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fa review > Lymphoid structures > Flashcards

Lymphoid structures Flashcards

1
Q

What is the function of lymph nodes?

A

Filtration by macrophages, storage of T and B cells

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2
Q

What are primary follicles?

A

Lymph nodes that are dormant

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3
Q

What are secondary follicles?

A

Lymph nodes that are actively producing B and T cells

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4
Q

What cells are contained within the medulla of a lymph node?

A

Lymphocytes and plasma cells

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5
Q

What cells are contained within the paracortex of the lymph node?

A

T cells

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6
Q

Where does lymph drain from the head and neck?

A

Cervical lymph nodes

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7
Q

What are the lymph nodes that drain the lungs?

A

Hilar lymph nodes

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8
Q

What are the lymph nodes that drain the trachea and the esophagus?

A

Mediastinal lymph nodes

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9
Q

What are the lymph nodes that drain the Upper limb, breast, and skin above the umbilicus?

A

Axillary lymph

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10
Q

What are the lymph nodes that drain the liver, stomach, spleen, pancreas, and upper duodenum?

A

Celiac

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11
Q

What are the lymph nodes that drain the colon from the splenic flexure to the upper rectum?

A

Inferior mesenteric

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12
Q

What are the lymph nodes that drain the tests, ovaries, kidneys, and uterus?

A

Para-aortic nodes

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13
Q

What are the lymph nodes that drain the anal canal (below the pectinate line), and skin below the umbilicus?

A

Superficial inguinal

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14
Q

What are the lymph nodes that drain the dorsolateral foot and posterior calf?

A

Popliteal

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15
Q

What part of the spleen houses T cells?

A

WhiTe pulp

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16
Q

What part of the spleen houses B cells?

A

Red pulp

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17
Q

What is contain within the marginal zone of the spleen ( the area between the white and red pulp)?

A

APCs and B cells

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18
Q

Asplenic pts are susceptible to infections with which bacteria? (6)

A 
Strep pneumoniae
HIB
N. Meningitidis
E. Coli
Salmonella
GBS

(SHiNE SKiS)

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19
Q

What are Howell–Jolly bodies, and in what condition are they seen in?

A

DNA inclusions in RBCs, caused by splenectomy

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20
Q

Why is there thrombocytosis in pts who are asplenic?

A

Spleen normally removes platelets

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21
Q

What is the site of maturation for B cells, and T cells?

A

B cells = bone

T cells = Thymus

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22
Q

Is adaptive immunity inheritable?

A

No

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23
Q

TLRs and PAMPs are key in the innate immune response, or the adaptive?

A

Innate

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24
Q

What are the gene loci for MHC class I?

A

HLA-A, B, and C

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25
Q

What are the gene loci for MHC class II?

A

HLA-DR, DP, DQ

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26
Q

CD4 binds to MHC I or II?

A

II

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27
Q

CD8 binds to MHC I or II?

A

I

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28
Q

Which MHC class is responsible for presenting endogenously synthesized antigens, class I or II?

A

I

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29
Q

Which MHC class is responsible for presenting exogenously synthesized antigens to Th cells, class I or II?

A

II

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30
Q

Which class of MHC loads peptides in the RER?

A

I

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31
Q

Which class of MHC proteins loads peptides following the release of invariant chain in acidified endosome?

A

II

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32
Q

HLA haplotype A 3 is associated with what disease?

A

Hemochromatosis

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33
Q

What is the HLA haplotype that is associated with Psoriatic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, IBD, and reactive arthritis?

A

B27

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34
Q

What is the HLA haplotype that is associated with celiac disease?

A

DQ2/DQ8

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35
Q

What is Goodpasture syndrome?

A

Autoimmune attack of BM or lungs and kidneys

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36
Q

What is the HLA haplotype that is associated with Goodpasture syndrome, MS, and SLE?

A

DR2

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37
Q

What is the HLA haplotype that is associated with DM I, SLE, and Grave’s disease?

A

DR3

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38
Q

What is the HLA haplotype that is associated with RA?

A

DR4 (“There are 4 walls in a ‘room’”)

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39
Q

What is the HLA haplotype that is associated with pernicious anemia?

A

DR5

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40
Q

Pernicious anemia is caused by what?

A

B12 deficiency

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41
Q

What are two protein/enzyme that NK cells utilize to kill tumor cells?

A

Perforin and granzymes

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42
Q

NK cells are activated by which ILs? (4)

A

IL2, IL12, IFN beta and alpha

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43
Q

What is the role of Th 4 cells?

A

Help B cells make antibodies and produce cytokines

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44
Q

What is the role of CD8 T cells?

A

Kill infected cells

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45
Q

Positive selection of T cells occurs in which part of the thymus? What is positive selection?

A

Cortex

T cells expressing TCRs capable of binding self MHC survive

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46
Q

Negative selection of T cells occurs in which part of the thymus? What is negative selection?

A

Medulla

T cells bindings too tightly with self antigens die

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47
Q

What is the cytokine that induces CD4 T cells to differentiate into Th1 cells? Th2? Th17? Treg?

A 
Th1 = IL 12
Th4 = IL2
Th17 = TGF-beta + IL6
Treg = TGFbeta
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48
Q

What are the three types of APCs?

A

B cells
Macrophages
Dendritic cells

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49
Q

What are the costimulatory signals involved in T cell activation?

A

B7 and CD28

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50
Q

CD40 receptor on B cells binds to what ligand on Th cells?

A

CD40 ligand

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51
Q

What are the steps of T cell activation?

A

Dendritic cell presentation via MHC II to Th.

Th cell presents to CD8 T cells

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52
Q

What are the steps of B cell activation?

A

Th cell stimulated, then B cell activation. Work together to achieve full activation

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53
Q

What determines the class switching from IgM?

A

Th cell cytokines

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54
Q

Th1 cells secrete what cytokine?

A

IFN-gamma

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55
Q

Th2 cells secrete what cytokines (4)?

A

IL 4, 5, 6, 13

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56
Q

Th1 cells do what?

A

Activate Macrophages and CTLs

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57
Q

Th2 cells do what?

A

Recruits eosinophils for parasite defense and promote IgE production

58
Q

Th1 cells are inhibited by what two cytokines?

A

IL4 and IL10

59
Q

Th2 cells are inhibited by what cytokine?

A

IFN-gamma

60
Q

Macrophages release what cytokine to stimulate T cells to differentiate into Th1 cells?

A

IL12

61
Q

Th1 cells release what cytokine to stimulate macrophages?

A

IFN-gamma

62
Q

What are the proteins that CTLs release to destroy cells?

A

Perforin and granzymes

63
Q

What is the role of regulatory T cells?

A

Suppressing CD4 and CD8 T cells

64
Q

Transcription factor FOXP3 is found in what immune cells?

A

Tregs

65
Q

What part of IgM and IgG fixes complement?

A

Fc portion

66
Q

What parts of antibodies recognize antigens?

A

Variable portions of the heavy and light chains

67
Q

Which chain contributes to both Fc and Fab portions of an antibody? What part of the antibody does the other contribute?

A

Heavy chain contributes both

Light portion only contributes to Fab portion

68
Q

What part of the antibody determines the isotype of the antibody (Fc or Fab region)?

A

Fc region

69
Q

What are the four Cs of the Fc portion of antibodies?

A

Constant
Carboxy terminal
Complement binding
Carbohydrate side chains

70
Q

How is antibody diversity generated?

A

random recombination of V(D)J genes

71
Q

True or false: IgG crosses the placenta

A

True

72
Q

True or false: IgA fixes complement

A

False

73
Q

True or false: IgM crosses the placenta

A

False

74
Q

What is the function of IgD?

A

Unknown

75
Q

Which antibody mediates Type I hypersensitivities, by binding to mast cells and basophils?

A

IgE

76
Q

What is the primary antibody?

A

IgM

77
Q

What is the secondary antibody?

A

IgG

78
Q

Which antibody can be found as a dimer, and crosses mucus membranes?

A

IgA

79
Q

Which antibody can be found as a pentamer, and is the main antibody found on immature B cells?

A

IgM

80
Q

What are thymus independent antigens?

A

Antigens that lack a peptide component

81
Q

What are thymus dependent antigens?

A

Antigens that contain a protein component, allowing for class switching, and all the goodies that come with adaptive immunity

82
Q

What organ produces acute phase reactant proteins?

A

Liver

83
Q

Prolonged elevation of serum amyloid A can lead to what?

A

Amyloidosis

84
Q

What is the role of CRP?

A

Opsonizes, fixes complement

85
Q

What is the role of ferritin?

A

Binds and sequesters Fe

86
Q

What is the role of fibrinogen?

A

Coagulation factor.

87
Q

What is the role of hepcidin?

A

Prevents the release of Fe bound by ferritin

88
Q

What are the two acute phase reactants that are downregulated in inflammation?

A

Albumin

Tranferrin

89
Q

What is the role of albumin?

A

Transport protein for bunches of stuff

90
Q

What is the role of transferrin?

A

Fe sequestration

91
Q

The MAC complex defends against what type of bacteria?

A

Gram negative

92
Q

What is the classic pathway for complement activation?

A

IgG or IgM binds to bacteria (GM makes classic cars)

93
Q

What is the alternative pathway for complement activation?

A

Microbe surface molecules

94
Q

What is the Lectin pathway for complement activation?

A

Complement fixes mannose

95
Q

What is the function of C3b?

A

Binds bacteria (b for binds)

96
Q

What is the function of C3a, C4a, and C5a?

A

anaphylaxis

97
Q

What is the function of C5a?

A

PMN chemotaxis

98
Q

What complements combine to form the MAC complex?

A

C5b-9

99
Q

What are the two primary opsonins in bacterial defense?

A

C3b and IgG

100
Q

True or false: C3b helps clear immune complexes

A

True

101
Q

What are the two inhibitors of complement, that prevent hemolysis of RBCs?

A

Decay accelerating factor + C1 esterase inhibitor

102
Q

C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency leads to what? What type of medication is contraindicated in this disease?

A

Hereditary angioedema

ACE inhibitors

103
Q

C3 deficiency causes what?

A

Increases the risk of bacterial infections

104
Q

C5-C9 deficiency leads to a predisposition to develop infection from what genus of bacteria?

A

Neisseria

105
Q

Decay accelerating factor (DAF) deficiency leads to what?

A

Complement mediated lysis of RBCs and nocturnal hemoglobinuria

106
Q

What is the functions of IL1-6?

A 
IL-1 = Fever
IL-2 = T cells production
IL-3 = Bone marrow stimulation
IL-4 = IgE production
IL-5 = IgA production
IL-6 = acute phase protein stimulation

(“Hot T-bone stEAC)

107
Q

What is the role of IL8?

A

Chemotaxis for PMNs

108
Q

What is the role of IL-12?

A

T cell differentiation into Th1 cells

109
Q

What is the chemokine that mediates septic shock?

A

TNF-alpha

110
Q

What is the chemokine that activates NK cells to kill virus infected cells?

A

IFN-gamma

111
Q

What is the role of IL-10?

A

Modulates inflammatory response. (inhibits T cells)

112
Q

What is interferon?

A

Glycoproteins synthesized by cells to alert nearby cells of infection.

113
Q

What are the two enzymes that are upregulated with exposure to Interferon?

A

RNAase L

Protein kinase

114
Q

All nucleated cells have MHC class I or II?

A

I

115
Q

What is the role of the TCR protein found on T cells?

A

T cell receptor–binds to MHC complexes

116
Q

What is the role of CD3 on T cells?

A

Associated with TCR for activation

117
Q

What is the role of CD28 on T cells?

A

Binds B7 on APCs

118
Q

What is the protein that B7 on APCs binds to, that is present on T cells?

A

CD28

119
Q

What is the protein on Th cells and APCs that allow for Th cells activation?

A

CD40 and CD40 ligand

120
Q

CD8 or CD4 to CTLs?

A

CD8

121
Q

What is the CD protein that is a receptor for Epstein Barr virus?

A

CD21 (beer at the bar when 21)

122
Q

What is the role of CD16 on NK cells?

A

Binds Fc portion of IgG

123
Q

What is the CD protein that is unique to NK cells?

A

CD56

124
Q

What is clonal anergy?

A

Inactivation of T cells when exposed to Self-protein without other costimulatory molecules

125
Q

What is the MOA of superantigens on Strep pyogenes and Staph Aureus?

A

Cross-link Beta region of T cell receptors to MHC II on APCs, leading to massive release of cytokines.

126
Q

Which is a more severe mutation for the Flu, antigenic shift or drift?

A

Shift

127
Q

What are the four bacterial/virus exposures where giving passive abs is indicated?

A

Tetanus
Botulinum
HBV
Rabies

128
Q

Which is a live attenuated, and which is an inactivated vaccine: sabin and salk polio?

A 
Sabin = Live attenuated
Salk = Inactivated
129
Q

What is a type I hypersensitivity?

A

Antigen cross linking of IgE on presensitized mast cells

130
Q

What are the chemokines that are produced in the delayed Type I hypersensitivity?

A

Leukotrienes

131
Q

What is a Type II hypersensitivity?

A

IgM and IgG bind to antigen on self cells

132
Q

What is a Type III hypersensitivity?

A

Immune complexes (antigen+antibody+complement)

133
Q

What is serum sickness?

A

Type III hypersensitivity d/t ab introduction or drugs

134
Q

What is Arthus reaction?

A

Local, subacute type III hypersensitivity when injecting antigen in the skin.

135
Q

What is a type IV hypersensitivity?

A

T-cell mediated activation of macrophages (NO antibody involvement)

136
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity does NOT involve antibodies?

A

IV

137
Q

Transplant rejections are what type of hypersensitivity?

A

IV

138
Q

TB skin tests are what type of hypersensitivity?

A

IV

139
Q

Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis is what type of hypersensitivity?

A

III

140
Q

What is pemphigus vulgaris?

A

type III attack against desmosomes, causing painful blisters

fa review (22 decks)

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