Micro Flashcards

1
Q

What is the function of the peptidoglycan layer?

A

Gives cells rigid support.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the major surface antigen on bacteria?

A

Cell wall (if gram positive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the antigenic part of the outer membrane of gram negative bacteria?

A

Lipid A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the function of the capsule of bacteria?

A

Protects against phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the function of pilli?

A

Cell attachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the function of the glycocalyx?

A

Mediates cell adherence to surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the gram stain and morphology of staph and strep?

A

Gram positive cocci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the gram stain and morphology of Neisseria?

A

Gram negative cocci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the gram stain and morphology of Clostridium?

A

Gram positive rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the gram stain and morphology of Corynybacterium?

A

Gram positive rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the gram stain and morphology of Bacillus?

A

Gram positive rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the gram stain and morphology of Listeria?

A

Gram positive rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the gram stain and morphology of mycobacterium?

A

Weak Gram positive (acid fast) rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the gram stain and morphology of gardnerella?

A

Gram variable rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the two gram positive, branching filamentous rods?

A

Actinomyces

Nocardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the two pleomorphic, gram negative rods?

A

Rickettsiae

Chlamydiae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the three gram negative spirochetes?

A

Borrelia
Leptospira
Treponema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the three major gram negative respiratory bacteria?

A

Haemophilus
Legionella
Bordetella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the 6 bacteria that do not gram stain well? (hint: These Microbes May Lack Real Color)

A
Treponema
Mycobacteria
Mycoplasma
Legionella
Rickettsia
chlamydia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the bacteria that stain with a Giemsa stain? (hint: Certain Bugs Really Try My Patience)

A
Chlamydia
Borrelia
Rickettsia
Trypanosomes
Plasmodium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the PAS reaction used for?

A

Polysaccharides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

India ink stain = ?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Ziehl-Neelsen (carbol fuchsin rxn) is used to identify which bacteria?

A

Nocardia and Mycobacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Silver stain is used to identify what type of organisms?

A

Fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which bacteria needs chocolate agar with factors V (NAD) and X (hematin)?

A

H. influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which bacteria needs Thayer-Martin media (VPM)?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Neisseria Meningitidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is contained within the VPM media that N. gonorrhoeae and N. Meningitidis need?

A

Vancomycin
Polymyxin
Nystatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which bacteria needs Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar?

A

Bordetella pertussis (bordet for bordetella)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which bacteria needs Lowenstein-Jensen agar?

A

TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the agar that fungi need to grow?

A

Sabourand (Sab’s a fun gi)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Aerobic or anaerobic: Nocardia

A

aerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Aerobic or anaerobic: Pseudomonas

A

aerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Aerobic or anaerobic: mycobacterium

A

aerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Aerobic or anaerobic: clostridium

A

Anaerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Aerobic or anaerobic: Bacteroides

A

Anaerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Aerobic or anaerobic: actinomyces

A

Anaerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the enzymes needed for a bacteria to be able to survive oxygen?

A

Catalase and superoxide dismutase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Burn wounds, what bacteria?

A

Pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the two intracellular parasitic bacteria?

A

Rickettsia, and chlamydia (stay inside cells when it’s Really Cold)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the eight facultative intracellular parasites?

A
salmonella
Neisseria
Brucella
Mycobacterium
Listeria
Francisella
Legionella
Yersinia

(Some Nasty Bugs May Live Facultatively)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the 7 encapsulated bacteria that are normally cleared by the spleen? (SHiNE SKiS)

A
Strep pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae type B
Neisseria meningitidis
E.coli
Salmonella
Klebsiella
GBS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the catalase positive organisms (7, PLACESS for your cats)?

A
Pseudomonas
Listeria
Aspergillus
candida
E.coli
S. Aureus
Serratia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the cause of chronic granulomatous disease?

A

Defect or deficiency of NADPH oxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

True or false: a pure polysaccharide antigen cannot be presented to T cells for immune system activation

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

True or false: H influenzae, Meningococcal, and PCV vaccines are all conjugated polysaccharide vaccines

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the urease positive organisms? (CHuck norris hates PUNKSS)

A
Cryptococcus
H. Pylori
Proteus
ureaplasma
Nocardia
Klebsiella
S epidermidis
S. Saprophyticus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the color of the pigment produced by actinomyces israelii?

A

Yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the color of the pigment produced by Staph Aureus?

A

yellow (Aureus = gold)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the color of pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the color of Marcescens?

A

Red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the function of the protein A bacterial virulence factor?

A

Binds to Fc region of IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the function of the IgA protease that is secreted by S. pneumoniae, Neisseria, and H .influ?

A

Cleaves IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which bacteria secrete IgA protease (hint, all are encapsulated bacteria, but not all encapsulated bacteria secrete IgA protease)?

A

S. pneumoniae
H .influ
Neisseria
(SHiN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the M protein found on bacteria?

A

prevents phagocytosis. Expressed by GAS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Is exotoxin found on gram negative or gram positive bacteria?

A

Both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Is endotoxin found on gram negative or gram positive bacteria?

A

Negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Is exotoxin found on cell membranes, or secreted? Endotoxin?

A

Exo is secreted

Endo found on gram - cell walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What type of polymer are exotoxins? Endotoxins?

A
Exo = polypeptide
Endo = Lipopolysaccharide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Where is the gene located for exotoxins? Endotoxins?

A
Exo = Plasmid
Endo = Bacterial chromosome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the toxicity of exotoxins? Endotoxins?

A
Exo = highly toxic
Endo = low toxicity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the effects of endotoxins?

A

fever
Shock
DIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the MOA of endotoxin (what are the three chemokines that the body secretes)?

A

Induces TNF-alpha
IL-1
IL-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Is the antigenicity of exotoxins high or low? Endo?

A
Exo = induces many antibodies
Endo = Low
64
Q

Is there a vaccine available for exotoxins? How about endotoxins?

A
Exo = yes
Endo = no
65
Q

Which is more heat stable: endotoxins or exotoxins?

A

Endo

66
Q

Clostridium tetani: endo or exotoxin?

A

Exo

67
Q

Diphtheria: endotoxin or exotoxin?

A

Exo

68
Q

What is the MOA of diptheria toxin?

A

Inactivates EF-2

69
Q

What is the exotoxin that pseudomonas releases? MOA?

A

Exotoxin A

Inactivates EF-2

70
Q

What is the exotoxin that Shigella releases? MOA?

A

Shiga toxin

Inactivates 60S ribosome

71
Q

What is the exotoxin that EHEC releases? MOA?

A

Shiga-like toxin

Inactivates 60S ribosome

72
Q

Does EHEC invade host cells?

A

No

73
Q

What causes the diarrhea associated with Shiga toxin?

A

Gi mucosal damage

74
Q

What is the MOA of the heat labile toxin that ETEC releases? Heat stable one?

A

heat labile=Over Activates cAMP (labile in the Air)

Stable = over activates cGMP (stable on the Ground)

75
Q

What is the exotoxin that bacillus anthracis releases? MOA?

A

Edema factor

Mimics adenylate cyclase

76
Q

Black eschar = ?

A

Bacillus anthracis

77
Q

What is the exotoxin that Vibrio Cholerae releases? MOA?

A

Cholera toxin

Over Activates adenylate cyclase

78
Q

Rice water diarrhea = ?

A

Cholera

79
Q

What is the exotoxin that bordetella pertussis releases? MOA?

A

Pertussis toxin

Increases cAMP to inhibit phagocytosis

80
Q

What is the exotoxin that Clostridium tetani releases? MOA?

A

Tetanospasmin

Inhibits SNAREs of presynaptic terminals of inhibitory interneurons

81
Q

What is the exotoxin that clostridium botulinum releases? MOA?

A

Botulinum toxin

Inhibits SNARES of excitatory neurons

82
Q

What is the exotoxin that Clostridium perfringens releases? MOA?

A

Alpha toxin

phospholipase degrades cells membranes

83
Q

What is the exotoxin that Streptococcus pyogenes releases? MOA?

A

Streptolysin O

protein that degrades cell membranes

84
Q

What is the disease caused by clostridium perfringens?

A

Diarrhea, myonecrosis, gas gangrene

85
Q

What is the bacteria that causes toxic shock syndrome? Exotoxin?

A

Staph Aureus—TSST-1

86
Q

What is the superantigen that GAS (strep pyogenes) releases?

A

Exotoxin A

87
Q

Is LPS heat stable or labile?

A

Stable

88
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of LPS shock (ENDOTOXIN)

A
Edema
Nitric oxide
DIC
Outer membrane
TNF-alpha
O antigen
eXtremely heat stable
IL-1
Neutrophil chemotaxis
89
Q

What is bacterial transformation?

A

Ability to take up naked DNA

90
Q

Which bacteria can transform easily?

A

SHiN
S. pneumoniae
H. Influ
Neisseria

91
Q

Is F+ x F+ possible?

A

No

92
Q

Is F+ x Hfr possible?

A

Yes

93
Q

What is bacterial transposition?

A

Segment of bacterial DNA that can transpose from one location to another

94
Q

What is generalized transduction?

A

Lytic cycle

95
Q

What is specialized transduction?

A

When Bacterial DNA is incorporated into phage protein capsule

96
Q

What are the ABCDE toxins that are encoded by lysogenic phages?

A
shigA
botulinum
Cholera
Diphtheria
Erythrogenic toxin of strep pyogenes
97
Q

Gram positive bacteria with branching filaments that is anaerobic and not acid fast. What bacteria is this?

A

Actinomyces

98
Q

Gram positive bacteria printing film in aerobic and acid fast. What bacteria is this?

A

Nocardia

99
Q

Gram positive cocci that is catalase positive and coagulase positive = ?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

100
Q

Gram positive cocci that is catalase negative = ?

A

Strep

101
Q

Gram positive cocci that is catalase positive, Coagulase negative, and novobiocin sensitive is what?

A

Staph epidermidis

102
Q

Gram positive cocci that is catalase positive, Coagulase negative, and NOT novobiocin sensitive is what?

A

Staph Saprophyticus

103
Q

Gram positive cocci that is catalase negative, and hemolysis alpha = ?

A

Strep pneumoniae

104
Q

Gram positive cocci that is catalase negative, and hemolysis beta= ?

A

S. pyogenes

S. Agalactiae

105
Q

Gram positive cocci that is catalase negative, and hemolysis gamma= ?

A

Group D enterococcus

106
Q

How do you differentiate between strep pyogenes and strep agalactiae?

A

bacitracin positive = pyogenes

107
Q

Is strep pyogenes bacitracin sensitive?

A

Yes

108
Q

What does alpha hemolysis mean?

A

partial hemolysis

109
Q

What does beta hemolysis mean?

A

Complete hemolysis

110
Q

What does gamma hemolysis mean?

A

No hemolysis on blood agar

111
Q

Which Staphylococcus bacteria is novobiocin resistant?

A

Staph Saprophyticus

112
Q

Which Staphylococcus bacteria is sensitive to novobiocin?

A

Staph Epidermidis

113
Q

Which streptococcus bacteria is optochin sensitive?

A

Pneumoniae

114
Q

Which streptococcus bacteria is optochin resistant?

A

Viridans

115
Q

Which strep bacteria is bacitracin resistant? Sensitive?

A
resistant = GBS
Sensitive = GAS
116
Q

What is the virulence factor on Staph Aureus?

A

Protein A

117
Q

What is the MOA of TSST-1?

A

binds to MHC class II, resulting in polyclonal T cell activation…shock

118
Q

Gram positive cocci that is catalase positive, coagulase positive = ?

A

Staph Aureus

119
Q

What is the major bacteria that coats catheters?

A

Staph Epidermidis

120
Q

What are the first and second most common causes of UTIs?

A

E.coli

Staph Saprophyticus

121
Q

What are the four diseases that strep pneumoniae commonly causes? Is strep pneumoniae optochin sensitive or resistant?

A

Meningitis
OM
Pneumonia
Sinusitis

(MOPS (most optochin sensitive))

122
Q

True or false: strep pneumoniae has no virulence without a capsule?

A

true

123
Q

Which hemolysis result for Strep viridans? Which abx is used to differentiate them? Sensitive or resistant?

A

Alpha
Optochin
resistant

(they colonize the mouth because they are not afraid of the chin (optochin))

124
Q

What is the causative agent of strep throat?

A

Strep pyogenes

125
Q

What is the cause of acute glomerulonephritis?

A

Strep pyogenes

126
Q

What is the abx used to differentiate strep pyogenes? Sensitive or resistant?

A

Bacitracin sensitive

127
Q

Bacitracin is used to differentiate between which two groups of strep? Which is sensitive/resistant?

A

GBS = resistant

Strep pyogenes = sensitive

128
Q

What diseases do enterococcus bacteria cause?

A

UTIs

129
Q

What disease is strep bovis associated with?

A

Colon cancer (bovis in the blood = CA in the colon)

130
Q

Pseudomembranous pharyngitis = ?

A

Diphtheria

131
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae = gram positive or negative? rods or cocci?

A

gram positive rods

132
Q

Which of the following bacteria form spores:

  • strep pyogenes
  • Clostridium perfringens
  • Clostridium tetani
  • Bacillus anthracis
  • Staph aureus
A
  • Clostridium perfringens
  • Clostridium tetani
  • Bacillus anthracis
133
Q

What are the neurons that are affected by tetanospasmin?

A

renshaw cells

134
Q

What is the MOA of botulinum toxin?

A

Inhibits SNAREs from releasing ACh

135
Q

Canned goods, honey = ?

A

C. Botulinum

136
Q

gas gangrene = ?

A

Clostridium Perfringens

137
Q

What are the two toxins released by C. diff? What does each do?

A

Toxin A–binds brush border

Toxin B–disrupts actin polymerization

138
Q

What is the treatment for C. diff infx?

A

Vanco

139
Q

Bacillus anthracis: gram positive or negative? Morphology? Spores?

A

gram positive Rod

yes to spores

140
Q

Box shaped, gram positive, rods?

A

Anthrax

141
Q

What is cutaneous anthrax? (symptoms, prognosis)?

A

Black esher, rarely deadly

142
Q

What is pulmonary anthrax?

A

Woolsorter’s disease

very deadly

143
Q

What disease does bacillus cereus cause?

A

Food poisoning

144
Q

reheated rice = ?

A

bacillus anthracis

145
Q

Unpasteurized deli meats and cheeses + food poisoning = ?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

146
Q

Rocket bacteria = ?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

147
Q

Listeria: rods or cocci? gram positive or negative?

A

gram positive rods

148
Q

Nocardia vs actinomyces: which is gram positive

A

Both

149
Q

Nocardia vs actinomyces: which is aerobic

A

nocardia

150
Q

Nocardia vs actinomyces: which is acid fast

A

nocardia

151
Q

Nocardia vs actinomyces: which is treated with PCN, and which with sulfa?

A
Actinomyces = PCN
Nocardia = Sulfa
152
Q

What is a Ghon complex?

A

Focus of radiopacity, indicative of TB

153
Q

What disease does mycobacterium Kansasii cause?

A

Like TB, but less severe

154
Q

What disease does mycobacterium avium-intracellulare cause?

A

Disseminated, non-TB disease in AIDS pts

155
Q

true or false: all mycobacteria are acid fast

A

True