY

A

CNS disorder where the neural cells’ activity is disrupted; characterized by seizures, repeated twitching of limbs, & occasional loss of consciousness

192
Q

describe POSTPARTUM PSYCHOSIS

A

rare condition within the 1st week after birth w/ confusion, disorientation, hallucinations, delusions, obsessive thoughts about baby, paranoia, sleep disturbance, & self harm/harm to baby

193
Q

describe FUNCTIONAL MRI (fMRI)

A

detects changes in blood flow in brain; pictures relevant brain tissue when accomplishing task

194
Q

define CAROTID ULTRASONOGRAPHY

A

ultrasound study of carotid artery to detect plaque buildup or predict/diagnose ischemic stroke

195
Q

define ELECTROENCEPHALOGRAPHY (EEG)

A

record electrical brain activity via electrodes & displayed as waves to diagnose conditions affecting brain function & consciousness

196
Q

describe MYELOGRAPHY

A

fluoroscopic & CT study of cord w/contrast via lumbar puncture; done only if MRI of spine not good enough

197
Q

describe ELECTROMYOGRAPHY (EMG)

A

electrodes taped/inserted to measure signals in peripheral nerves to muscle; gen paired w/nerve conduction studies

198
Q

define LUMBAR PUNCTURE

A

needle into subarachnoid space to obtain CSF for diagnostic purposes

199
Q

aka: lumbar puncture

A

spinal tap

200
Q

describe SNELLEN CHART (SC)

A

measure visual acuity as fraction; 1st/top # is standard distance (20 ft) & 2nd/bottom # is deviation from normal

201
Q

describe REFRACTION TEST

A

determine eye’s refractive error to find best corrective lenses; refers to ability of lens to bend light rays to focus

202
Q

define DIOPTER

A

unit of measurement of lens’ refractive power

203
Q

define COVER TEST

A

examine binocular vision

204
Q

describe VISUAL FIELD TESTING

A

indicate whether object/light seen in peripheral to determine loss in peripheral vision; a blank section indicated glaucoma/optic nerve disorder

205
Q

aka: visual field testing

A

perimetry

206
Q

define OPHTHALMOSCOPY

A

visually examine fundus (retina, optic disk, choroid, & vessels)

207
Q

aka: ophthalmoscopy

A

fundoscopy

208
Q

define DILATION

A

prep for ophthalmoscope exam using mydriatic drops to artificially enlarge pupils

209
Q

define MYDRIATIC DROPS

A

temporary paralysis of pupils

210
Q

define SLIT-LAMP MICROSCOPY

A

narrow beam of light focused on parts of eye to examine anterior structure thru magnification

211
Q

define OPHTHALMOSCOPY

A

examine @ front of eye (cornea/iris/lens) & interior

212
Q

define FLUORESCEIN STAINING

A

detect foreign bodies, infection, & injury using drops/strip applicator

213
Q

describe FLUORESCEIN ANGIOGRAPHY (FA)

A

photographic study of blood vessels @ back of eye w/contrast & xrays to determine proper circulation throughout retina & look for disease

214
Q

describe PUPILS ARE EQUAL, ROUND, REACTIVE TO LIGHT, & ACCOMODATION (PERRLA)

A

diagnostic observation; abnormality indicates brain damage or head injury

215
Q

describe TONOMETRY

A

measurement of IOP; abnormally high indicates glaucoma

216
Q

define AUDIOMETRY

A

use audiometer to measure hearing acuity

217
Q

define AUDIOLOGICAL EVALUATION

A

measure ability to hear & understand speech based on pitch & volume

218
Q

aka: audiological evaluation

A

speech audiometry

219
Q

define OTOSCOPE

A

instrument to examine external ear canal

220
Q

define MONAURAL TESTING

A

involves 1 ear

221
Q

define BINAURAL TESTING

A

involves both ears

222
Q

describe TYMPANOMETRY

A

air pressure in ear canal to test for middle ear disorders by testing for middle ear fluid buildup, eustachian tube obstruction, & conducting hearing loss

223
Q

define ACOUSTIC REFLECTOMETRY

A

measures how much sound reflected from eardrum by testing amount of fluid in middle ear to diagnose otitis media

HOSA: Med Term (20 decks)

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