Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Medicine Phase One > Limbs and Back: Week Four > Flashcards

Limbs and Back: Week Four Flashcards

1
Q

What is the function of the Palmaris Brevis?

A

Improve Grip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the function of the lumbricals?

A

Extends the PIP and DIP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Name the intrinsic muscles of the hand (All For One And One For All)? This is lateral to medial

A
  • Abductor pollicis brevis
  • Flexor pollicis brevis
  • Opponens pollicis
  • Adductor pollicis
  • Opponens digiti minimi
  • Flexor digiti minimi brevis
  • Abductor digiti minimi
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name the three thenar muscles. What is their origin blood supply and innervation?

A
  • Abductor pollicis brevis
  • Flexor pollicis brevis
  • Opponens pollicis
    They originate from the flexor retinaculum, and tubercles of the scaphoid and trapezium. They are innervated by the recurrent branch of the median nerve and supplied by the superficial branch of the radial artery.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Name the three hypothenar muscles. What is their origin blood supply and innervation?

A
  • Opponens digit minimi: hook of hamate
  • Flexor digiti minimi brevis: hook of hamate
  • Abductor digit minimi: pisiform
    They are supplied by ulnar artery and the deep branch of the ulnar nerve.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the difference between the dorsal and palmar interossei muscles?

A

The palmar are involved in adduction and the dorsal are involved in the abduction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The majority of the muscles of the hand are supplied by the ulnar nerve, which muscles do not?

A

LOAF:

- lateral lumbricals and thenar muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What three nerves supply the hand?

A

Radial (just sensory), Median and Ulnar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does the ulnar nerve travel to the hand?

A

This travels above the flexor retinaculum and into the Guyon’s canal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The ulnar nerve hives rise to a superficial and deep branch. Which one is motor and which one is sensory?

A

The deep is motor and the superficial is sensory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which nerve passes over the anatomical snuffbox?

A

The radial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the two branches of the median nerve?

A

The recurrent branch and palmar digital branch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What branch of the median nerve supplies the thenar muscles?

A

The recurrent branch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What forms the medial and lateral base of the Carpal tunnel?

A

Medially: pisiform and hook of hamate
Lateral: Tubercles of scaphoid an trapezium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the structures that pass through the carpal tunnel?

A
  • 4 flexor digitorum profundus tendons
  • 4 flexor digitorum superficialis tendons
  • Tendon of flexor pollicis longus
  • Median nerve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Does the tendon of the flexor pollicis longus travel through the carpal tunnel?

A

Yes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which artery enters the hand superior to the flexor retinaculum?

A

Ulnar artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the two branches of the ulnar artery?

A
  • Deep palmer branch
  • Superficial palmar arch
    The palmar digital arteries arise first and this anastomoses with the radial artery branch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What muslce does the radial artery pass between?

A

In-between adductor pollicis heads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What arch does the radial artery form?

A

Deep palmer arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are bones of the proximal carpal row?

A

Scaphoid, Lunate, Triquetrum and Pisiform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are bones of the distal carpal row?

A

Trapezium, Trapezoid, Capitate and Hamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which carpal bone is a sesamoid bone?

A

The pisiform bone: in the flexor carpi ulnaris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which carpal bones have a tubercle?

A

Scaphoid and Trapezium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which carpal bone is the largest?

A

Capitate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What forms the distal radioulnar joint?

A

The ulnar notch of the radius and the ulnar head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What kind of joint is the wrist joint?

A

Condyloid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What bones are involved in the wrist joint?

A

The radius scaphoid, lunate and triquetrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What prevents the ulna bone from being a part of the wrist joint?

A

The articular disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the four ligaments of the wrist joint?

A
  • Palmar radiocarpal
  • Dorsal radiocarpal
  • Ulnar collateral
  • Radial collateral
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the function of the palmar and dorsal radiocarpal ligaments?

A

The palmar allows the hand to follow the arm during supination. The dorsal allows the hand to follow the arm during pronation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the functions of ulnar and radial collateral ligaments?

A

They prevent lateral joint displacement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What kind of joints are the intercarpal joints?

A

These are plane joints.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What kind of joints are the metacarpophalangeal joints?

A

Condyloid joint. These are reinforced by the palmar and collateral ligaments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What kind of joints are the interphalangeal joints?

A

Hinge joints. The thumb only has one.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What kind of joints are the carpometacarpal joints?

A

Thumb and Trapezium: Saddle Joint

Fingers: Synovial ellipsoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What type of infection is seen in B cell deformities?

A

Bacterial infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What type of infection is seen in T cell deformities?

A

Viral, Fungal, Protozoal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is Bruton Agammaglobulinemia?

A

Mutation in Brutons tyrosine kinase gene. This is a B cell defect that results in the inability of B cells to mature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is mutated in Hyper IgM syndrome?

A

The CD40L on the T cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is X-linked SCID (Bubble-boy disease)?

A

This is a T cell defect. There is a mutation in the cytokine receptor IL-2R gamma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is chronic granulomatous disease?

A

Mutation in phagocyte NADPH oxidase. There is an increase in bacteria/fungi infections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are some treatments of primary deficiency?

A

Antibody replacement, stem cell replacement and gene therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Define immunodeficiency

A

Inability to make protective immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Describe primary immunodeficiency and give examples

A 
This is congenital and is a result from a genetic defect.
- Hyper IgM syndrome
- Bruton Agammaglobulinemia
- MHC I deficiency 
- MHC II deficiency 
- IgA deficiency
- Dendritic cell deficiency
- Complement deficiency
- DiGeorge's syndrome 
- Wiskott-aldrich syndrome
-
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Describe secondary immunodeficiency and give examples

A

This is acquired through out life and is a result of other diseases.

  • HIV
  • Protein/calorie malnutrition
  • Irradiation/ chemotherapy
  • Cancer spread to bone marrow
  • Spleen removal
  • Corticosteroids
  • Leukaemia
  • Stress/emotion
  • Aging
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Define autoimmunity.

A

Breakdown of self-tolerance leading to aberrant immune response against self-tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Define organ-specific autoimmunity and give examples

A

This is the attack of a given organ.

  • Hashimoto thyroiditis
  • Thyrotoxicosis
  • Addison’s disease
  • Atrophic gastritis
  • MS
  • Type one diabetes
  • Guillain-barré syndrome
  • Goodpastures syndrome
  • Graves disease
  • Myasthenia gravis
  • Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpula (ITP)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Define non-organ-specific autoimmunity and give examples

A

This is widespread damage of antigens.

  • Systemic lupus
  • RA
  • Scleroderma
  • Dermatomyotisis
  • Mixed connective tissue disease
  • Sjogren syndrome
50
Q

What is the target of Graves disease?

A

TSH receptor: The thyroid hormones are regulated by TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone) and this binds to receptors, stimulating TH. in graces, there is over activation.

51
Q

What is the target for Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Acetylcholine receptor: the receptor are degraded and this means there is no sodium influx.

52
Q

What is the target for ITP?

A

Platelets

53
Q

What is the target for Guillain-barré syndrome?

A

Gangliosides. There is molecular mimicry of infectious agents and there is the production of anti-ganglioside antibodies.

54
Q

What are cytokines?

A

Messenger molecules of the immune system

55
Q

What does DMARDs stand for?

A

Disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs

56
Q

What nerve supplies the thenar muscles?

A

Median Nerve

57
Q

What nerve supplies the hypothenar muscles?

A

Ulnar nerve

58
Q

Where is Lister’s tubercle?

A

The radius

59
Q

What is the medial border of the anatomical snuffbox?

A

Extensor pollicis longus

60
Q

What is the lateral border of the anatomical snuffbox?

A

Tendons of the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis.

61
Q

What is the proximal border of the anatomical snuffbox?

A

Styloid process

62
Q

What nerve is deep to the Palmaris longus?

A

Median nerve

63
Q

What ligaments support the thumb MCP joint?

A

Ulnar and Radial collateral

64
Q

What carpal bone is susceptible to avascular necrosis?

A

Scaphoid

65
Q

What metacarpal is broken in Boxer’s fracture?

A

Fifth

66
Q

What are the two layers of the articular capsule in a synovial joint?

A
  • Outer fibrous membrane which has tough, dense, irregular tissue
  • Inner synovium which is loose and contains the cells
67
Q

What are the two cells of the synovium?

A 
Type A (macrophage-like): phagocytosis
Type B (fibroblast): secrete hyaluronic acid and mucin
68
Q

What cells produce hyaluronic?

A

Type B (fibroblast-like synovial cells)

69
Q

Name the six types of Synovial joints

A
  • Hinge
  • Plane
  • Saddle
  • Ball-and-Socket
  • Condyliod
  • Pivot
70
Q

Which synovial joints are uniaxial?

A

Hinge (flexion and extension), Plane (gliding) and Pivot (rotation)

71
Q

Which joint has a ring of ligament around it?

A

Pivot

72
Q

Which synovial joints are biaxial?

A

Saddle and Condyloid

73
Q

Which synovial joints multi-axial?

A

Ball-and-Socket

74
Q

Name the five signs of inflammation

A

Rubor, Calor, Dolor, Tumor and Function lease

75
Q

Vasoconstriction is the first stage of inflammation. Why is it overcome?

A

Injured cells release histamine, prostaglandins, leukotrienes and bradykinin and nitric oxide which cause vasodilation.

76
Q

Describe the normal blood flow and explain the change in inflammation

A

There is normally axial flow where the leukocytes and red cells are in the centre and the plasma is on the outside. When there is inflammation, the plasma leaks out due to the increase permeability. This causes the leukocytes to be at the side of the wall.

77
Q

What causes endothelial cells to express for E-selectin of endothelial cells?

A

IL-1 and TNF are released from macrophages, mast cells and endothelial cells when they encounter damaged of infected cells. This causes more selectin.

78
Q

What is unique about P-selectin?

A

P-selectin normally stays within granules, in places known as Weibel-Palade bodies. They are activated by histamine and thrombin.

79
Q

What do selectin bind to?

A

Glycoproteins on leukocytes

80
Q

What causes the binding of Integrin’s?

A

Chemokines produced will bind to proteoglycans on endothelial cells and activate rolling leukocytes, causing them to express integrin’s. They bind to ICAM.

81
Q

What is the process called whereby leukocytes migrate across the vessel wall and how do they break the BM?

A

Diapedesis. They secrete collagenases.

82
Q

What is the main interleukin for chemotaxis?

A

IL-8

83
Q

What is swan neck deformity?

A

DIP flexed, PIP hyperextended

84
Q

What is boutonniere deformity?

A

DIP hyperextended, PIP flexed

85
Q

What are the two susceptibly genes in RA?

A

HLA-DR1 and HLA-DR4

86
Q

Describe Citrullination.

A

Environmental factors cause modification of molecules like IgG, Type II collagen of Vimentin. This is citrullination whereby the argine is switched by citrulline. The immune cells, due to susceptibly genes , don’t recognise them.

87
Q

What do T cell release that cause recruitment of more inflammatory cells?

A

IL-17 and IL-gamma

88
Q

What is the effect form TNF-alpha, IL-1 and IL-6?

A

These are released from macrophages and they increase the number of inflammatory cells and causes synovial cell proliferate. These cell will also produce proteases which degrades bone.

89
Q

What two cells will start to produce RANKL?

A

T cells and fibroblasts-like synovitis.

90
Q

What do neutrophils produce?

A

ROS and protease that degrades bone and cartilage.

91
Q

What are immune complexes?

A

Antibodies biding together

92
Q

How does the pannus form?

A

There is an increase in synovial and inflammatory cells. There is a swelling of fibroblasts, inflammatory cells and myofibroblasts in granulation tissue. This will causes damage.

93
Q

What is the function of GM-CSF?

A

Macrophage development.

94
Q

What is Rheumatic factor?

A

This is an IgM antibody which targets the Fc on IgG.

95
Q

What is Anti-CCP?

A

This is a target for citrullinated proteins, eg fibrin and fillagrin.

96
Q

Give some examples of extra-articular involvement of RA

A
  • Cardiovascular disease
  • Osteoporosis
  • Malignancy
  • Depression
  • Chronic lung disease
  • Anaemia (increased hepcidin in liver)
  • Carpal tunnel syndrome
  • Nodules in skin
  • Fatigue
  • Muscle weakness
  • Sjogren syndrome
97
Q

Give some examples of DMARDs.

A

Most Suffers Can Get Appropriate Pain Control.

  • methotrexate
  • sulfasalazine
  • cyclosporine
  • gold
  • azathioprine
  • penicillamine
  • hydroxychloroquine (cell communication)
98
Q

What is the mechanism of action of methotrexate?

A

This is an analogue of folic acid. This inhibits the action of dihydrofolate reductase which interferes with DNA synthesis.

99
Q

Give some examples of Biologic agents that inhibit TNF-alpha

A

etanercept, infliximab, adalimumab, certalizumab

100
Q

Give some examples of Biologic agents that inhibit IL-6

A

Toalizumab

101
Q

What is the difference between COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes?

A

COX-1: cytoprotective prostaglandin which have a protective role in gastric mucosa.
COX-2: inflammatory cytokines

102
Q

What protien is the Glucocorticoids receptor linked to?

A

Hsp56-90. Glucocorticoids affect protein transcription.

103
Q

What are the effects of Glucocorticoids

A

Up-regulates annexin-1 which blocks the arachidonic pathway.
Down-regulates Cytokines, enzymes and adhesion molecules.

104
Q

Give some side effects of glucocorticoids

A

Moor face, increased abdominal fat, poor wound healing, euphoria, buffalo hump and skin and muslce thinning

105
Q

How many tonsils are there?

A

Two lingual and two palatine. One pharyngeal.

106
Q

What is the difference between aureus and albus?

A

Aureus is golden and albus is white.

107
Q

What is the difference between Straphylo and Strepto?

A

Straphylo is clusters and Strepto is a twisted chain.

108
Q

What is the function of GSCF (granulocytes colony stimulating factor)?

A

Stimulates neutrophil proliferation

109
Q

What three antibodies are monomers?

A

IgG, IgE and IgD

110
Q

What shape is IgA and what is its function?

A

Dimer. This is found in most of the body’s secretions, including saliva, milk and tears.

111
Q

What is Chrons disease?

A

Gut inflammation

112
Q

What side is the hook of hamate on?

A

Ventral

113
Q

Where does the brachioradialis insert?

A

Radial styloid process

114
Q

What would tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox indicate?

A

Injury to radial styloid process

115
Q

What vein is blood taken from in the cubital fossa?

A

medial cubital vein

116
Q

Describe the classical pathway of the complement cascade

A

This is activated by anti-body coated microbial surface (IgG or IgM). This activates C3/5 convertase and this form C3a and C5a. These activate peptide inflammatory mediators and causes cell lysis.

117
Q

Describe the lectin pathway of the complement cascade

A

This is activated by the binding of mannose-binding lectin to mannose residues on the pathogen. This cause the formation of C3b an this causes opsonisation.

118
Q

Describe the alternative pathway of the complement cascade

A

This is activated by the microbial cell surface. This forms a membrane-attack complex and causes cell lysis.

119
Q

What is the function of C3b?

A

This binds to antigens and provides a mechanism for uptake by dendritic cells an recognition from B cells. It also allows coating of phagocytes (activated by C3a)

120
Q

What are the functions of complement?

A
  • pathogen lysis
  • inflammatory cell recruitment
  • histamine release
  • macrophage stimulation
  • bacteria lysis
121
Q

What is clumping?

A

Clumping of antigen-bearing agents

122
Q

What would be a possible reason for levels of IgM to be high?

A

New infection or last infection as levels persist for a long time

Medicine Phase One (44 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions