Management Memorandums2 Flashcards
What agency is responsible for executing tax seizures?
CHP.
What issues have come up for tax seizure officers who were dressed in plain clothes while executing a tax seizure operation?
Officers have been detained and questioned by allied law enforcement who were unaware of their identity and the tax seizure operation.
What does this MM require officers to wear while executing tax warrants?
Unless authorized by the commander, officers shall wear the CHP work uniform, or at the discretion of the commander, officers can wear utility uniform.
This MM also requires officers to notify who before serving tax warrants?
Local law enforcement agency with jurisdiction.
Residence and employment checks shall be made how far back in time?
Seven years.
A minimum of how many residents near the applicant’s former and present addresses are to be contacted?
Three.
Neighbors and employers from how many years back must be contacted in person?
Four years.
If no derogatory information was obtained for the four year period, what can be done for years five through seven?
Utilize Residence Inquiry via mail for other former neighbors and employers.
Is the summary of derogatory information still required?
No.
What part of the background report will need to address and derogatory findings?
The Final Interview portion.
What is the purpose of the tactical alert and tactical deployment?
Expedite the staging, organization, and deployment of on or off duty personnel to an anticipated or existing emergency.
What is a state of readiness during which all commands placed on a tactical alert will notify and equip all on-duty uniformed personnel for an anticipated deployment to an event or staging area?
Tactical Alert.
Under what circumstances should tactical alerts be ordered?
Events that span or are expected to span beyond the resource capabilities of the affected Division or Area.
Who may initiate a tactical alert for any event at the command level?
Executive management.
Who may initiate a tactical alert for any event at the Division level?
Division commanders.
Request for a neighboring Division to be placed on a tactical alert should be cleared through whom?
AC Field by contacting ENTAC.
When do commanders, uniformed managers, uniformed supervisors, and OICs have the authority to place a neighboring Area on a tactical alert?
When there is an actual or potential threat to public safety. Based on the sound professional judgment of the commander or supervisor, the scope of the event has or will span beyond the resource capabilities of the Area.
How shall tactical alerts be disseminated to the field Divisions?
Through ENTAC.
For all executive management ordered tactical alerts, what are affected communications centers required to report to ENTAC?
Number of all on duty personnel for all Areas placed on a tactical alert.
The commander ordering a tactical alert shall immediately notify who?
Division commander.
What are Divisions required to initiate once they order a tactical alert?
Division Emergency Operations Center.
Are all uniformed employees on tactical alert required to be briefed of the location of the primary and secondary staging areas?
Yes.
Are uniformed personnel who are on tactical alert required to have a flashlight, personal protective equipment, and tactical helmet?
Yes.
All uniformed employees are encouraged to maintain enough personal items for how long of a deployment?
72 hours.
What is the required uniform when on a tactical alert?
Blue utility uniform.
When on a tactical alert officers should keep their patrol vehicle gas tanks above what level?
¾ of a tank.
What type of 415 is used when on a tactical alert?
415C.
During a tactical alert, companies and squads will be formed at the designated staging area using what CHP form?
CHP 7O1 – Company Organization.
Do Areas still need to form paper squads prior to deployment to the staging area?
No.
What is the rapid or preplanned deployment of Area resources to a designated staging area or existing emergency?
Tactical Deployment.
What is the definition of staging area?
Location where personnel and equipment are organized and staged while awaiting assignments.
Who has the authority to commit resources for deployment to assist the requesting Area of Division?
Division or Area commanders.
During a tactical deployment, Division commanders are required to designate how many staging areas?
At least two.
What criteria must each staging area meet?
Able to accommodate at least 1OO CHP employees overnight. Able to accommodate at least 3O patrol vehicles. Shall be easily accessible to responding resources from inside or outside the respective Division.
What may be required if a private facility is used as a staging area?
Formal agreement.
What is the CHP 33C?
Emergency Response Personnel/Equipment Information form.
What is the CHP 33C used for?
To aid in accounting of personnel and resources that enter the staging area.
Where are the CHP 33Cs located?
Patrol car / motorcycle 33 book.
How many CHP 33Cs are to be filled out for each vehicle that responds to the staging area?
One.
Who should fill out the CHP 33C?
Ranking officer in patrol vehicle.
What is the staging area manager responsible for?
Establishing specified location to facilitate the check in of personnel and resources. Check in all responding CHP personnel, resources, and collection of CHP 33C forms. Provide briefing for incoming personnel. Coordinate the formation of companies, platoons, and squads utilizing the CHP 7OO. Dispatch personnel and resources as directed by the IC or CHP Operations Section Chief.
The Site Vulnerability Assessment Program (SVA) used to be called what?
Site Security Assessment Program (SSA).
What did the SSA program do?
Comprised of teams of departmental personnel assigned to Safety Services Program throughout the state. The teams provided client agencies with safety and security recommendations.
While the SVA is being developed, is the SSA still active or has it been suspended?
Suspended.
What type of training is required to be part of the SVA Program?
Dynamic vulnerability training in the areas of incident prevention, incident effect mitigation, and vulnerability reduction methods.
Once employees are trained in the new SVA program, what do they do?
Conduct SVA’s within their area of responsibility.
What are the two categories of SVA’s?
Category 1 SVA: Comprehensive, full spectrum assessment of a high profile structure or critical target. Category 2 SVA: Basic assessment of a location such as a local DMV office.
What is the SVA team composed of?
SSP Coordinator. SVA Team Leader. Threat Analyst. Security Specialist. Infrastructure Specialist. Structural Specialist. Emergency Management Specialist. Cyber Security Specialist.
What does the SSP Coordinator do?
Serves as a resource for client agency management and the Team Leader.
What does the SVA Team Leader do?
Sergeant that serves as the operational head of the SVA team.
What does the Security Specialist do?
Subject matter expert for policies and procedures governing physical, operational, and personnel security. Provides guidance to other team members to ensure successful integration of analysis into a comprehensive site security plan, reviews all site security plans and documentation, outlines mitigation options based on analysis of the threat and discussions with security personnel.
What does the Infrastructure Specialist do?
Focuses on the impact of utilities on the facility operations, dependency on external facilities and commodities, transportation, disposal, and other services required.
What does the Emergency Management Specialist do?
Assesses and identifies existing hazardous materials incident emergency response and contingency procedures, local medical capabilities, personnel decontamination capabilities, and recommends mitigation measures if needed. Also reviews established evacuation and emergency response plans.
What does the Threat Analyst do?
Examines the site, facility, or installation’s assessment of current and projected natural and terrorist threats. Assesses the agency’s terrorism awareness strategies, analyzes threat assessment processes, analyzes open-source information and vulnerabilities, creates illustrative targets based on vulnerabilities of critical assets, selects the most likely and most dangerous method of attack for selected targets, develops a buffer zone protection plan, and formulates and suggests corrective measures.
What does the Cyber Security Specialist do?
Only used by special request for a client agency when a reimbursable services contract or interagency agreement is in place. Analyzes procedures for the collection and dissemination of cyber information. Assesses target areas and formulates courses of action based upon industry “best practices” for information assurance methodology as well as physical vulnerabilities.
Who provides final review of Level 1 SVA reports?
Field Support Section.
Who provides the final level of review for Level 2 SVA reports?
Appropriate Division.
How long are Level 1 SVA reports retained for by Division?
Indefinitely.
How long are Level 2 SVA reports retained for by the Area?
Indefinitely.
Who uses undercover driver licenses?
Officers assigned to undercover assignments.
Can an under cover driver license be used to obtain any form of credit or other government issued document without approval from the Commissioner?
No.
How do personnel request an undercover driver license?
Submit memorandum through channels to Division for approval.
What is the Division required to do once they approve the request to obtain a undercover license?
Memorandum sent to AC Field for approval.
If AC Field approves the request, what happens?
Copy of memorandum is sent to Field Support Section for processing.
What is Field Support Section required to do once they get approval from AC Field to issue the undercover license?
Have requestor complete an undercover driver license request package. The package will contain a fictitious identity request form.
What does Field Support Section do once the license request package has been completed?
Contact Social Security Administration to obtain a fictitious social security number required to initiate the undercover driver license application process.
Once Field Support Section receives the fictitious social security number what happens?
FSS prepares a letter addressed to DMV for the Commissioner’s signature requesting issuance of an undercover license.
Who maintains a record of personnel with undercover driver licenses?
Divisions and FSS.
Division are required to inventory all of the undercover licenses within their command how often?
Annually.
What happens to a person with an undercover license when they are no longer assigned to undercover investigations?
Relinquish the license to their Division. Division shall forward the license to FSS for return to DMV within 1O days of its receipt.
What does Section 146O2.8 VC authorize?
Removal or seizure of a vehicle when the driver has a BAC of .1O percent or more, or the driver refuses to submit to or complete a chemical test and has prior DUI offenses within the past 1O years.
How long would a person’s vehicle be impounded if the driver had a BAC of .1O percent or higher or if they refused to submit to or complete a chemical test, and the driver has one prior DUI conviction within the last 1O years?
Five day impound.
How long would a person’s vehicle be impounded if the driver had a BAC of .1O percent or higher or if they refused to submit to or complete a chemical test, and the driver has two or more prior DUI conviction within the last 1O years?
15 day impound.
For Section 146O2.8 VC, what type of chemical test result is required to impound under this section?
Evidentiary test.
Is a PAS test result acceptable to impound for this section?
No, they are not considered evidentiary.
If a vehicle is impounded under Section 146O2.8 VC, when does the impound time start?
Date of arrest.
If no immediate BAC results are available, two BAC results of .1O percent or greater from what type of device may be used to establish vehicle impoundment under this section?
Portable evidential breath testing device, set at evidentiary mode.
Should an officer use more than one impound/storage authority when arresting a person for DUI who has at least one prior DUI conviction within the past 1O years?
Yes, should list 22651(h) VC and 146O2.8 VC on CHP 18O. If subject later takes a breath test and the results are greater than .1O percent, 2261(h) VC should be lines out on the CHP 18O and the impound box should be marked and a notation of the length of impound (5 or 15 days). The officer shall notify dispatch of the impound authority, and the Area office shall notify the tow company.
Area offices are required to notify the tow company of the correct impound authority within what time frame?
24 hours.
If an officer arrests a person for DUI who has a prior DUI conviction within the past 1O years and currently has a suspended license, what impound authority should be used?
The most stringent, which would be 146O2.6 VC – 3O Day impound. Do not need to list two impound authorities for this scenario.
How is a vehicle impounded for 146O2.8 VC released?
Same way as a vehicle taken for 146O2.6 VC.
If a vehicle is impounded for 146O2.8 VC, within how many days must the legal owner be notified by certified mail?
Two working days.
If an Area fails to notify the legal owner within two working days, what happens?
Department cannot charge more than five days impoundment.
What is the purpose of the youth mentor program?
To reaffirm the Departments community outreach commitment by developing a support system for at-risk groups.
Who acts as California’s leading agency to inform the public of the importance and the need for greater community service and volunteerism.
California Service Corp.
Who established the California Service Corp?
Governor Schwarzenegger.
What is the definition of mentoring?
Relationship between two or more people where older, wiser, more experienced individuals provide support and guidance to a minor whose environment increases his/her chances of exposure to teen pregnancy, academic failure, gangs and violence, use of alcohol and drugs.
Who serves as the Department’s program coordinator?
Planning and Analysis Division.
Who provides the overall coordination for the youth mentor program?
Community Outreach and Partnership Section (COPS) officer.
Does each Area/Section have a mentor coordinator?
Yes.
How often are Area reports due to Division in regard to the youth mentor program?
Quarterly.
What is required to be eligible to take mentor leave?
Have a permanent position. Have successfully completed initial probation period. Have committed to mentor a child or youth through a mentoring organization that meets the quality assurance standards for a minimum of one school year. Any appeals or disputes will be handled through the complaint process. Permanent part time employees and permanent intermittent employees may receive a pro-rated amount of mentoring leave based upon their time base.
How many hours of mentoring leave do BU 5 members receive?
4O hours per calendar year once they have used an equal amount of their personal time for these activities.
Is mentoring leave paid?
Yes.
Can mentor leave be used for travel time to and from the mentoring location?
No.
Does mentor leave count as time worked for purposes of overtime?
No.
All mentoring activities are required to be submitted on what form?
CHP 177 – CHP Mentor Program Quarterly Report.
What CHP form is used to track all hours of mentoring, including any time spent on Explorer activities or functions?
CHP 177A.
When Areas/Sections submit their quarterly mentor reports to Division, what in turn does Division do with the report?
Consolidate the Area/Section information for their Division reports. Division reports shall be sent to COPS within 3O days after the end of each quarter.
Are mentor hours documented on the CHP 415?
Yes, use beat code 913.
Is the explorer program considered a mentoring program?
Yes.
How many explorer advisors per Area can use mentoring leave for the explorer program?
One.
Will the procedures contained in HPM 1O.4 – Citizens’ Complaint Manual, be used for anonymous complaints?
No, the procedures contained in HPM 1O.4 will only be followed only when the complainant has been identified and wishes to pursue the formal citizens’ complaint process.
Currently, pursuant to HPM 1O.2 – Internal Investigations, investigations may be initiated as the result of a complaint, departmental knowledge, or other source of information. If the source of the complaint, knowledge, or other source of information is anonymous, will the Department initiate a formal investigation?
No, not without having a basis for believing there is merit to the complaint. Investigations will not begin based solely on anonymous sources.
Should Department resources be used to determine the source of such complaints?
No, unless the communication is a violation of law, such as a threat.
Who is an employee required to notify if they receive an anonymous complaint?
Commander.
Once notified what is the commander required to do?
Make initial inquiry as to the merits of the allegation. Consider if there is adequate evidence to corroborate the allegation such as documents, witnesses, and other specific and relevant information. Commander should consider the egregiousness of the alleged misconduct. Commander should consider the employee’s work history as it pertains to the allegation. Make sure allegations have not already been investigated. Shall prepare a memorandum and forward through channels to Internal Affairs.
If the allegation is determined to be without merit, what does the employee have to right to do?
Provide a written response within 3O days.
The memorandum from the commander outlining why no further action is warranted along with the employee’s response, and any original documentation shall be forwarded to Internal Affairs within what time frame?
Within 6O days of receiving the complaint.
Once Internal Affairs reviews the complaint, who is required to give final approval?
Appropriate Assistant Commissioner.
How long will Internal Affairs maintain the original documents?
Five years, and will not be considered part of the employees personnel file.
