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FA Review > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the follicle of lymph nodes?

A

Site of B cell localization and proliferation

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2
Q

What is in the outer cortex of lymph nodes?

A

primary follicles are dense and dormant

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3
Q

What is in the medulla of the lymph nodes?

A

Medullary cords, consisting of closely packed lymphocytes and plasma cells

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4
Q

What is in the paracortex of lymph nodes?

A

Houses T cells

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5
Q

What is the site of T cells in a lymph node?

A

Paracortex

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6
Q

What is the site of B cells in a lymph node?

A

follicle

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7
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary lymph nodes?

A 
Primary = Follicles are dense and dorman
Secondary = pale central germinal centers
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8
Q

What lymph nodes drain the: head and neck?

A

cervical

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9
Q

What lymph nodes drain the: lungs

A

Hilar

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10
Q

What lymph nodes drain the: esophagus and trachea

A

mediastinal

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11
Q

What lymph nodes drain the: upper limb, breast, skin above the umbilicus

A

Axillary

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12
Q

What lymph nodes drain the: liver, stomach, spleen pancreas, upper duodenum

A

Celiac

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13
Q

What lymph nodes drain the: lower rectum, bladder, vagina,

A

internal iliac

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14
Q

What lymph nodes drain the: testes, ovaries, kidneys, ureters

A

Para-aortic

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15
Q

What lymph nodes drain the: anal canal below the pectinate line

A

Superficial inguinal

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16
Q

What lymph nodes drain the: Dorsolateral foot, posterior calf

A

Popliteal

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17
Q

From what pharyngeal arch is the thymus derived?

A

3rd

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18
Q

Where are T cells in the spleen?

A

In the periarterial lymphatic sheath within the white pulp of the spleen

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19
Q

What are the WBCs that remove bacteria in the spleen?

A

Macrophages

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20
Q

What is an epitope?

A

The minimum molecular structure on an antigen which binds to a specific ab molecule

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21
Q

What happens to complement and antibody levels post splenectomy?

A

Decreased IgM

Decreased C3b

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22
Q

Where are antigens loaded onto MHC class I and II respectively?

A 
I = rER
II = acidified lysosome
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23
Q

What does it mean that all immunogens are antigens, but not all antigens are immunogens?

A
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24
Q

What are the diseases associated with HLA-B27?

A

Psoriatic arthritis
Ankylosing spondylitis
IBDs
Reactive arthritis

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25
Q

What are the HLA haplotypes that are associated with Celiac disease?

A

HLA DQ2 and DQ8

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26
Q

What are the diseases associated with DR2? (4)

A
  • MS
  • Hay fever
  • SLE
  • Goodpasture
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27
Q

What are the diseases associated with DR3 (3)?

A
  • DM I
  • SLE
  • Grave’s disease
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28
Q

What are the diseases associated with DR4 (2)?

A
  • RA

- DM I

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29
Q

What are the diseases associated with DR5?

A

Pernicious anemia

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

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30
Q

What is the mode of transport to the surface for MHC I?

A

Beta-2 microglobulin

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31
Q

What is the only lymphocyte member of the innate immune system?

A

Natural Killer cells

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32
Q

What is the cytokine that induce Th0 cells to: Th1 cells

A

IL-12

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33
Q

What is the cytokine that induce Th0 cells to: Th2 cells

A

IL-4

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34
Q

What is the cytokine that induce Th0 cells to: Th17 cells

A

TGF-Beta + IL-6

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35
Q

What is the cytokine that induce Th0 cells to: Tregs?

A

TGF-beta

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36
Q

What is done during positive selection of T cells in the thymus?

A

T cells expressing TCRs capable of binding surface MHC self molecules

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37
Q

What is done during negative selection of T cells in the thymus?

A

T cells expressing TCRs with high affinity for self antigens undergo apoptosis

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38
Q

Where in the thymus do positive and negative selection occur, respectively?

A 
\+ = Thymic cortex
- = Medulla
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39
Q

What are the three major APCs?

A

B cells
Macrophages
Dendritic cells

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40
Q

How are naive T cells activated?

A
  • Fb phagocytosed and presented by APC via MHC
  • Costimulatory signal via B7/Cd28
  • Th cells activated and produces cytokines
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41
Q

How are B cells activated?

A
  • Helper T cells
  • MHC II presentation with CD40l
  • Th cells secrete cytokine for class switching
42
Q

What are the costimulatory receptors on Naive T cells?

A

CB 28 / B7

43
Q

What are the costimulatory receptors on B cells?

A

CD40 and MHC II

44
Q

What is the role of Th1 cells? What do they secrete, and what does it do?

A

Activates macrophages and CTLs via secretion of IFN-gamma

45
Q

What are the ILs that inhibit Th1 cells? Where do these come from?

A

IL-4
IL-10
Th2 cells produce these

46
Q

What is the role of Th2 cells? What do they secrete (4), and what does it do?

A

Recruits eosinophils and promote IgE production

-IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-13

47
Q

What is the cytokine that inhibits Th2 cells? Where do these come from?

48
Q

Macrophages release what cytokine to stimulate T cells to differentiate into Th1 cells? What do Th1 cells release in return to stimulate macrophages?

A

IL-12

IFN-gamma

49
Q

What is the role of Tregs?

A

Help maintain specific immune tolerance by suppressing CD4 and CD8 T cell effector functions

50
Q

What are the CD surface markers for Tregs? (4)

A

CD3
CD4
CD25
FOXP3

51
Q

What are the anti-inflammatory cytokines released by Tregs?

A

IL-10

TGF-beta

52
Q

Where is the complement binding site on Antibodies?

A

on hinge region of Fc

53
Q

Does the Fc bit of antibodies have the amino end or the carboxy end of the protein?

54
Q

What are the 4 Cs of the Fc bit of antibodies?

A

Constant
Carboxy terminal
Complement binding
Carbohydrate side chains

55
Q

What is the shape of the monocytes?

A

Kidney shaped

56
Q

How is antibody diversity generated?

A

Random recombination of the VJ region (light chain) or VDJ heavy chain genes

57
Q

Does IgA fix complement?

58
Q

What is the most produced Ig type?

59
Q

Does IgM cross the placenta?

60
Q

What are thymus independent antigens?

A

Antigens that lack a peptide component and thus cannot be presented by MHC T cells

61
Q

What are thymus dependent antigens?

A

ANtigens containing a protein component that allows for activation of T cells, and class switching of Ig classes

62
Q

What are the four major cytokines that induce acute phase reactant production?

A

IL-1
IL-6
TNF-alpha
IFN-gamma

63
Q

What is the role of ferritin?

A

Binds and sequesters Fe

64
Q

What is the role of fibrinogen?

A

Coagulation factor that promotes endothelial cell repair

65
Q

What is the role of hepcidin?

A

Prevents the release of Fe bound by ferritin

66
Q

What are the two proteins that are downregulated during inflammation?

A 
Albumin
Transferrin (internalized by macrophages)
67
Q

What is the classic pathway of complement activation?

A

IgM or IgG mediated—(“GM makes CLASSIC cars”)

68
Q

What activates the alternative pathway of complement activation?

A

Microbe surface molecules

69
Q

What activates the lectin pathway of complement activation?

A

Mannose or other sugars in the microbe surface

70
Q

What is the main complement that binds to bacteria?

71
Q

What are the complements that are utilized in anaphylactic reactions?

72
Q

What is the complement that is a PMN chemotactic factor?

73
Q

What is the role of CD55?

A

DAF–helps prevent complement activation on self cells

74
Q

C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency leads to what? What meds are contraindicated in this condition?

A

Hereditary angioedema

ACEIs

75
Q

What is C3 deficiency?

A

Increases the risk of severe, recurrent pyogenic sinus and respiratory tract infx and increased susceptibility to type III hypersensitivity

76
Q

What is the defect in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria?

A

Loss of DAF (GPI anchored enzyme)

77
Q

What is the function of MYD88?

A

MYELOID DIFFERENTIATION PRIMARY RESPONSE GENE 88–Acts as a connecting protein that receives signals from outside the cell to the protein that relay signals inside the cell

78
Q

What is the defect in Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia?

79
Q

What are the components of Hot T-Bone stEAK?

A 
IL-1 = pyrogen
IL-2 = T cell activation
IL-3 = bone marrow activation
IL-4 IgE production
IL-5 = IgA production
IL-6 = aKute phase reactants
80
Q

What is the function of IL-8?

A

Major chemotactic factor for PMNs

81
Q

What is the function of IL-12?

A

Induces differentiation of T cells into Th1 cells and NK cells

82
Q

What is the function of TNF-alpha?

A

Mediates septic shock and activates the endothelium

83
Q

What is the function of IFN-gamma?

A
  • Has antiviral and antitumor properties
  • Activates NK Cells
  • Increases MHC expression and antigen production
84
Q

What is the function of IL-10?

A

Modulates inflammatory response

-Inhibits actions of activated T cells and Th1

85
Q

What are the functions of IFN-alpha and beta?

A

Synthesized by virally infected cells and acts locally to prime other cells for defense

86
Q

What happens when a cells receives a IFN-alpha / beta signal from a nearby virally infected cell?

A
  • Increased RNAase

- Increases protein kinase to inhibit viral /host protein synthesis

87
Q

What is the role of CD3?

A

Associated with TCR for signal transduction

88
Q

What are the CD proteins on B cells?

89
Q

What is the CD protein that EBV utilizes?

A

CD21 (“you can drink BEER at the BAR when you’re 21”)

90
Q

What are the CD proteins on NK cells? Functions?

A

CD16 = binds Fc IgG

CD56 - unique marker

91
Q

How do self reactive T cells become anergic?

A

No costimulatory molecules

92
Q

What is the MOA of superantigens?

A

Cross link the Beta region ot T cells receptor to the MHC class II on APC

93
Q

How do endotoxins activates macrophages?

A

Bind to CD14

94
Q

What are the three diseases that require passive immunization via IVIG?

A

Tetanus
Botulinum
Rabies

95
Q

Which polio vaccine is attenuated, and which is killed?

A 
Sabin = atteNuated
SalK = Killed
96
Q

What are the bugs that cause heart block? (6)

A 
legionella
Lyme
Chagas
Diphtheria
Typhoid
Rheumatic fever
97
Q

What is the treatment for heart block 2/2 infectious agents?

A

Atropine or beta 1 agonists

98
Q

Is rabies a live attenuated or killed vaccine?

99
Q

Is the Hep A vaccine a live attenuated or killed vaccine?

100
Q

What are the CD molecules on macrophages? (2) What about other receptors (3)

A

CD14
CD40
B7
Fc and C3b receptors

FA Review (22 decks)

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