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Phase 1 > MSK: Week 3 > Flashcards

MSK: Week 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What variables affect muscle contraction

A
  • Length

- tension

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2
Q

Define Isometric Contraction

A

Contraction where tension changes but muscle length stays the same

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3
Q

Define isotonic contraction

A

Contraction where muscle length changes but tension stays the same

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4
Q

Define concentric contraction

A

Where muscle length shortens

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5
Q

Define Eccentric contraction

A

Where muscle length increases

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6
Q

Is the axon terminal of motor neurons myelinated

A

Yes

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7
Q

Where are acetylcholinesterase located

A

On the post-synaptic membrane junctions in the motor end plate

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8
Q

What are three biological roles of myosin

A
  1. Assembles into fragments
  2. Uses ATPase enzymes
  3. Binds to actin
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9
Q

Describe the structure of myosin

A

Has two heavy chains

Has four light chains

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10
Q

How large are the heavy chains on myosin

A

200,000 MW

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11
Q

What are the sizes of the light chains

A

1 pair = 16,000 MW

1 pair = 20,000 MW

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12
Q

Describe the structure of actin

A

F-actin filament consisting of G-actin monomers

F-actin filaments make a chain of two alpha helices

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13
Q

What is the size of a single G-actin monomer

A

41,800 MW

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14
Q

What structure is wrapped around the F-actin alpha helices

A

Tropomyosin

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15
Q

What is the role of Titin

A

Connects the Z-line to the M-line in the sarcomere

M-line = Middle of the sarcomere

It prevents over-stretching by recoiling

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16
Q

What is the molecular size of tropomyosin

A

35,000 MW

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17
Q

How often does a troponin complex appear along the tropomyosin chain

A

Every 38.5nm along

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18
Q

What does a troponin complex consist of

A
  1. TnI - Inhibitory
  2. TnT - Binds to tropomyosin
  3. TnC - Binds to calcium
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19
Q

Define fracture

A

Breach in continuity of bone

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20
Q

Name two ways fracture occur

A

Non-physiological loads applied to normal bone

Physiological load applied to abnormal bone

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21
Q

How do I describe on what part of the bone the fracture is located

A

Proximal 1/3
Middle 1/3
Distal 1/3

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22
Q 
Define the following fracture names:
Transverse
Oblique
Spiral
Communicate
Segmental 
Avulsed
Impacted
Torus
Greenstick
A
  1. A transverse cut through the bone
  2. A diagonal cut through the bone
  3. A curved cut through the bone
  4. A crack on the bone
  5. Cuts through the bone that breaks it into segments
  6. A piece of bone that breaks off the tips of the bone
  7. A cut through the tip of the bone
  8. A swelling in the bone
  9. A semi-cut through the bone (not all the way through)
23
Q

Define fracture angulation

A

Where the normal axis of the bone has been altered such that the distal bone points in another direction

24
Q

Define an intra-articular fracture

A

A bone fracture in which the break crosses into the joint surface

This damages the cartilage always

25
Q

What is the opposite of intra-articular fracture

A

Extra-articular

26
Q

What two fracture patterns are unique to children

A
  • Heals faster

- Bones are more plastic

27
Q

Outline the stages of fracture healing

A
  1. Haematoma
  2. Inflammation
  3. Repair
  4. Remodelling
28
Q

What happens during a haematoma

A
  • Bleeding
  • Blood clots at fracture site
  • Periosteum stops
  • Osteocyte death
29
Q

What happens during an inflammation

A
  • Fibrin clot organisation (platelets rich in chemoattractants)
  • Neovascularisation (natural formation of new blood vessels)
  • Cellular Invasion
30
Q

What do haemotopoietic cells do during inflammation

A

They clear debris + produce repair cytokines

31
Q

What do osteoclasts do during inflammation

A

Resorb dead bone

32
Q

What happens during the process of repair

A

Callus formation:

Fibroblasts produce collagen
Chrondroblasts from cartilage
Osteoblasts produce asteroids

Matrix mineralisation occurs

Increased Vasculosity

33
Q

Define the process of remodelling

A
  1. Woven bone structure replaced by lamellar bone
  2. Increased bone strength
  3. Healing
34
Q

What are the three principals of fracture management

A
  1. Reduce (the fracture)
  2. Immobilise
  3. Rehabilitate (the patient)
35
Q

What is the role of seasmoid bones

A

Reduce pressure and friction

36
Q

Where are osteocytes and osteoblasts derived from

A

Mesenchymal cells (osteoprogenitor cells)

37
Q

What do osteoblasts and osteocytes secrete

A

Osteoids

38
Q

Where are osteoprogenitor cells loacted

A

Close to the bone surface

39
Q

What happens to osteocytes during bone formation

A

Become trapped in the matrix they secrete

40
Q

How are osteoblasts connected

A

Via canaliculi

41
Q

What do canaliculi accomplish

A

Allow passive movement of O2 and nutrients

42
Q

What is the role of osteocalcin

A

They have a high affinity for calcium

43
Q

Difference in osteoid layout in woven and lamellar bone

A

In woven, it is disorganised

In lamellar, the osteoids are arranged in parrallel fibres

44
Q

When do osteoids begin to mineralise

A

When the conc. of phosphates and calcium is high

45
Q

What two enzymes allow mineralisation to take place

A

Osteocalcin

Alkaline Phosphatase

46
Q

How does osteocalcin aid in mineralisation

A

Joins calcium together

47
Q

What is bone arranged as in lamellar

A

Osteons

48
Q

What is found in the centre of each osteon of lamellar bone

A

Central Haversian canal (containing blood vessels)

49
Q

Where does intramembranous ossification take place

A

Flat bones of the skull

Cortical bone shafts

50
Q

Where does endochondrial ossification take place

A

All other bone

51
Q

When does intramembranous and endochondrial ossification take place

A

Both in the second trimester

52
Q

Describe the process of intramembranous ossification

A
  1. Small clusters of progenitor cells within a primitive mesenchyme transform into osteoblasts
  2. These deposit isolated bone islands
  3. Islands enlarge + unite
  4. Deposition of bone continues until all the bones are filled in

P

53
Q

What type of bone is produced during intramembranous ossifictaion

A

Woven bone

54
Q

What type of synovial cells are found in the synovial joint

A

Type A - Phagocytic

Type B - RER rich

Phase 1 (30 decks)

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