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FA Review > Hypersensitivities and autoimmune diseases > Flashcards

Hypersensitivities and autoimmune diseases Flashcards

1
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity: autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

II

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2
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity: pernicious anemia

A

II

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3
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity:contact dermatitis

A

IV

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4
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity:PPD test

A

IV

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5
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity:serums sickness

A

III

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6
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity:SLE

A

III

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7
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity:MS

A

IV

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8
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity: Guillan-Barre syndrome

A

IV

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9
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity: GVD

A

IV

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10
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity: polyarteritis nodosa

A

III

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11
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity: febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction

A

II

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12
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity: acute hemolytic transfusion reaction

A

II

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13
Q

Anti ACh antibody = what disease?

A

Myasthenia gravis

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14
Q

Anti basement membrane antibody = what disease?

A

Goodpasture syndrome

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15
Q

Anti-cardiolipin, antibody = what disease?

A

SLE

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16
Q

Anti-centromere antibody = what disease?

A

CREST syndrome

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17
Q

Anti-desmoglein antibody = what disease?

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

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18
Q

Anti-dsDNA (anti-smith) antibody = what disease?

A

SLE

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19
Q

Anti-glutamate decarboxylase antibody = what disease?

A

DM I

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20
Q

Anti-hemidesmosome antibody = what disease?

A

Bullous pemphigoid

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21
Q

Anti histone antibody = what disease?

A

Drug-induced lupus

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22
Q

Anti Jo1, SRP, Mi2 antibody = what disease?

A

Polymyositis, dermatomyositis

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23
Q

Antimicrosomal, antithyroglobulin antibody = what disease?

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis

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24
Q

Antimitochondrial antibody = what disease?

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis

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25
Q

Antinuclear antibody = what disease?

A

SLE

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26
Q

Anti scl-70 antibody = what disease?

A

Diffuse scleroderma

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27
Q

Anti-smooth muscle antibody = what disease?

A

Autoimmune hepatitis

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28
Q

Anti-SSA/SSB (ro and la) antibody = what disease?

A

Sjogren’s disease

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29
Q

Anti-TSH antibody = what disease?

A

Graves disease

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30
Q

Anti U1 RNP antibody = what disease?

A

mixed CT disease

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31
Q

c-ANCA PR3-ANCA antibody = what disease?

A

Granulomatosis

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32
Q

IgA antiendomysial, IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase = what disease?

A

Celiac

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33
Q

p-ANCA = what disease?

A

Microscopic polyangiitis

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34
Q

Rheumatoid factor = what disease?

A

RA

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35
Q

Lack of T cells predisposes pts to what condition?

A

Sepsis

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36
Q

Deficiencies in B cells predispose pts to infections with what bacteria?

A 
Strep pneumoniae
HIB
N. meningitidis
E.Coli
Salmonella
Klebsiella
Strep B

(SHiNE SKiS) = encapsulated bacteria

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37
Q

No complement predisposes pts to infection with what bacteria?

A

Neisseria

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38
Q

Granulocyte deficiencies predisposes pts to infections with what four bacteria?

A

Staph
Burkholderia
Serratia
Nocardia

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39
Q

A B cell deficiency predisposes pts to what viral infection?

A

Enteroviral encephalitis

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40
Q

A T cell deficiency predisposes pts to what viral infections?

A

EBV
CMV
JCV
VZV

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41
Q

A B cell deficiency predisposes pts to what fungal/parasitic infections?

A

Giardiasis

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42
Q

A T cell deficiency predisposes pts to what viral infection?

A

Candida

PCP

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43
Q

What is the disease where there is a defect in BTK, a tyrosine kinase, causing a lack of B cell maturation?

A

X-linked agammaglobinemia

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44
Q

When do symptoms of X-linked agammaglobinemia present?

A

Around 6 months of life, after maternal antibodies disappear

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45
Q

What is the most common immunodeficiency?

A

Selective IgA deficiency

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46
Q

What is the disease where there is a defect in B cell differentiation, with decreased plasma cells and immunoglobin?

A

Common variable immunodeficiency

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47
Q

DiGeorge syndrome is caused by what chromosome deletion?

A

22q11

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48
Q

IL-12 receptor deficiency results in what? Symptoms?

A

Decreased Th1 response–recurrent disseminated mycobacterial and fungal infections

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49
Q

Decreased T cells, PTH, Ca, and absent thymic shadow on x-ray = which disease?

A

DiGeorge syndrome

50
Q

What is the defect in hyper IgE syndrome?

A

Th17 cells d/t STAT3 mutation

51
Q

Coarse facies + cold abscesses + retained primary teeth + increased IgE + Derm problems = ? (FATED)

A

Hyper IgE syndrome (Job syndrome)

52
Q

What is the defect involved in chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis? Symptoms?

A

T cell dysfunction

Chronic candida infections

53
Q

Absent T cell proliferation in response to candida infection = what disease?

A

Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis

54
Q

defective IL-2R or adenosine deaminase deficiency leads to what disease?

A

SCID

55
Q

What are the symptoms of SCID?

A

Failure to thrive, diarrhea, thrush etc

56
Q

What is the treatment for SCID?

A

Bone marrow transplant

57
Q

Decreased T cell receptor excision circles and absence of thymic shadow on CXR =?

A

SCID

58
Q

What is the defect involved in ataxia-telangiectasia?

A

Defect in ATM gene (required for repairing double stranded DNA breaks)

59
Q

Cerebellar defects (ataxia) + spider angiomas + IgA, IgG + IgE deficiency = ?

A

Ataxia-telangiectasia

60
Q

What is the ATM gene involved in ataxia-telangiectasia responsible for?

A

Repairing double stranded breaks in DNA

61
Q

What is the defect involved in hyper-IgM syndrome?

A

Defective CD40L gene on Th cells

62
Q

Defective CD40L on B cells leads to what disease?

A

Hyper IgM syndrome

63
Q

What is the defect involved in Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?

A

Mutation in WAS gene; T cells unable to reorganize actin cytoskeleton

64
Q

T cells unable to reorganize actin cytoskeleton = ?

A

Wiskott aldrich syndrome

65
Q

Thrombocytopenia + Eczema + recurrent infections = what disease? (WATER)

A

Wiskott aldrich syndrome

66
Q

What happens to the Ig levels in Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome? (different for each type)

A

IgG and IgM normal to decreased

Increased IgE and IgA

67
Q

What is the defect involved in leukocyte adhesion deficiency?

A

Defect in LFA-1 integrin (CD18) on phagocytes

68
Q

Defect in the lysosomal trafficking regulator gene (LYST) results in what disease? What are the symptoms?

A

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

Recurrent pyogenic infections + pancytopenia

69
Q

Pancytopenia + Giant granules in PMNs, + recurrent pyogenic infections = ?

A

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

70
Q

What is the defect in chronic granulomatous disease?

A

NADPH oxidase defect, meaning no respiratory burst

71
Q

What are the bacteria that pts with chronic granulomatous disease are susceptible to?

A 
Pseudomonas
Listeria
Aspergillus
Candida
E.coli
S. aureus
Serratia

(PLACESS)

72
Q

Abnormal dihydrorhodamine test + Nitroblue tetrazolum dye reduction test is negative = ?

A

Chronic granulomatous disease

73
Q

Graft from self = ?

A

Autograft

74
Q

Graft from an identical twin = ?

A

syngeneic graft

75
Q

Graft from nonidentical individual of same species = ?

A

Allograft

76
Q

Graft from a different species = ?

A

Xenograft

77
Q

a rare autosomal recessive disorder that arises from a mutation of a lysosomal trafficking regulator protein,[2] which leads to a decrease in phagocytosis = ?

A

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

78
Q

What is the pathogenesis behind a hyperacute graft rejection?

A

Pre-existing Abs against graft, attack

79
Q

What is the pathogenesis behind a acute graft rejection?

A

CTLs against graft and new abs formed

80
Q

What is the presentation of acute graft rejection?

A

Vasculitis of graft with dense lymphocytic infiltrate

81
Q

What is the pathogenesis behind a chronic graft rejection?

A

T cells and B cell mediated (not well known)

82
Q

What is the pathogenesis of GVHD?

A

Grafted T cells rejecting recipient

83
Q

What are the symptoms of GVHD?

A

Maculopapular rash, jaundice, diarrhea

84
Q

What is the MOA of cyclosporine?

A

Calcineurin inhibitor; binds cyclophilin

Prevents IL-2 transcription

85
Q

What is cyclosporine used for?

A

Prevent transplant rejection

86
Q

What is/are the major side effect(s) of cyclosporine?

A

Nephrotoxic

HTN

87
Q

What is the MOA of tacrolimus?

A

Calcineurin inhibitor

Prevents IL-2 transcription

88
Q

What is/are the major side effect(s) of tacrolimus?

A

Nephrotoxic

Increases DM risk

89
Q

What is tacrolimus used for?

A

Prevent transplant rejection

90
Q

What is the MOA of sirolimus (rapamycin)?

A

mTOR inhibitor

prevents IL-2 signal transduction

91
Q

What is sirolimus used for?

A

Prevent kidney transplant rejection

92
Q

What is/are the major side effect(s) of sirolimus (rapamycin)?

A

Anemia

leukopenia

93
Q

True or false: sirolimus (rapamycin) is nephrotoxic

A

False (“kidney ‘sir’-vives”)

94
Q

What is the MOA of basiliximab?

A

Monoclonal antibody that blocks IL-2R

95
Q

What is basiliximab used for?

A

Kidney transplant rejection prophylaxis

96
Q

What is/are the major side effect(s) of basiliximab?

A

Edema

HTN

97
Q

What is the MOA of azathioprine?

A

Antimetabolite precursor of 6-mercapto-‘“purine”

Inhibits lymphocyte proliferation by blocking nucleotide synthesis

98
Q

What is azathioprine used for?

A

Transplant rejection prophylaxis

RA

99
Q

What is/are the major side effect(s) of azathioprine?

A

Leukopenia

anemia

100
Q

What is the MOA of glucocorticoids?

A

Inhibits NF-kB to suppress B and T cell cytokine release

101
Q

What is/are the major side effect(s) of glucocorticoids?

A

Hyperglycemia
Osteoporosis
Cushing’s syndrome

102
Q

What is the clinical use of epoetin alfa (erythropoietin)?

A

Treat anemias

103
Q

What is the clinical use of Thrombopoietin?

A

Thrombocytopenia

104
Q

What is the clinical use of oprelvekin (IL-11)?

A

Thrombocytopenia

105
Q

What is the clinical use of Filgrastim?

A

Recovery of bone marrow

106
Q

What is the clinical use of Sargramostim?

A

Recovery of bone marrow

107
Q

What is the clinical use of Aldesleukin (IL-2)?

A

Recnal cell carcinoma

Metastatic melanoma

108
Q

What is the clinical use of IFN-alpha?

A

Chronic hep B and C

Kaposi’s sarcoma

109
Q

What is the clinical use of IFN-beta?

A

MS

110
Q

What is the clinical use of IFN-Gamma?

A

Chronic granuloatous disease

111
Q

What is the target and clinical use of alemtuzumab?

A 
target = CD52
Use = CLL
112
Q

What is the target and clinical use of bevacizumab?

A 
Target = VEGF
Use = Colorectal CA
113
Q

What is the target and clinical use of Cetuximan?

A 
Target = EGFR
Use = Stage IV colorectal CA
114
Q

What is the target and clinical use of rituximab?

A 
Target = CD20
Use = B cell, non-hodgkin lymphoma
115
Q

What is the target and clinical use of Trastuzumab?

A 
Target = HER2/Neu
Use = breast CA

(HER2/Neu = tras2zumab)

116
Q

What is the target and clinical use of infliximab and adalimumab?

A 
TNF-alpha = target
Use = IBD, RA

(“RA inflix da limbs”)

117
Q

What is the target and clinical use of Natalizumab?

A 
Target = alpha4 integrin
Use = MS, crohn's disease
118
Q

What is the target and clinical use of abciximab?

A

CLycoprotein IIb/IIIa
ANti-platelet agent

(“IIb times IIIa = ab’six’imab”)

119
Q

What is the target and clinical use of Denosumab?

A

RANKL
Osteoporosis

(“denosumab affects osteoclasts”)

120
Q

What is the target and clinical use of Digoxin immune ab?

A 
Target = digoxin
Use = antidote for digoxin toxicitiy
121
Q

What is the target and clinical use of Omalizumab?

A 
Target = IgE
Use = Allergic asthma
122
Q

What is the target and clinical use of Palivizumab?

A

RSV F protein
RSV prophylaxis

(“PaliVIzumab = VIrus”)

FA Review (22 decks)

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