Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

FA Review > Microbiology continued (pg 137) > Flashcards

Microbiology continued (pg 137) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the cause of leprosy?

A

Mycobacterium Leprae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the two forms of hansen disease (leprosy)?

A

Lepromatous

Tuberculoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is lepromatous leprosy? Which type of immune response is responsible for this?

A

Diffuse skin rash with lion like facies.

Th2 response (antibody mediated response)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is tuberculoid leprosy? Which type of immune response is responsible for this?

A

Limited skin lesions,

Th1 mediated (cell mediated immune response)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

MacConkey agar is specific for what type of bacteria? What is the color that indicates a positive result?

A

Lactose fermenting bacteria

Pink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the three major lactose fermenting bacteria?

A

Klebsiella
E.coli
Enterobacter
(macconKEE’s agar)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Generally, gram (positive/negative) bacteria are resistant to PCN.

A

Negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

True or false: Neisseria Gonorrhoeae is an intracellular pathogen, and is often found inside PMNs

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How do you differentiate between neisseria meningitidis and neisseria Gonorrhoeae?

A

Maltose fermentation + for meningitidis. Also it has a polysaccharide capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Is there a vaccine for Neisseria Gonorrhoeae? Meningitidis?

A

Yes for meningitidis, no for Gonorrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which has a polysaccharide capsule: Neisseria Meningitidis or Gonorrhoeae?

A

Meningitidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the gram stain and morphology of Haemophilus influenzae?

A

Gram - rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the agar that is needed to grow haemophilus bacteria?

A

Chocolate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the two factors in chocolate agar?

A

Factor V and X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the diseases that haemophilus bacteria cause?

A

Epiglottitis
Meningitis
OM
Pneumonia

haEMOPhilus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the gram stain and morphology of legionella pneumophila?

A

Gram negative rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What stain is specific for legionella? What is the agar needed?

A

Silver stain with Fe, charcoal, and Cysteine

legionnaire sitting around a charcoal campfire with a silver helmet, praying to the cysteine chapel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is characteristic of the labs for infx with legionella?

A

hyponatremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What causes pontiac fever?

A

Legionella pneumophila

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the gram stain and morphology of pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Gram negative rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Does pseudomonas ferment lactose? Is it catalase positive?

A
  • lactose fermentation

+ catalase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the diseases that pseudomonas causes?

A 
Pneumonia
Sepsis
External OM
UTI
Diabetic Osteomyelitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What causes ecthyma gangrenosum?

A

Pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the treatment for pseudomonas infx?

A

PCN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the four strains of E.coli?

A

EHEC
ETEC
EPEC
EIEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What disease doe ETEC cause?

A

Traveler’s diarrhea via enterotoxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What disease does EHEC cause? What are the toxins involved?

A

Hemorrhagic diarrhea via shiga-like toxins

Also, hemolytic-uremia syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What disease does EPEC cause? What is the toxin involved?

A

Pediatric diarrhea, no toxin produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What disease does EIEC cause?

A

Invasive diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the MOA of EIEC?

A

Disrupts brush border

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the most common serotype of EHEC?

A

0157:H7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the four diseases that klebsiella causes? (4 As)

A

Aspiration pneumonia
Abscess in lungs/liver
Alcoholics
diAbetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which has flagella: salmonella or shigella?

A

Salmonella (think salmon swim)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which can spread hematogenously: salmonella or shigella?

A

Salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which has only human reservoirs: salmonella or shigella?

A

Shigella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How do you distinguish between salmonella and shigella?

A

H2S test–salmonella is + (think, salmon smell funny).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Are abx effective with salmonella?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which ferments lactose: salmonella or shigella?

A

Neither

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

True or false: salmonella typhi is only found in humans

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Rose spot on the abdomen + diarrhea = ?

A

Salmonella typhi (typhoid fever)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What does campylobacter jejuni cause?

A

The major cause of bloody diarrhea, especially in children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which bacterial infection of the GI tract is associated with the onset of Guillian-Barre syndrome?

A

Campylobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Is campylobacter oxidase positive or negative

A

Positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What disease does Yersinia enterocolitica cause? How is it transmitted?

A

Colitis–transmitted via contaminated milk or cheese

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the gram stain and morphology of helicobacter pylori? Positive or negative: catalase, urease, oxidase?

A

Curved gram negative rod that is

All positive for th stuffs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the enzyme that allows helicobacter pylori to survive in the low pH of the stomach?

A

Urease–produces NH4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How can you test for helicobacter pylori?

A

Urea breath test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the three spirochetes?

A

Leptospira
Treponema
Borrelia

(BLT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What disease does leptospira interrogans cause? Symptoms?

A

Leptospirosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Animal urine exposure + jaundice + ILI= ?

A

Leptospirosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the causative agent of lyme disease? What genus of tick carries this?

A

Borrelia Burgdorferi–ixodes tick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the symptoms of Lyme disease? (FAKE a keyLYME pie)

A

Facial nerve palsy
Arthritis
(K)ardiac block
Erythema migrans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the treatment for lyme disease?

A

Doxycycline + ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the causative agent of Syphilis?

A

Treponema pallidum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the treatment for syphilis?

A

PCN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Painless chancre = ?

A

primary Syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the symptoms of secondary syphilis?

A

Rash on the palms and soles of the feet, condyloma lata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the symptoms of tertiary syphilis?

A

Gummas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Infant with saber shins + Hutchinson incisors = ?

A

Congenital syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is Argyll Robertson (prostitute) pupil? What disease is this associated with?

A

Pupil that will react to accommodation, but not to light

Tertiary syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the Jarish-Herxheimer reaction?

A

Reaction to antibiotics due to release of pyrogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the causative agent of cat scratch fever?

A

Bartonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is anaplasmosis?

A

Tick borne illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the cause of relapsing fever?

A

Borrelia recurrentis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the usual vector for brucellosis?

A

Unpasteurized milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Undulating Fever + diaphoresis + wet hay smell = ?

A

Brucellosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the usual vector for psittacosis? What are the symptoms?

A

Parrots–nothing to septicemia + pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the causative agent of Q fever? Vector?

A

Coxiella burnetii— from aerosols of cattle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is ehrlichiosis?

A

Fever from the lone stay tick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the causative agent of tularemia? Vector?

A

Francisella tularensis—from small game

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the gram stain and morphology of francisella tularensis?

A

gram negative coccobacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the causative agent of rocky spotted mountain fever?

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What disease does pasteurella multocida cause?

A

Cellulitis from animal scratches/bites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the causative agent of bacterial vaginosis?

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Clue cells = ?

A

BV

76
Q

What is the treatment for BV?

A

Clindamycin

77
Q

What is the treatment for all Rickettsial and tick borne diseases?

A

Doxycycline

78
Q

Rash after tick bite that starts at the wrists and ankles, and spreads to trunk, palms, and soles = ?

A

Rocky mountain spotted fever (rickettsia on the wRists)

79
Q

Rash from a tick bite that starts on the trunk, and moves outward = ?

A

Typhus (on the Trunk)

80
Q

Monocytes with berry-like inclusions in cytoplasm from a tick bite = ?

A

Ehrlichiosis

81
Q

What is the vector for anaplasma?

A

Ticks

82
Q

What is the causative agent of Q fever?

A

Coxiella burnetii

83
Q

What is the vector for coxiella burnetii (the causative agent of Q fever)? Symptoms?

A

Tick feces. -NO rash—pneumonia + fever

84
Q

Why is chlamydia an obligate intracellular parasite?

A

Cannot make its own ATP

85
Q

What are the two forms of Chlamydia? Which is infectious?

A

Elementary bodies–“Enfectious”

Reticulate body–replicates

86
Q

Cytoplasmic inclusions seen on Giemsa or fluorescent antibody stain?

A

Chlamydia

87
Q

Which species of chlamydia causes reactive arthritis (Reiter syndrome)?

A

Trachomatis

88
Q

What is the treatment for chlamydia?

A

Azithromycin or doxy

89
Q

What disease do serotypes A, B, and C of chlamydia trachomatis cause?

A

Follicular conjunctivitis, and blindness

ABC for African Blindness/Chronic infx

90
Q

What disease do serotypes D-K of chlamydia trachomatis cause?

A

PID, neonatal pneumonia/conjuntivitis

91
Q

What disease do serotypes L1, L2, and L3 of chlamydia trachomatis cause?

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum (small painless genital ulcers (buboes)

92
Q

What are the symptoms of infx with mycoplasma pneumonia?

A

Atypical pneumonia

93
Q

Where/in what populations is infx with mycoplasma pneumoniae found?

A

Prisons and military barracks

94
Q

Atypical pneumonia + no cell wall of bacteria + not seen on gram stain = ?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

95
Q

Why doesn’t mycoplasma pneumoniae stain with gram staining?

A

Has sterols in wall for stability

96
Q

What is the only infectious fungus that is not dimorphic? What form does it take?

A

Coccidioidomycosis—spherules

97
Q

Spherule fungi = ?

A

Coccidioidomycosis

98
Q

What is the treatment for systemic infx with coccidioidomycosis?

A

Amphoterrible B

99
Q

Where is histoplasmosis endemic to? Symptoms? Characteristics under light microscopy?

A

Mississippi river valley.
Pneumonia
WITHIN macrophages (Histo Hides, within macrophages)

100
Q

Where is blastomycosis endemic to? Symptoms? Characteristics under light microscopy?

A

States east of mississippi
Pneumonia
broad based buds

101
Q

Where is coccidioidomycosis endemic to? Symptoms? Characteristics under light microscopy?

A

Southwestern US
Pneumonia
Spherule

102
Q

Where is paracoccidioidomycosis endemic to? Symptoms? Characteristics under light microscopy?

A

Latin America
Captain’s wheel appearance

(parasails to Latin american with the captain’s wheel)

103
Q

Captain’s wheel fungi=?

A

Paracoccidioidomycosis

104
Q

Spherule fungi = ?

A

Coccidioidomycosis

105
Q

Fungi within macrophages = ?

A

Histoplasmosis (hist hides)

106
Q

Budding fungi?

A

Blastomycosis (blasto buds)

107
Q

What is the causative agent of tinea versicolor?

A

Malassezia furfur

108
Q

What disease does malassezia furfur cause?

A

Cutaneous mycoses (tinea versicolor)

109
Q

tinea ungium = ?

A

Onychomycosis

110
Q

What is the stain for fungi?

A

KOH prep

111
Q

What is the treatment for candida infx?

A

Topical azole or amphoterrible B

112
Q

Diabetic BV after abx use = ?

A

Candida albicans infx

113
Q

What are the microscopic characteristics of candida albicans?

A

Pseudohyphae or Germ tubes

114
Q

Germ tube = ?

A

Candida albicans

115
Q

What disease does aspergillus fumigatus cause?

A

Pneumonia

116
Q

Septate hyphae that branch at 45 degrees = ?

A

Aspergillus fumigatus (Acute Angles in Aspergillus)

117
Q

India ink stain + = ?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

118
Q

What is the reservoir of cryptococcus neoformans?

A

Bird droppings

119
Q

What diseases does cryptococcus neoformans cause?

A

Meningitis

120
Q

Soap bubble lesion on head CT in immunocompromised pt=?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

121
Q

In whom is mucor and Rhizopus fungal infx found?

A

DM or leukemia pts

122
Q

What is the treatment for infx with mucor and/or rhizopus infx?

A

Amp B

123
Q

What disease does pneumocystis jirovecii cause, and in whom?

A

PCP in AIDS pts

124
Q

Disc shaped yeast on methenamine silver stain of lung tissue?

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci

125
Q

What disease does sporothrix schenckii cause? How is it usually transmitted?

A

Sporotrichosis (lymphatic spread of fungi)–rose thorns

126
Q

Fungal infx from a rose thorn?

A

Sporotrichosis

127
Q

What is the treatment for sporotrichosis?

A

KI (rose in the pot)

128
Q

What are the symptoms of infx with giardia?

A

Fatty, foul smelling diarrhea

129
Q

How is giardia spread?

A

Spores in water

130
Q

What is the treatment for giardiasis?

A

Metronidazole

131
Q

What disease does entamoeba histolytica cause? (2 symptoms)

A

Dysentery, liver abscesses

132
Q

What are the histological characteristics of entamoeba histolytica?

A

Multinucleated trophozoites (like eyes looking back at you)

133
Q

What disease/symptoms does infection with cryptosporidium cause?

A

Severe diarrhea in immunocompromised, o/w mild diarrhea

134
Q

What is the treatment for toxoplasmosis?

A

Sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine

135
Q

What disease does infection with naegleria fowleri cause? Where is this found?

A

rapid meningoencephalitis—freshwater lakes

136
Q

What is the treatment for infection with naegleria fowleri?

A

Amp B (maybe)

137
Q

What is the causative agent of african sleeping sickness?

A

Trypanosoma brucei

138
Q

What is the vector for trypanosoma brucei?

A

Tsetse fly

139
Q

What is the treatment for african sleeping sickness?

A

Suramin for hematogenous
Melarsoprol for CNS penetration

(Sure nice to go to sleep; Melatonin helps with that)

140
Q

How do you diagnose african sleeping sickness?

A

Blood smear

141
Q

How do you diagnose naegleria fowleri?

A

Spinal tap

142
Q

What is the causative agent of malaria?

A

Plasmodium

143
Q

What is the species of plasmodium that causes 48 hr cycle fevers?

A

vivax or ovale

144
Q

What is the species of plasmodium that causes irregular cycle fevers?

A

p. falciparum

145
Q

What is the species of plasmodium that causes 72 hr cycle fevers?

A

p. malariae

146
Q

What is the treatment for malaria?

A

chloroquine

147
Q

What disease contraindicates use of chloroquine for the treatment of malaria?

A

G6PD deficiency

148
Q

What disease does babesia causes? Symptoms?

A

Babesiosis– fever + hemolytic anemia

149
Q

Whos is at risk of developing babesia?

A

Asplenic individuals

150
Q

What is the causative agent of Chagas disease? vector = ?

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

Reduviid bug

151
Q

What are the symptoms of Chagas disease?

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy

152
Q

What is the vector for leishmania donovani?

A

Sandfly

153
Q

What are the symptoms of visceral leishmaniasis?

A

Spiking fevers, hepatosplenomegaly

154
Q

Foul smelling, greenish vaginal discharge + strawberry cervix = ?

A

trichomonas vaginalis

155
Q

What is the treatment for trichomonas?

A

Metronidazole

156
Q

What is the bacterial cause of BV?

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

157
Q

How do you diagnose trichomonas?

A

Wet mount

158
Q

What is the scientific name for the pinworm?

A

Enterobius vermicularis

159
Q

What is the treatment for enterobius vermicularis?

A

Bendazoles (since worms are bendy)

160
Q

What is disease that ascaris lumbricoides causes?

A

Live in intestines after being coughed up

161
Q

What is strongyloides stercoralis?

A

Worm the can live in soil (not as eggs), and penetrates the skin to infect

162
Q

Ancylostoma and Necator americanus gain entry into the body how? Where do they disseminate to?

A

Penetrate the skin, and disseminate to the intestines

163
Q

What is the causative agent of river blindness? Vector?

A

onchocerca volvulus

Vector = black flies

164
Q

What is the vector for loa loa?

A

Mango flies

165
Q

What is the causative agent of elephantiasis?

A

Wuchereria bancrofti

166
Q

What is the causative agent of visceral larva migrans? What is this disease?

A

Toxocara canis—cyst formation in organs d/t incorrect host

167
Q

What are the three nematodes that are transmitted via ingestion? (don’t EAT these)

A

Enterobius (vermicularis)
Ascaris (lumbricoides)
Toxocara (canis)

168
Q

What are the three nematodes that are transmitted via cutaneous infx? (from the SANd)

A

Strongyloides
Ancylostoma
Necator

169
Q

What are the three nematodes that are transmitted via bites? (law LOW to avoid being bitten)

A

Loa loa
Onchocerca volvulus
Wuchereria bancrofti

170
Q

What is the pork tapeworm?

A

Taenia solium

171
Q

What is the fish tapeworm?

A

Diphyllobothrium latum

172
Q

What is the dog tapeworm?

A

Echinococcus granulosus

173
Q

Which tapeworm causes hydatid cyst disease?

A

Dog tapeworm (echinococcus granulosus)

174
Q

What is the host of schistosomes?

A

Snails

175
Q

What is schistosomiasis?

A

Liver and spleen granulomas

176
Q

What is the name for the chinese liver fluke? What are the symptoms of infection?

A

Clonorchis sinensis

Asymptomatic to bile duct issues

177
Q

What are the symptoms of schistosomiasis?

A

Dysentery

178
Q

How is clonorchis sinensis transmitted?

A

Undercooked fish

179
Q

Biliary tract disease, cholangiocarcinoma = which parasite?

A

Clonorchis sinensis

180
Q

Brain cysts, Szs = which parasite?

A

Taenia solium

181
Q

Hematuria + bladder CA = which parasite?

A

Schistosoma haematobium

182
Q

Liver cysts = which parasite?

A

Echinococcus granulosus

183
Q

Microcytic anemia = which parasite?

A

Ancylostoma, necator

184
Q

Perianal pruritus = which parasite?

A

Pinworm (Enterobius)

185
Q

Portal HTN = which parasite?

A

Schistosoma mansoni, schistosoma japonicu

186
Q

Vit B12 deficiency = which parasite

A

Diphyllobothrium latum

FA Review (22 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions