Biochem Flashcards

1
Q

What is the only protein subunit of histones that is not found in the core protein?

A

H1

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2
Q

What is heterochromatin?

A

Highly condensed, inaccessible DNA

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3
Q

What is euchromatin?

A

Available chromatin

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4
Q

DNA methylation results in silencing or upregulation?

A

Silencing

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5
Q

What are the two nucleotides that are methylated?

A

Cytosine and adenine

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6
Q

Histone acetylation causes activation or silencing of DNA?

A

Activates

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7
Q

What are the two purines? Do these have one or two ring structures?

A

A
G

Two rings

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8
Q

What are the two pyrimidines?

A

C
T
U

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9
Q

What is the difference between thymine and uracil?

A

Thymine has a meTHYl

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10
Q

How many hydrogen bonds do purines have?

A

two

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11
Q

Base + (deoxy)ribose = ?

A

Nucleoside

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12
Q

Base + (deoxy)ribose + phosphate = ?

A

Nucleotide

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13
Q

What is the MOA of 5-fluorouracil?

A

Inhibits thymidylate synthase

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14
Q

What is the MOA of hydroxyurea?

A

inhibits ribonucleotide reductase

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15
Q

What is the effect of adenosine deaminase deficiency?

A

SCID d/t decreased cell proliferation with dATP buildup

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16
Q

What is Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?

A

Defective purine salvage pathway d/t a loss of HGPRTase (leads to MR and finger biting)

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17
Q

What are the symptoms of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome? (HGPRT)

A
Hyperuricemia
Gout
Pissed off
Retardation
DysTonia
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18
Q

Deficiency of the HGRPTase results in the build up of what metabolite? What disease is this?

A

GMP and IMP, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

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19
Q

How is the genetic code unambiguous?

A

One codon = one amino acid

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20
Q

How is the genetic code redundant?

A

More than one codon for one amino acid

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21
Q

What is the one part of the body in which the genetic code has not been preserved throughout evolution?

A

Mito

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22
Q

What is the enzyme that is responsible for unwinding the DNA template?

A

Helicase

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23
Q

What are the proteins that prevent a DNA strand from coming back together, once unwound?

A

SSBPs

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24
Q

What is the enzyme that creates a single or double stranded break in DNA to allow for unwinding of supercoils?

A

Topoisomerase

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25
Q

What is the enzyme that that makes an RNA primer?

A

Primase

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26
Q

What is the enzyme that adds nucleotides to a growing fragment?

A

Pol II

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27
Q

What is the function of DNA ligase?

A

Ligates Okazaki fragments together using a phosphodiester bond

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28
Q

What is the function of telomerase?

A

RNA dependent DNA polymerase that adds DNA to the 3’ end of chromosomes to avoid loss of genetic material with every duplication

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29
Q

Sickle cell disease is the result of a missense, nonsense, frameshift, or silent mutation?

A

Missense

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30
Q

What is the nonsense mutation?

A

A mutation in which there is a premature stop codon

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31
Q

What is the MOA of nucleotide excision repair? (two steps)

A

Endonucleases remove damaged segment

DNA pol and lig repair

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32
Q

What are the steps of base excision repair (what is the enzyme that is utilized)?

A

Glycosylases recognize and remove incorrect bases

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33
Q

What is cause of xeroderma pigmentosum?

A

Defect in nucleotide excision repair with pyrimidine dimers

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34
Q

What are the steps of non-homologous end joining?

A

Bringing together of two ends of DNA

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35
Q

What is the DNA repair mechanism that is mutated in ataxia telangiectasia? Which enzyme?

A

non-homologous end joining of double stranded end breaks

Enzyme = ATM

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36
Q

What is the start codon (triplet sequence)?

A

AUG

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37
Q

What does AUG code for in eukaryotes? Prokaryotes?

A
Eukaryotes = met
Pro = Formylmethionine
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38
Q

What are the three sets of triplets that code for stopping replication?

A

UGA (U go away)
UAA (U are away)
UAG (U are Gone)

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39
Q

What is the TATA box? CAAT box?

A

Promoter regions of DNA

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40
Q

Which are expressed: exons or introns?

A

Exons

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41
Q

What is the function of pol I in eukaryotes?

A

makes rRNA

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42
Q

What is the function of pol II in eukaryotes?

A

makes mRNA

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43
Q

What is the function of pol III in eukaryotes?

A

makes tRNA

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44
Q

What is the protein, found in the death-cap mushroom, that inhibits RNA pol II?

A

alpha-amanitin

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45
Q

True or false: DNA pol I, II, and III are all utilized in eukaryotes

A

False–only II is. I and III are for prokaryotes

note this is DNA pol, not RNA pol

46
Q

What is the precursor form of mRNA?

A

hnRNA (heterogenous RNA)

47
Q

What are the steps of maturation for mRNA?

A
  1. capping w/ 7-methylguanosine
  2. Polyadenylation (poly A tail)
  3. Splicing out introns
48
Q

Where in the cell is mRNA translated?

A

Cytosol

49
Q

What are the proteins that are added to mRNA prior to splicing?

A

snRNPs

50
Q

What is the structure that is formed during the splicing process?

A

Lariat structure

51
Q

What are anti-smith antibodies, and what diseases are they associated with?

A

Antibodies to spliceosomal, snRNP.

Associated with autoimmune disorders.

52
Q

What is the genetic basis for beta thalassemia?

A

Abnormal splice site

53
Q

What is the codon sequence for the tRNA?

A

CCA (Can Carry AAs)

54
Q

What is the enzyme that “charges” tRNA, and loads AAs?

A

Amino-acyl tRNA synthetase

55
Q

What are the ribosomal subunits for eukaryotes? Prokaryotes?

A

Eukaryotic: 40s + 60s =80s (Even)
Prokaryotic: 30s + 50s = 70s (Odd)

56
Q

What is the enzyme responsible for catalyzing the peptide bond formation between AAs in a ribosome?

A

ribozyme

57
Q

What energy chemical (ATP or GTP) is needed to initiate the binding of AAs to a ribosome? Which is needed to elongate the growing chain?

A

ATP for initiation (Activation)

GTP for elongation (Going places)

58
Q

What is Li-fraumeni syndrome?

A

Mutation in p53 tumor suppressor protein, leading to aberrant cell growth

59
Q

What are nissl bodies?

A

Organelles in neurons that synthesize neurotransmitters

60
Q

What is the signal for trafficking proteins from the Golgi apparatus, to lysosomes?

A

mannose-6-phosphate

61
Q

What is added to serine and threonine amino acid in the Golgi?

A

O-linked oligosaccharides

62
Q

What is added to asparagine amino acid in the Golgi?

A

N-linked oligosaccharides

63
Q

What is the cause of I cell disease?

A

Defect in phosphotransferase, causing protein to be secreted extracellularly, rather to lysosomes

64
Q

What are signal recognition proteins?

A

Proteins that direct proteins from the ribosomes to the RER (mutation leads to inclusion disease)

65
Q

What is the protein that directs proteins from the golgi to the ER (retrograde transport)?

A

COP I

66
Q

What is the protein that directs proteins from the ER to the Golgi (anterograde transport)?

A

COP II

67
Q

What is the function of peroxisomes?

A

Degrades long chain fatty acids

68
Q

Defects in proteasomes have been associated with what disease?

A

Parkinson’s

69
Q

What are the two components of microtubules?

A

alpha and beta tubulin heterodimers

70
Q

Which way does dynein transport proteins: retrograde or anterograde?

A

retrograde (+ to - end)

71
Q

Which way does kinesin transport proteins: retrograde or anterograde?

A

Anterograde (- to + end)

72
Q

What are the 5 drugs that act on microtubules? (Microtubules Get Constructed Very Poorly)

A
Mebendazole
Griseofulvin
Colchicine
Vincristine
Paclitaxel
73
Q

9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules = ?

A

cilia

74
Q

What is kartagener syndrome?

A

Immotile cilia d/t a dynein arm defect, causing infertility

75
Q

What are actin and myosin involved in?

A

muscle contraction, microvilli, cytokinesis

76
Q

What is the main function of microtubules?

A

Movement

77
Q

What is the main function of intermediate filaments?

A

Structure

78
Q

What does vimentin stain for?

A

CT

79
Q

What does desmin stain for?

A

Muscle

80
Q

What does cytokeratin stain for?

A

Epithelial cells

81
Q

What does GFAP stain for?

A

Neuroglia

82
Q

What is the chemical that inhibits K binding to the Na/K ATPase?

A

Ouabain

83
Q

What is the MOA of digoxin and digitoxin?

A

directly inhibits that Na- K ATPase, leading indirectly to Ca exhange

84
Q

What is the type of collagen in bone?

A

I

85
Q

What is the type of collagen in Cartilage?

A

II

86
Q

What is the type of collagen in blood vessels, organ casing, and nucleus pulposus?

A

III

87
Q

Which type of collagen in also known as reticulin?

A

III

88
Q

What type of collagen is found in the basement membrane, and lens of the eye?

A

IV

89
Q

What is the cause of marfan’s syndrome?

A

Defective elastin (fibrillin 1)

90
Q

What is the cause of Ehlers danlos syndrome?

A

Defective collagen IV

91
Q

What is the amino acid sequence in collagen?

A

Gly-X-Y (with X any Y usually being P or K respectively)

92
Q

What is vitamin C needed for in the synthesis of collagen?

A

Hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues

93
Q

What is the underlying defect in osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Defect in glycosylation of pro-alpha-chain hydroxylysine (no triple helix)

94
Q

Which comes first in the synthesis of collagen: hydroxylation or glycosylation?

A

Hydroxylation

95
Q

What is the proteolytic processing of collagen?

A

Removal of disulfide rich terminal regions of procollagen

96
Q

What are the two amino acids that are crosslinked in collagen?

A

Lysine and hydroxylysine

97
Q

Problems with cross linking collagen is found in what disease?

A

Ehler’s-danlos syndrome

98
Q

The classic type of Ehlers danlos syndrome is caused by a defect in the cross linking of what collagen type?

A

V

99
Q

The vascular type of Ehlers-danlos syndrome is caused by a defect in what type of collagen?

A

III

100
Q

What is Menkes disease, and what is the enzyme affected?

A

X-linked recessive CT disease caused by impaired copper absorption-decrease activity of lysyl oxidase

101
Q

What is the function of alpha-1-antitrypsin, and defects in this cause what?

A

Inhibits elastase.

Defects lead to emphysema

102
Q

Wrinkles of aging are caused by what?

A

Decreased collagen and elastin production

103
Q

What is the goal of PCR?

A

Amplification of a DNA segment, then running in a gel to determine size of fragment.

104
Q

What is the process involved in a southern blot? What type of genetic material does it analyze (DNA, RNA or proteins)?

A

Radiolabeled DNA run on a gel

105
Q

What is the process involved in a northern blot? What type of genetic material does it analyze (DNA, RNA or proteins)?

A

RNA is electrophoresed and radiolabeled

106
Q

What is the process involved in a western blot? What type of genetic material does it analyze (DNA, RNA or proteins)?

A

Protein run in a gel and antibodies used to identify the protein

107
Q

What is the process involved in a southwestern blot? What type of genetic material does it analyze (DNA, RNA or proteins)?

A

DNA binding proteins identified using labeled oligonucleotides

108
Q

What is an indirect ELISA vs a direct ELISA?

A
Indirect = uses a test antigen
Direct = uses a test antibody
109
Q

Indirect ELISA is used to detect antigen or antibodies to an antigen?

A

Antibodies to an antigen

110
Q

What is the cloning method used in biochemistry (hint: think production of insulin)?

A

Take mRNA, reverse transcriptase it, and insert into plasmid

111
Q

What is the Crex-lox system?

A

Manipulating genes at specific developmental points

112
Q

What is RNA interference?

A

dsRNA synthesized the is complimentary to mRNA of interest. Once inserted into cell, causes destruction of mRNA.