Locomotion and Movement Flashcards

1
Q

A simple form of movement in the unicellular organisms like Amoeba is __________ of protoplasm.

A

streaming

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2
Q

The voluntary movements result in a change of place or location are called

A

locomotion

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3
Q

Walking, running, climbing, flying, swimming are all some forms of

A

locomotory movements

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4
Q

In Paramoecium, cilia helps in the movement of food through

A

cytopharynx

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5
Q

Hydra can use its ____ for capturing its prey

A

tentacles

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6
Q

Cells of the human body exhibit three main types of movements which are -

A

amoeboid, ciliary and muscular

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7
Q

Name two specialised cells in blood which exhibit amoeboid movement

A

macrophages and leucocytes

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8
Q

amoeboid movement is effected by _____ formed by the streaming of protoplasm

A

pseudopodia

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9
Q

Which Cytoskeletal element is involved in amoeboid movement?

A

microfilaments

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10
Q

Ciliary movement occurs in most of our internal tubular organs which are lined by

A

ciliated epithelium

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11
Q

The coordinated movements of ____ in the trachea help us in removing dust particles and some of the foreign substances

A

cilia

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12
Q

Passage of ova through the female reproductive tract is also facilitated by the

A

ciliary movement

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13
Q

Movement of our limbs, jaws, tongue, etc, requires

A

muscular movement

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14
Q

The ____ property of muscles are effectively used for locomotion and other movements by human beings

A

contractile

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15
Q

The cilia and flagella are the outgrowths of the

A

cell membrane

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16
Q

Which movement helps in the swimming of spermatozoa?

A

Flagellar movement

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17
Q

Flagellar movement helps in the maintenance of water current in the _____ of sponges

A

canal system

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18
Q

Flagellar movement helps in the locomotion of Protozoans like ____

A

Euglena

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19
Q

Muscle is a specialised tissue of ____ origin

A

mesodermal origin

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20
Q

What percent of the body weight of a human adult is contributed by muscles

A

40-50 per cent

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21
Q

Name four special properties of muscles

A

excitability, contractility, extensibility and elasticity

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22
Q

Based on their location, name three types of muscles identified

A

Based on their location, name three types of muscles identified

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23
Q

Which muscles are closely associated with the skeletal components of the body?

A

Skeletal muscles

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24
Q

Skeletal muscles have a striped appearance under the microscope and hence are called

A

striated muscles

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25
Skeletal muscles activities are under the voluntary control of the nervous system, they are known as
voluntary muscles
26
Which muscles are primarily involved in locomotory actions and changes of body postures?
Skeletal muscles
27
Visceral muscles are located in the inner walls of _____ of the body
hollow visceral organ
28
Name two hollow visceral organs of the body in which visceral muscles are located
alimentary canal, reproductive tract
29
Visceral muscles do not exhibit any ___ and are ____ in appearance
striation; smooth
30
Visceral muscles are also called
smooth muscles(nonstriated muscle)
31
Which muscles assist the transportation of food through the digestive tract and gametes through the genital tract?
Visceral muscles
32
The muscles of heart are
Cardiac muscles
33
Based on appearance, cardiac muscles are
striated
34
Name two involuntary muscles
Visceral muscles & Cardiac muscles
35
Each organised skeletal muscle in our body is made of a number of
muscle bundles / fascicles
36
muscle bundles are also called
fascicles
37
Muscle bundles are held together by a common collagenous connective tissue layer called _______.
fascia
38
Each muscle bundle contains a number of
muscle fibres
39
Each muscle fibre is lined by the plasma membrane called
sarcolemma
40
Muscle fibre is a __ as the sarcoplasm contains many nuclei
syncitium
41
_____ of the muscle fibres is the store house of calcium ions
sarcoplasmic recticulum
42
The presence of a large number of parallelly arranged filaments in the sarcoplasm called
myofilaments or myofibrils
43
Each myofibril has alternate ______ and ______ bands on it
dark, light 
44
The myofibril has the distribution pattern of two important proteins
Actin and Myosin
45
The light bands contain
Actin
46
The dark bands contain
myosin
47
The light bands is called
I-band or Isotropic band
48
The dark band is called
A’ or Anisotropic band
49
Actin filaments are thinner as compared to the myosin filaments, hence are commonly called
thin and thick filaments
50
In the centre of each ‘I’ band is an elastic fibre called
‘Z’ line
51
The thick filaments in the ‘A’ band are also held together in the middle of this band by a thin fibrous membrane called
‘M’ line
52
The portion of the myofibril between two successive ‘Z’ lines is considered as the functional unit of contraction and is called a
sarcomere
53
The central part of thick filament, not overlapped by thin filaments is called the
‘H’ zone
54
Each actin (thin) filament is made of two
‘F’ (filamentous) actins
55
Each ‘F’ actin is a polymer of monomeric
‘G’ (Globular) actins
56
Two filaments of another protein, _________ also run close to the ‘F’ actins throughout its length.
tropomyosin
57
Which complex protein is distributed at regular intervals on the tropomyosin?
Troponin
58
Each myosin (thick) filament is a ___ protein
polymerised protein-
59
Many monomeric proteins called __________ constitute one thick filament.
meromyosins
60
Each meromyosin has two important parts a _______ with a short arm and a ______
globular head , tail
61
A globular head with a short arm is called
heavy meromyosin (HMM)
62
Each meromyosin has a tail called
light meromyosin (LMM)
63
The HMM component projects outwards at regular distance and angle from each other from the surface of a polymerised myosin filament and is known as
cross arm
64
The globular head is an ___enzyme
active ATPase enzyme
65
The globular head has binding sites for ___ and active sites for ___
ATP; actin
66
Mechanism of muscle contraction is best explained by which theory?
sliding filament theory
67
The sliding filament theory states that contraction of a muscle fibre takes place by the sliding of the ___ over the ___
thin filaments; thick filaments
68
Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by the___ via a ____
central nervous system; motor neuron
69
A motor neuron alongwith the muscle fibres connected to it constitutes a _______
motor unit
70
The junction between a motor neuron and the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre is called the
neuromuscular junction or motor-end plate
71
A neural signal reaching neuromuscular junction releases which neurotransmitter?
Acetyl choline
72
Acetyl choline generates an action potential in the ___
sarcolemma
73
An action potential spreads through the muscle fibre and causes the release of ____
calcium ions
74
Action potential causes the release of calcium ions into the ____
sarcoplasm
75
Increase in Ca++ level leads to the binding of calcium with a subunit of troponin on ___
actin filaments
76
Utilising the energy from _____, the myosin head binds to the exposed active sites on actin
ATP hydrolysis
77
Utilising the energy from ATP hydrolysis, the myosin head binds to the exposed active sites on actin to form a ____
cross bridge
78
The ‘Z’ line attached to these actins are pulled inwards thereby causing a _____
shortening of the sarcomere
79
shortening of the sarcomere
lactic acid
80
Repeated activation of the muscles can lead to the accumulation of lactic acid due to
anaerobic breakdown of glycogen
81
Muscle contains a red coloured oxygen storing pigment called
myoglobin
82
Muscles which gives a reddish appearance are called
Red fibres
83
Red fibres contain plenty of _____
mitochondria
84
Red fibres are also known as
aerobic muscles
85
Some of the muscles possess very less quantity of myoglobin and appear _______
pale or whitish
86
Muscles which appear pale or whitish are called as
White fibres
87
In White fibres, the amount of _____ is high
sarcoplasmic reticulum
88
Bone has a very hard matrix due to ____
calcium salts
89
Cartilage has slightly pliable matrix due to ___
chondroitin salts
90
In human beings, skeletal system is made up ___ bones
206 bones
91
Skeletal system is grouped into two principal divisions
the axial and the appendicular skeleton
92
How many bones are present in the Axial skeleton?
80 bones
93
Which four things constitute axial skeleton?
skull, vertebral column, sternum and ribs
94
How many bones are there in skull?
22 bones
95
The skull is composed of two sets of bones –
cranial and facial
96
How many bones are there in Cranial bones?
8
97
Cranial bones form the hard protective outer covering, ___ for the brain
cranium
98
The facial region is made up of ___ skeletal elements which form the front part of the skull
14 
99
A single Ushaped bone which is present at the base of the buccal cavity called
hyoid
100
Each middle ear contains three tiny bones 
Malleus, Incus and Stapes,
101
Malleus, Incus and Stapes, are collectively called
Ear Ossicles
102
The skull region articulates with the superior region of the vertebral column with the help of ____
two occipital condyles
103
The skull region having two occipital condyles is called _______ skull.
dicondylic
104
Our vertebral column is formed by _____ units.
26 serially arranged units
105
Our vertebral column is formed by 26 serially arranged units called
vertebrae
106
Each vertebra has a central hollow portion called ____ through which the spinal cord passes.
neural canal
107
First vertebra is
atlas
108
First vertebra articulates with the ___.
occipital condyles
109
Name the five regions starting from the skull of vertebral column
cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral and coccygeal
110
How many cervical vertebrae are there ?
7
111
How many thoracic vertebrae are there ?
12
112
How many lumbar vertebrae are there ?
5
113
How many sacral vertebrae are there ?
1-fused
114
How many coccygeal vertebrae are there ?
1-fused
115
A flat bone on the ventral midline of thorax called
Sternum
116
How many pairs of ribs are there?
12 pairs
117
Each rib is a thin flat bone connected ____ to the vertebral column.
dorsally
118
Each rib is connected ___ to the sternum
ventrally
119
Rib has two articulation surfaces on its dorsal end and is hence called
bicephalic
120
First seven pairs of ribs are called
true ribs
121
True ribs are attached ventrally connected to the sternum with the help of
hyaline cartilage
122
Which three pairs of ribs do not articulate directly with the sternum?
8th, 9th and 10th
123
The 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs join which rib with the help of hyaline cartilage?
7th rib
124
The 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called
vertebrochondral ribs
125
Last 2 pairs (11th and 12th) of ribs are called
floating ribs
126
Thoracic vertebrae, ribs and sternum together form the _______
rib cage
127
The bones of the limbs along with their girdles constitute the _______
appendicular skeleton
128
How many bones are there in each limb?
30 bones
129
Name all the bones of the hand (fore limb).
humerus, radius and ulna, carpals, metacarpals and phalanges
130
How many bones are there in wrist bones?
8
131
How many bones are there in palm bones?
5
132
How many bones are there in phalanges bones?
14
133
Name all the bones of the legs (hind limb).
Femur, tibia and fibula, patella, tarsals, metatarsals and phalanges
134
The longest bone is called
Femur
135
How many bone are there in ankle bones?
7
136
How many bone are there in metatarsals in legs?
5
137
A cup shaped bone which cover the knee ventrally (knee cap)?
patella
138
Which bones help in the articulation of the upper and the lower limbs respectively with the axial skeleton?
Pectoral and Pelvic girdle
139
Each half of pectoral girdle consists of ____ and ____
a clavicle and a scapula
140
A large triangular flat bone which is situated in the dorsal part of the thorax between the second and the seventh ribs is called
scapula
141
The dorsal, flat, triangular body of scapula has a slightly elevated ridge called
spine
142
The spine projects as a flat, expanded process called
acromion
143
Below the acromion is a depression which articulates with the head of the humerus to form the shoulder joint called
glenoid cavity
144
Each clavicle is a long slender bone which is commonly called the
collar bone
145
Pelvic girdle consists of ___ bones
two coxal bones
146
Each coxal bone is formed by the fusion of three bones –
ilium, ischium and pubis
147
At the point of fusion of the three bones is a cavity to which the thigh bone articulates called
acetabulum
148
The two halves of the pelvic girdle meet ventrally to form the ____ containing fibrous cartilage
pubic symphysis
149
Force generated by the muscles is used to carry out movement through joints, where the joint acts as a ___
fulcrum
150
Joints have been classified into three major structural forms
fibrous, cartilaginous and synovial
151
Which joints do not allow any movement?
Fibrous joints
152
In which joints, the bones involved are joined together with the help of cartilages?
cartilaginous joints
153
Which joints are characterised by the presence of a fluid filled synovial cavity between the articulating surfaces of the two bones?
Synovial joints
154
Which joints allows considerable movement?
Synovial joints
155
Example of Ball and socket joint
humerus and pectoral girdle
156
Example of hinge joint
knee joint
157
Example of pivot joint
between atlas and axis
158
Joint between the carpals are called
gliding joint
159
Joint between carpal and metacarpal of thumb is called
saddle joint
160
Which auto immune disorder affect neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle?
Myasthenia gravis
161
In which genetic disorder, progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle occurs?
Muscular dystrophy
162
Rapid spasms (wild contractions) in muscle due to low Ca++ in body fluid occurs in which disease?
Tetany
163
Inflammation of joints is called
Arthritis
164
Which age related disorder is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chances of fractures?
Osteoporosis
165
Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals is called
Gout