Missed Question 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Compliance requirements are sometimes documented as nonfunctional requirements. These include: (Choose two.)

A. Security
B. Severity
C. Availability
D. Complexity

A

A. Security
C. Availability

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2
Q

Ten years ago, a family inherited a 140-acre estate but since then have only argued about what to do with it. Now, they must act within 24 months to avoid financial penalties for dereliction.
The estate lawyer engages a development company with a project manager to find a solution. The project manager hosts a discovery and fact-finding meeting and hears the following viewpoints:

Stakeholder F wants to restore the derelict building to preserve historical value.
Stakeholders P and Q want to demolish the building, then build and sell houses.
Stakeholder B wants to split the property among the family.
The lawyer reemphasizes the time line.
Which two steps should the project manager take first? (Choose 2)

A. Continue discussing the various options with the stakeholders and listen actively to their concerns.
B. Estimate the schedule and cost of each option.
C. Examine the value gained by each of the options.
D. Give the group a deadline to decide what they want among themselves and then advise the project team.
E. Discuss the scope options with the

A

A. Continue discussing the various options with the stakeholders and listen actively to their concerns.
B. Estimate the schedule and cost of each option.

Feedback

We examine value and base decisions for project scope based on available data. After that, we can invest in a proof of concept (POC). These stakeholders have had enough time to collaborate, but it is clear they cannot agree and move forward without help. They have contributed enough initial ideas for you to examine the potential value, schedule, and cost of each as the first steps.

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3
Q

Business value is defined as the total sum of all tangible and intangible elements. Examples of intangible elements include:

A. Brand recognition and stakeholder equity
B. Brand recognition and goodwill
C. Goodwill and monetary assets
D. Stakeholder equity and fixtures

A

B. Brand recognition and goodwill

Feedback

Brand recognition and goodwill are both examples of intangibles. Stakeholder equity, fixtures and monetary assets are examples of tangible benefits.

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4
Q

You have been assigned a project to improve project management processes for your company. You report to the vice president of finance, the vice president of operations, and your project manager, who share responsibility for this project. Which organizational structure are you working in?

A. A balanced matrix organization
B. A weak organization, because shared responsibility makes a project too risky
C. A projectized organization
D. A functional organization

A

A. A balanced matrix organization

Feedback

The PM reporting to multiple managers

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5
Q

You are the project manager of the HQQ Project, and part of your requirement in this role is to create a risk management plan. Which of the following is not part of a risk management plan?

  1. Role and responsibilities
  2. Methodology
  3. Technical assessment board compliance
  4. Risk categories
A

Technical assessment board compliance

The technical assessment board may be used as part of the change control system. It is not relevant to risk management planning.

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6
Q

You are the project manager of the GHK Project. You and the manufacturer have agreed to substitute the type of plastic used in the product to a slightly thicker grade should there be more than a 7 percent error in production. The thicker plastic will cost more and require that the production slow down, but the errors should diminish. This is an example of which of the following?

  1. Threshold
  2. Tracking
  3. Budgeting
  4. JIT manufacturing
A

Threshold

An error value of 7 percent represents the threshold under which the project can operate. Should the number of errors increase beyond 7 percent, the current plastic will be substituted.

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7
Q

Hans is a project manager for his organization, and he’s working with his sponsor to identify the organization’s risk tolerance. Understanding the risk tolerance and any associated enterprise environmental factors will help Hans and the project team plan for risk responses. An organization’s risk tolerance is also known as what?

A

The utility function describes a person’s willingness to tolerate risk.

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8
Q

As a project manager, you must understand the components of an identified risk, a risk response, a risk trigger, risk thresholds, and issues. A risk trigger is also called which of the following?

  1. A warning sign
  2. A delay
  3. A cost increase
  4. An incremental advancement of risk
A

A warning sign

Risk triggers can also be known as warning signs. Triggers signal that a risk is about to happen or has happened.

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9
Q

You are the project manager of your organization, and you’re working with your project team and the project stakeholders to identify the risks within the project. Some of the risks have not yet happened and some of the risks are already issues. You tell the project team that all risks must be documented in the risk register, but they are not familiar with this document. Which one of the following best describes the risk register?

  1. It documents all the outcomes of the other risk management processes
  2. It a document that contains the initial risk identification entries
  3. Its a system that tracks all negative risks within a project
  4. Its part of the project PMIS integrated change control
A

It documents all the outcomes of the other risk management processes

The risk register documents all the outcomes of the other risk management processes.

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10
Q

You are the project manager of the HNN Project and you’re working with the project stakeholders, including the project team and the project sponsor, to identify risks within the project. You have identified an opportunity that the organization could take advantage of as an additional revenue stream. As the project manager, what’s the best risk response to choose for this risk?

  1. Exploit
  2. Enhance
  3. Escalate
  4. Share
A

Escalate - The best response for this positive risk event is to escalate the risk/opportunity. This risk is beyond the boundaries of the project as it is to generate an additional revenue stream for the organization, not the project.

B is incorrect because enhance would aim to attempt to make the probability increase.

D is incorrect. Sharing happens when there’s a teaming agreement or joint venture to seize the opportunity.

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11
Q

You are the project manager of the GLI Project for your organization. Your project sponsor has asked that you use an approach to measure the probability and impact of the risk events and then to rank the events accordingly. Which risk analysis provides the project manager with a risk ranking?

  1. Quantifiable
  2. Qualitative
  3. The utility function
  4. SWOT analysis
A

Qualitative

The risk ranking is based on the qualitative values of very high, high, medium, low, and very low attributes of the identified risks.

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12
Q

A table of risks, their probability, their impact, and a number representing the overall risk score is called a _______________.

  1. Risk table
  2. Probability and impact matrix
  3. Quantitative matrix
  4. Qualitative matrix
A

Probability and impact matrix

A table of risks, their probability, and their impact equate to a risk score in a risk matrix.

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13
Q

A project is being planned in a remote area with limited access to vehicles and equipment. The project manager proposes that the company use an outside vendor to deliver all heavy equipment. The project manager will take full responsibility for this activity. However, this strategy will result in a significant expense. What type of risk response is the project manager demonstrating?

  1. Transfer
  2. Mitigate
  3. Avoid
  4. Accept
A

Transfer

Explanation: Transfer involves shifting ownership of a threat to a third party to manage the risk and to bear the impact if the threat occurs. Risk transfer often involves payment of a risk premium to the party taking on the threat.

Source: PMI®. This question was formerly on the PMP® exam.

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14
Q

A project risk budget was approved that only considered high-impact/high-potential risks. During project execution, a risk with high impact but very low potential occurs. While it is in the risk register, it is not in the budget.

What should the project manager do first?

  1. Conduct an impact analysis, and then submit a change request to increase the budget if necessary.
  2. Update the risk management plan based on risk monitoring and assessment.
  3. Immediately execute the risk response plan using the available risk budget.
  4. Escalate the problem to the project sponsor.
A

Update the risk management plan based on risk monitoring and assessment.

Explanation: Monitor Risks is the process of monitoring the implementation of agreed-upon risk response plans, tracking identified risks, identifying and analyzing new risks, and evaluating risk process effectiveness throughout the project. The key benefit of this process is that it enables project decisions to be based on current information about overall project risk exposure and individual project risks. This process is performed throughout the project.

Source: PMI®. This question was formerly on the PMP® exam.

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15
Q

The project manager and the team have just documented 40 project risks. What will the most likely process/activity the team will perform next?

  1. Provide specific and detailed response strategies (actions) for each risk
  2. Analyze the risks quantitatively
  3. Create the risk management plan.
  4. Analyze the risks qualitatively
A

Analyze the risks qualitatively

Explanation: For most projects, relevant stakeholders will analyze the probability and severity of identified risks.

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16
Q

A project manager completes plans for a project and submits all documents for approval. No time is allocated for delays in approvals.

What should the project manager have done to address this potential risk?

  1. Started the project in advance to avoid impacting the schedule
  2. Shared this potential risk information with the project stakeholders to accelerate approvals
  3. Planned specific actions, including primary and backup strategies, and chosen a risk owner
  4. Selected a risk owner and incorporated owner-identified actions into the planning document
A

Planned specific actions, including primary and backup strategies, and chosen a risk owner

Explanation: Risk analysis tools can be used to choose the most appropriate responses. Specific actions are developed to implement that strategy, including primary and back up strategies.

Source: PMI®. This question was formerly on the PMP® exam.

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17
Q

A project is at the planning stage of the project. The Project Manager realizes that producing a complex multi-functional application is not feasible with the current number of resources and decides to hire more resources for the production of the application. The Project Manager identifies and contracts temporary resources.

Which risk response strategy does this scenario exemplify?

  1. Avoid
  2. Share
  3. Accept
  4. Mitigate
A

Avoid
Explanation: The risk to the project was posed by insufficient resources. The risk was avoided by hiring additional resources.

PMBOK® Guide Sixth Edition (2018) PMI/PMI/11.5.2.4/443

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18
Q

Both the project sponsor and project team assure a Project Manager that the new project has a realistic schedule and an adequate budget. The Project Manager worries that unplanned events could threaten the project’s success.

How should the Project Manager respond to this concern?

  1. Review the original project plan and focus on completing the plan on schedule.
  2. Ask for additional funding to cover project planning.
  3. List and assess any project risks.
  4. Schedule a meeting with the functional manager to address the potential impact of unplanned risks.
A

List and assess any project risks.

Explanation: The Project Manager needs to be proactive and work with the team to identify risks and their mitigation strategies.

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19
Q

The project manager and other subject matter experts have identified many project risks (both opportunities and threats), and they have determined the probability and impact for each risk. The opportunities and threats have been prioritized in lists: those with the highest ratings at the top of the list. A numerical analysis of the risks is not possible for several reasons. What should the project manager and subject matter experts do next?

  1. Perform a qualitative risk analysis
  2. Start monitoring ongoing risks
  3. Plan risk management
  4. Plan risk responses
A

Plan risk responses

Explanation: Once the team has completed the qualitative analysis, they should plan risk responses, assuming that the team will not or cannot perform a quantitative analysis of the most serious risks.

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20
Q

The project manager and the team have identified 40 project risks, analyzed them according to probability and severity, and responded to each one of them with applicable strategies. What best practice was missing from this approach?

  1. Including the project team (in other words, the team should not have been included in these activities/processes).
  2. Performing a quantitative risk analysis on all the risks.
  3. Obtaining the input of other relevant stakeholders.
  4. Analyzing the risks before (not after) identifying the risks.
A

Including the project team (in other words, the team should not have been included in these activities/processes).
Explanation: The project team should absolutely help with these processes, as they often have an excellent knowledge of the product, service, and/or work.

Performing a quantitative risk analysis on all the risks.
Explanation: Though it is accurate that the quantitative analysis is missing from the question, many projects lack the time, money, equipment, and/or expertise to perform a quantitative analysis. Additionally, performing a quantitative analysis on “all” risks is generally not a best practice, as risks with minimal potential impact and probability may only require a simple and efficient qualitative approach.

✓ Obtaining the input of other relevant stakeholders.
Explanation: Though the project manager and the team can generate a good list of risks, other stakeholders, such as the customer, sponsor, users, and even vendors, can provide insights into risks that can jeopardize project success.

Analyzing the risks before (not after) identifying the risks.
Explanation: The order presented in the question is correct: identifying risks precedes analyzing the risks.

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21
Q

The project team feels strongly that using an untested component will make the project too risky. They decide to use a more reliable component, available from a different vendor. However, the use of this different component raises new risks, such as whether the component will be available in sufficient quantities and in a timely manner. What is the best description of these new risks?

  1. They are enhanced risks.
  2. They are shared risks.
  3. They are exploited risks.
  4. They are secondary risks.
A

They are enhanced risks.
Explanation: Enhanced applies to positive risks (opportunities), and the risks of insufficient quantities and timing risks are not positive risks.

✘ They are shared risks.
Explanation: Shared applies to positive risks (opportunities), and the risks of insufficient quantities and timing risks are not positive risks.

They are exploited risks.
Explanation: Exploit applies to positive risks (opportunities), and the risks of insufficient quantities and timing risks are not positive risks.

✓ They are secondary risks.
Explanation: A secondary risk is a new risk associated with implementing a response strategy.

22
Q

During project execution, a functional manager identifies a new internal risk about the outsourcing team. The functional manager asks the project manager for a fast solution that will not negatively impact the project.

What should the project manager do?

  1. Implement the risk strategy.
  2. Assess the risk in terms of severity of impact.
  3. Use the change management plan.
  4. Develop a risk breakdown structure (RBS).
A

Assess the risk in terms of severity of impact.

Explanation: A project manager first needs to understand the severity of a risk impact before they can develop a risk response.

Source: PMI®. This question was formerly on the PMP® exam.

23
Q

An agile team needs to decide who should represent them in the Scrum of Scrums.
Which criterion should be used to select the best-suited team member?

A. CI/CD
B. eXtreme Programming
C. Devops
D. Scrum

A

C. Devops

Feedback
DevOps is designed to eliminate the potential impediments and gaps that cause incidents in the cycle of development, deployment and use of software and IT resources. CI/CD is included within DevOps and therefore CI/CD alone would not address as many problems. XP and Scrum would not address coordination with operations.

24
Q

An agile team member solved a problem that had blocked the team for several weeks. After release of the software, it appears that the solution caused a function to fail. The quality director demands an explanation.

How should the Project Manager react? (Choose TWO.)

A. Ask the team member to present his rationale and lessons learned
B. Work with the team to identify gaps in the definition of ready
C. Work with the team to identify gaps in the definition of done
D. Issue a warning to the team member about not taking risky initiatives
E. Respond to the director that mistakes are inevitable but will be

A

A. Ask the team member to present his rationale and lessons learned
C. Work with the team to identify gaps in the definition of done

Feedback

Agile teams must have accountability for the results of their work. In this case, valuable lessons learned and context of error are shared. The team will have to collaborate on ways to prevent the problem by updating the definition of done, for example, adding checks on external conditions.

25
Q

A Project Manager is using a suitability assessment tool to find the right project approach for a new project. The tool ranks on the following criteria:
- Change: rate of change to requirements
- Criticality: Criticality of product, processes and impact of defects
- Buy-in: Executive support for adaptive methods
- Team size: Number of members in project team
- Team skill: Project team experience
- Access: Direct collaboration/feedback with clients/sponsors

Which combination of these factors would be best suited to a fully agile project approach?

A. Change: low
Criticality: low
Buy-in: high
Team size: medium
Team skill: high Access: high

B. Change: medium
Criticality: high
Buy-in: medium
Team size: medium
Team skill: high
Access: high

C. Change: low
Criticality: medium
Buy-in: high
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D. Change: high
Criticality: low
Buy-in: high
Team size: low
Team skill: high
Access: medium

A

D. Change: high
Criticality: low
Buy-in: high
Team size: low
Team skill: high
Access: medium

Feedback

The ideal combination suited to an agile approach is:
Change: high
Criticality: low
Buy-in: high
Team size: low
Team skill: high
Access: high
Predictive would be required for high criticality and team size, with low change, buy-in and skill. Hybrid is appropriate for medium values on the criteria.

26
Q

A governmental anti-money laundering software project needs a solution to collaborate with a remote agile team of four in another country. Spontaneous verbal communication between the teams must be supported. All the remote team’s workstations and Kanban boards must be visible at all times.

Which virtual team collaboration solution is most appropriate?

A. Always-on fishbowl windows
B. On-demand video conferencing
C. Workstation screen mirroring
D. Information radiator monitors

A

A. Always-on fishbowl windows

Feedback

This is a project where confidentiality and security are ccritical - thus permanent monitoring of remote resources is necessary. Only the fishbowl solution would have the required field of view on a permanent basis. Radiators only display content, on-demand video conferencing would not be a permanent video feed, and mirroring only displays 1 computer screen, not the environment.

27
Q

A company is losing market share to disruptive competitors with new business models. A crossfunctional agile team has been formed to recommend ways to recover market share.
How can the team increase their chance of producing successful recommendations?

A. Focus on enabling profitable delivery of unique, high-quality and innovative products
B. Focus on understanding the value consumers seek and the value competitors offer
C. Understand how the competitors’ business models can reach more consumers at a lower cost
D. Gain a deep understanding of why customers are disappointed by the
company’s products

A

B. Focus on understanding the value consumers seek and the value competitors offer

Feedback

The first principle of the Agile Manifesto focuses on value: “Our highest priority is to satisfy the customer through early and continuous delivery of valuable software.” Markets are driven by the value consumers attribute to the offerings. Distractors are wrong because analysis is incomplete if only focussing on lost business (disappointed customers), market reach (competitors) or an uninformed push for innovation and profitability.

28
Q

The Project Management Office wants to offer constant reporting across the dozens of agile projects running concurrently. They want to use information radiators to share progress status and key lessons learned.

How can this best be achieved?

A. Place webcams to broadcast all Kanban boards and cycle the images sequentially on the radiator
B. Place monitors displaying combined feature burn-up charts and a digest of retrospectives
C. Set up an internal wiki page which all agile teams update in real time and users consult on demand
D. Use fishbowl windows to show all project teams’ Kanban boards and charts

A

B. Place monitors displaying combined feature burn-up charts and a digest of retrospectives

Feedback

The feature burn-up chart can be used as a common measure of progress and lessons learned are recorded in retrospectives. Information radiators are physical displays used to share up-to-date information across the organization. They are not live cams exclusively (fishbowl and webcam distractors) and the information in not on demand (wiki page)

29
Q

The agile team sometimes has idle periods while awaiting a product director to inform the product owner on new goals. The decisions depend on analysis of market research.

Which measure could reconcile the needs of the director and the agile team?

A. After clearing the backlog, run market research spikes to update the director
B. Plan team training events to coincide with the anticipated idle periods
C. Eliminate slack by reducing the team size to smooth the output curve
D. Run team brainstorming sessions on new goals to suggest to the director

A

A. After clearing the backlog, run market research spikes to update the director

Feedback

Running market research spikes supports the product director and helps build and diversify team skills. Distractors are wrong because the idle periods cannot be predictable enough to plan events, reducing output is against productivity, and the team’s ideas would not provide market facts needed to make informed product development decisions.

30
Q

An energy infrastructure vendor is delivering a complex solution proof of concept to a new strategic customer. The predictive project should complete in 10 weeks, but there is a long list of outstanding items, some dependent on external events with uncertain scheduling.

How should the Project Manager handle the outstanding items?

A. Add resources and crash the schedule to complete outstanding tasks
B. Plan five agile iterations to complete the tasks as soon as conditions allow
C. Descope the outstanding tasks and remove them from the invoice
D. Transfer the outstanding items to the next project with the customer

A

B. Plan five agile iterations to complete the tasks as soon as conditions allow

5 sprints can cover the 10 week window and flexibility gives the best chance to complete work in an ad-hoc manner. Distractors are wrong because of uncertainty (next project), bad commercial practice (descope) and inefficiency (crashing)

31
Q

A startup needs to quickly expand its product portfolio to meet market demand. Recently, staff might work on two or three agile teams, each dedicated to a different product line. Output is dropping and defect rates are rising in all teams.

How can the Project Manager help the agile teams improve their work? (Select TWO.)

A. Perform root-cause analysis in the next retrospectives
B. Appoint dedicated test teams to offload the agile teams
C. Influence the product owners to right-size their portfolios
D. Organize dedicated teams to reduce context switching
E. Train the agile teams to improve time and focus management

A

A. Perform root-cause analysis in the next retrospectives
D. Organize dedicated teams to reduce context switching

Feedback

The scenario leads to conclude that the main problem is high context switching when working on multiple teams which is resolved by 100% dedicated teams. Root-cause analysis would pinpoint this and other problems to address. Distractors are either counter to good business practices (right-size portfolios), counter to agile (dedicated test teams) or not addressing the root cause (time/focus management).

32
Q

A tech startup has four projects authorized and running:
1. Customer experience (CX) app development with executive stakeholders
2. Third-party app development with new vendors
3. Project with global team members who speak six languages
4. Game development using experimental technology

Which statement about risk and quality is correct?

A. These projects all contain inherent risk and require unique quality metrics.
B. The quality requirements for technology depend on external regulations. So the multilingual project team presents the lowest risk.
C. The project using experimental technology has the highest level of risk and quality standards.
D. All of these projects contain the same risk and are subject to the same quality standards because they are in the same organization.

A

A. These projects all contain inherent risk and require unique quality metrics.

Feedback

Each project has unique risk and quality requirements and contexts, and they can rarely be compared with one another–even if they are in the same organization!

33
Q

Over the past six months, the cost per story has risen by more than 250% due to a faulty platform which is no longer supported. The agile project is projected to exceed the budget increment threshold at the next iteration.

Who should decide if the project should be cancelled?

A. The product owner
B. The Project Manager
C. The procurement manager
D. The head of business control

A

A. The product owner

Feedback

The product owner acts as the sponsor in agile projects and therefore has the authority to decide if conditions warrant termination of a project.

34
Q

A project team is brainstorming a complex issue with the prototype in development. They have consulted numerous experts in the field and together, have narrowed down the choice of possible actions to two.

How should the team decide which action to take?

A. Review the project management plan.
B. Choose based on lower cost.
C. Use the Delphi technique.
D. Empower the team lead to choose.

A

Use the Delphi technique.

Feedback

This team is cohesive and is doing the right things to problem-solve. They have already consulted the experts, as this is what the Delphi technique calls for, so there is reason to think they can continue to employ this unanimous decision-making method of consulting experts and arriving at a course of action based on their advice.

35
Q

During estimating, the team is discussing an item in the backlog. It becomes clear that the item can be done in different ways but the best way is not obvious.

What should the team do to progress on this item?

A. Select the cheapest alternative to build
B. Select the fastest alternative to build
C. Add a new spike item to the backlog
D. Add ranked alternatives to the backlog

A

C. Add a new spike item to the backlog

Feedback

The spike is correct because items should be sufficiently researched (to determine the best way to deliver business value and phrase sufficiently detailed, testable stories. Distractors are incorrect because counter to the method (ranked alternatives) or not properly weighing the business value aspects.

36
Q

An agile project is structured without time-boxing. Tasks are grouped by high-level goal, but cannot be predictably scheduled.

How can the work be distributed for efficient execution? (Choose THREE.)

A. Pre-identify blockers to determine the order of execution.
B. Use a task board to group tasks into rows and track progress across columns.
C. Track readiness status to help the team initiate tasks at the right time.
D. Maintain a to do task pool to limit the number of tasks in progress.
E. Set deadlines to ensure that the team completes the work in acceptable limits.

A

B. Use a task board to group tasks into rows and track progress across columns.
C. Track readiness status to help the team initiate tasks at the right time.
D. Maintain a to do task pool to limit the number of tasks in progress.

Feedback

Work distribution in a flow-based agile approach can be more efficient if:
o task triggering is constantly monitored to reduce lag
o the task board displays progress stages in columns, potentially with tasks grouped by rows
o a pool of tasks to do limits the number of concurrent tasks in progress
Distractors are against agile practices (deadlines) or unrealistic (anticipate blockers).

37
Q

A project team has just successfully completed development of an underwater exploration device, which has cost more than $US3 billion to deliver. The company immediately orders five more units to be delivered, but with a budget of $US 1 billion. The stakeholders’ reason for the reduced budget was since the technology has been developed, the project can be funded for building costs primarily, with a small amount for troubleshooting or development work. The stakeholders’ priority is to recoup some financial value from the first project.

How should the team and the product owner approach this situation?

A. Include a feature that addresses the risk approach to this work.
B. Create a story map for the proposed development with the risks clearly accounted for in the work items.
C. Explore with the stakeholders less risky ways to gain financial value from the first project.
D. Research the risk associated with the low budget for this work and present this to the stakeholders.

A

D. Research the risk associated with the low budget for this work and present this to the stakeholders.

Feedback

Since the stakeholders’ priority is to recoup financial value from a previous project, their focus is on the money. You need to speak directly to them about the money, in this case how the low budget presents a risk that could create serious problems. Exploring other options will not address an additional risk inherent in this scenario—that of unrealistic stakeholder expectations. Both of these are part of the steward’s role in the project.

38
Q

A multi-year, hybrid pharmaceutical project adds new fixed-date activities for the team to run Machine Learning (ML) processing of medical scans. The output from the ML analysis is used by an agile team of doctors to determine next steps in a patient case.

The Project Manager has updated the scope statement and schedule; in which other documents should the Project Manager record this new process? (Select THREE.)

A. Resource Management Plan
B. Definition of Ready
C. Stakeholder Register
D. Risk Register
E. Sprint Backlog

A

A. Resource Management Plan
B. Definition of Ready
D. Risk Register

Feedback

The Definition of Ready is updated to ensure that the ML output triggers the agile team’s analysis. Risk register is updated to plan for risks relating to adapting and learning new technology and ways of working. Resource Management Plan is updated because the machines running the ML routines are resources necessary to complete the work.
Distractors are wrong because no new stakeholders are added (the team runs the ML resources), and the Sprint backlog is not appropriate before the process is specified although product backlog CAN be updated at this point.

39
Q

As a leader, emotional intelligence can help you better work with your team. What are the quadrants of emotional intelligence?

A

Self-management, self-awareness, social skills, social awareness

40
Q

Julie is a product manager responsible for a line of smart water bottles that connect to a mobile app to capture data and provide suggestions regarding your drinking habits. Julie meets with the Scrum team to talk through a major issue that threatens the latest release. Together, the team decides to focus collectively on the issue at hand until it is resolved. What is this an example of?

  1. Collaboration
  2. Value-focused work
  3. Issue management
  4. Swarming
A

Swarming is a strategy where the team, or several team members, focus collectively on resolving a blocker.

41
Q

An agile approach can alleviate issues that result when high uncertainty exists. Which statement below shows a pain point that Agile addresses under these circumstances?

  1. Unclear purpose and unclear requirements
  2. Low defects and unclear purpose
  3. Unclear requirements and low defects
  4. Technical debt, unclear purpose, and unclear requirements
A
  1. Technical debt, unclear purpose, and unclear requirements

Project teams may experience many pain points when a project contains a high degree of uncertainty, change, and complexity. Agile approaches directly address these pain points by performing activities such as creating clear team charters, among other activities.

42
Q

After reaching the end of a sprint, the Scrum team met to talk through what went well and what could be improved. One engineer noted that the recent changes to daily stand-ups were working. Which of the following describes the actions that the Scrum team carried out?

  1. Facilitated a collaboration session and a sprint retrospective
  2. Facilitated sprint planning
  3. Facilitated a sprint retrospective and a process improvement
  4. Facilitated process improvement
A

Facilitated a sprint retrospective and a process improvement

The Scrum team held a sprint retrospective. In Scrum, this meeting is held at the end of every sprint and allows the team to identify what went well during the recent sprint and what could have gone better, and they commit to improving at least one thing in the upcoming sprint. They are a combination of lessons learned and process improvement.

43
Q

You are creating the project’s budget and schedule for your team. What common issue deals with the project’s schedule?

  1. Phase sequencing
  2. Timeline planning
  3. Scope creep
  4. Program management
A

Timeline planning

Another important aspect of a project is the timeline that is set for it. This timeline can be determined based on the number of available resources to do the work and the amount of effort it will take to meet the requirements of the project. Like any schedule planning, things can go awry that may delay the progress of a project causing it to finish late or sooner than planned.

44
Q

A new project is about to begin, and you’re looking at all of the requirements. Hours, resources, quality, and value are all factors that affect what part of a project?

  1. Timeline
  2. Scope
  3. Budget
  4. Risks
A
  1. Budget

If the true effort to do the work is accurately determined. This can be used to estimate the budget based on hours and resources. Quality and value are also other factors that can be considered for a budget estimate. Creating the budget and tracking the cost throughout the project progress is important.

45
Q

A new project is about to begin, and you’re looking at all of the requirements. When are the elements of a project scope agreed upon?

  1. At the launch of the project
  2. At the launch of each iteration
  3. At the end of each iteration
  4. Before the project begins
A

At the launch of each iteration

In an adaptive or agile life cycle, the project scope and the deliverables are defined through iterations of planning and executing. The elements of the project scope are agreed upon at the launch of each iteration.

46
Q

You’re about to perform a quality review. Quality — in agile projects — is based on what?

  1. The number of stories
  2. Creating business value
  3. Meeting customer needs
  4. Meeting the project requirements
A

Meeting the project requirements

Quality in agile projects is still about meeting the project requirements.

47
Q

Frank is a project manager performing Closing activities. He is currently focused on looking at the highest business value items first. What life cycle is Frank using to deliver his project?

  1. Highly predictive
  2. Adaptive
  3. Highly adaptive
  4. Waterfall
A

Highly adaptive

Frank is using a highly adaptive (Agile) life cycle, where Closing activities involve addressing the highest business value items first versus closing out the project or phase as in a highly predictive life cycle.

48
Q

You’re creating a plan for the largest agile project of your career, so far. What are the four themes to manage when setting up large agile projects?

  1. People, product owners, ground rules, process
  2. Process, practices, product, project
  3. Process, product, planning, process
  4. People, project, product, process
A

People, project, product, process

There are four themes to manage when setting up large agile projects: people, product, project, and process.

49
Q

Stakeholder Engagement Levels?

A

Unaware, resistant, neutral, supportive, leading

50
Q

You are project manager for your company and you’ve just created the project’s stakeholder engagement plan. This plan is based on organizational process assets and enterprise environmental factors that you’re required to use in the project. The stakeholder engagement plan includes all the following components except for which one?

  1. The relationships among the stakeholders
  2. The relationship among the project team
  3. The schedule of stakeholder information distribution
  4. Communication requirements for stakeholders
A

The relationship among the project team

The stakeholder engagement plan doesn’t address the relationships among the project team. The staffing management plan, part of human resources planning, may address team development and how the team interacts.