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MICROBIOLOGY!225-80 > Lab Practical Part 1 > Flashcards

Lab Practical Part 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

Bacterial species have characteristic patterns of colony growth, but can this be used as a diagnostic tool to identify a colony on a plate or broth?

A
  1. Morphology gives clues, but can’t identify the species . Different species night have similarities
  2. Medium, temp, environment also affect growth patterns
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2
Q

Pinpoint, small, moderate or large

A

Size

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3
Q

Color of colony

A

Pigmentation

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4
Q

Shape of colony

A

Form

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5
Q

Unbroken, peripheral edge

A

Circular

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6
Q

Indented peripheral edge

A

Irregular

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7
Q

Cultural characteristics

A

differences in macroscopic appearance of growth

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8
Q

What is used to separate microorganisms into taxonomic groups?

A

Cultural characteristics

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9
Q

Rootlike, spreading growth

A

Rhizoid

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10
Q

The appearance of the outer edge of the colony is called

A

Margin

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11
Q

Sharply defined, even

A

Entire

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12
Q

Marked indentations

A

Lobate

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13
Q

Wavy indentations

A

Undulate

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14
Q

Toothlike appearance

A

Serrate

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15
Q

Threadlike, spreading edge

A

Filamentous

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16
Q

Degree to which the colony growth is raised on the agar surface

A

Elevation

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17
Q

Elevation not discernable

A

Flat

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18
Q

Slightly elevated

A

Raised

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19
Q

Dome shaped elevation

A

Convex

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20
Q

Raised, with elevated convex central region

A

Umbonate

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21
Q

A culture containing a single unadulterated species of cells is called a

A

Pure culture

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22
Q

Cluster of cells that originates from the multiplication of a single cell and represents the growth of a single species of microorganism

A

Colony

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23
Q

A solution containing these nutrients is a

A

Culture medium

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24
Q

All culture media are

A
  1. Broth culture
  2. Semisolid medium
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25
Q

Broth medium

A

Lacks a solidifying agent

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26
Q

Semisolid medium

A

A concentration of less than 1% agar

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27
Q

A solid can exist as 3 forms as agar

A
  1. Agar slant
  2. Agar deep
  3. Agar plate
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28
Q

Sterility is the hallmark of successful work in the microbiology laboratory and _______ is the process of rendering a medium or material free of all forms of life

A

Sterilization

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29
Q

Using correct aseptic technique minimizes the likelihood that

A

Bacterial cultures will be contaminated

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30
Q

Using correct aseptic technique minimizes the likelihood that bacterial cultures will be contaminated and reduces the opportunity that

A

you will be exposed to potential pathogens.

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31
Q

Heat = __________or __________such as the autoclave used in class which is adding steam with pressure over time.

A

Dry (hot air)
Moist (wet heat)

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32
Q

Types of sterilization techniques

A
  1. Heat
  2. Filtration
  3. Chemicals
  4. Radiation
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33
Q

normal flora that does not cause negative effects in healthy individuals but instead symbiotic relationships with your skin.

A

Resident flora

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34
Q

can be removed with good handwashing techniques, even adding surgical scrubbing.

A

Transient flora

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35
Q

Why are resident flora more difficult to remove?

A

They are more difficult to remove because they are accustomed to living inside or on the human body. They have evolved and adapted to withstand the conditions of the human body. The immune system might not react to them because it recognizes them as part of the body. They are also covered by hair follicles, oil, and dead skin cells which obstruct their removal.

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36
Q

Clinical Application: What are nosocomial infections?

A

Nosocomial infections are infections that someone contracts while in a medical facility. It is important to clean surfaces thoroughly and use appropriate protective gear while working in a medical environment so nosocomial infections can be prevented.

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37
Q

How is handwashing affected by water only, soap and water, soap and scrubbing?

A
  1. water removes polar
  2. soap is surfactant, amphipathic
    S. scrubbing, physically removes the substances
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38
Q

How does resident flora influence infections?

A
  1. Using up nutrients
  2. outcompete for space and resources.
  3. Can cause infection when it goes somewhere else
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39
Q

How does handwashing affect residential versus transient flora?

A

Both types of flora can be removed through handwashing, however, transient flora is more easily removed from the hands than resident flora. Some resident flora resides on the skin and has adapted to be hard to remove from the skin. Resident flora are covered by hair follicles, oil, and dead skin cells which obstruct their removal

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40
Q

If medical and surgical personnel wear gloves, then why do they still have to wash their hands?

A

There may be an accidental transfer of microbes when removing PPE. Or PPE may not be donned appropriately, exposing the medical personnel and patients to microbes.

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41
Q

subculturing

A

The transfer of microorganisms from one medium to another.

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42
Q

What are you preparing and maintaining?

A

We are practicing subculturing to learn to prepare and maintain stock cultures in various media.

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43
Q

What is an inoculum?

A

An inoculum is a microbial growth that is used to start another culture of that same microbe. This allows microbiologists to examine the growth of the microbe in a specific medium under controlled conditions.

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44
Q

What is inoculation?

A

inoculation is the process of introducing a microbe to a medium.

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45
Q

Identify three rules that you would tell another student to always remember to do when you are completing an aseptic technique for handling and transferring microbes.

A

Flame the loop or needle before and after inoculation.
Flame test tubes before and after using inoculating loop.
Never place the caps on the laboratory bench. The caps must be kept in the hand that holds the sterile inoculating loop or needle.

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46
Q

Flaming the inoculating instrument prior to and after each inoculation

A

These precautions help prevent contamination of the inoculum and help prevent accidental transfer of microbes on other surfaces. They also help protect the microbiologist against contamination.

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47
Q

Holding the test tube caps in the hand as illustrated in Figure 2.1 on page 14

A

This prevents the spread on microbes onto the lab bench which can lead to accidental infections.

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48
Q

c. Cooling the inoculating instrument prior to obtaining the inoculum

A

Heat can kill microbes. It is important to cool the instrument to avoid damaging the cultures in the inoculum.

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49
Q

Flaming the neck of the tubes immediately after uncapping and before recapping

A

These precautions help prevent contamination of the inoculum and help prevent accidental transfer of microbes on other surfaces. They also help protect the microbiologist against contamination.

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50
Q

Identify a pure culture

A

Pure cultures contain only one type of organism and allow us to study their cultural, morphological, and biochemical properties.

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51
Q

Identify a streak plate

A

The streak plate technique is a technique used to isolate pure cultures. This dilution technique spreads a loopful of culture over the surface of an agar plate as a means to separate and dilute the microbes and ensure individual colony growth.

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52
Q

In the “Tips for Success” section on page 22, what is the point of number 1?
An isolation plate has isolated distinct, individual colonies. The point of this is to get

A

individual, isolated colonies somewhere on the plate.

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53
Q

In the “Tips for Success” section on page 22, what is the point of number 2?
2.Pay attention to how well you sterilize your loop and maintain your aseptic technique

A

If the loop is not sterilized between streaks, or if aseptic technique is not maintained, there will not be a decrease in bacteria leading to individual colonies.

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54
Q

How does this technique apply to Koch’s Postulates? Chapter 1 and Chapter 14 will be helpful to answer this question.

A
  1. Isolate, grow and compare the microorganism in people with the same disease.
  2. Reintroduce in healthy person and see if they get disease
  3. Singles our microorganism as cause of a disease
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55
Q

The streak plate technique helps make the discrete, isolated, identical bacterial colonies needed to identify bacterial pathogens. which lets observers

A

It allows observers to collect samples of one type of culture and grow it to observe its characteristics.

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56
Q

____ ______ staining is the use of a single stain, for visualization of morphological shape (cocci, bacilli, and spirilli) and arrangement (chains, clusters, pairs, and tetrads).

A

Simple staining

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57
Q

Simple staining staining is the use of a ________ stain, for visualization of morphological shape

A

single

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58
Q

Simple staining staining is the use of a single stain, for visualization of morphological _______ (cocci, bacilli, and spirilli)

A

shape

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59
Q

Simple staining staining is the use of a single stain, for visualization of morphological shape (cocci, bacilli, and spirilli) and _____________ (chains, clusters, pairs, and tetrads).

A

arrangement

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60
Q

__________ ___________staining is the use of two contrasting stains, for the separation into groups acid-fast stain and Gram stain, and the visualization of structures (flagella, capsule, spore, and nuclear).

A

Differential staining

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61
Q

Differential staining staining is the use of _____ contrasting stains, for the separation into groups acid-fast stain and Gram stain, and the visualization of structures (flagella, capsule, spore, and nuclear).

A

two

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62
Q

Differential staining staining is the use of two contrasting stains, for the separation into groups acid-fast stain and ______ stain, and the visualization of structures (flagella, capsule, spore, and nuclear).

A

Gram

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63
Q

Differential staining staining is the use of two contrasting stains, for the separation into groups acid-fast stain and Gram stain, and the visualization of ________ (flagella, capsule, spore, and nuclear).

A

structures

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64
Q

T or F Bacterial smears must be prepared prior to executing of any of the staining techniques.

A

True

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65
Q

Whether using a broth culture or a culture from a solid medium, both should be air dried before continuing. T o F

A

True

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66
Q

T o F A broth culture requires water to be added to dilute the broth so it can be spread out to about the size of a nickel.

A

False

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67
Q

There is no way to avoid the bacterial smear from washing away on the slide. T o F

A

False

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68
Q

Simple staining methods are a quick procedure for determining

A

whether a clinical sample has the presence of a foreign bacterial pathogen.

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69
Q

Identify the bacteria that is a chain of spheres

A

streptococcus

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70
Q

Identify the bacteria that is a curved rod

A

vibrio

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71
Q

Identify the bacteria that is a chain of rods

A

streptobacillus

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72
Q

Identify the bacteria that is a cluster of spheres

A

staphylococcus

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73
Q

Slides should be handled with care during negative staining because

A

Heat fixation is not applied, leaving the bacteria alive

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74
Q

the first diagnostic test

A

gram staining

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75
Q

Shape, orientation, gram type, and can be performed on multiple cultures.

A

gram staining

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76
Q

to determine if an organism possesses a capsule, or demonstrate spore formation

A

negative staining

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77
Q

frequently used to ID a specific fungi that is found in bird droppings and linked to meningeal and lung infections in humans

A

negative staining

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78
Q

Gram stains are

A

differential stains

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79
Q

Imparts color to all cells

A

crystal violet

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80
Q

The mordant; Intensifies color of the primary stain

A

Gram’s Iodine

81
Q

Decolorizing agent; Removes the primary stain

A

95% ethyl alcohol

82
Q

The counterstain; Contrasting color to the primary

A

Safranin

83
Q

Steps of Gram stain

A
  1. Crystal Violet
  2. Gram’s Iodine
  3. 95% Ethyl alcohol
  4. Safranin
84
Q

Besides the order of staining and the age of the cultures used, name 2 other important factors when completing a gram stain.

A

1.It is important not to over-decolorize or under-decolorize the smear with the decolorizing agent (ethyl alcohol 95%). Decolorizing too much will make gram-positive cells appear gram-negative. The opposite can occur if the cells are under-decolorized.
2.Slides need to be washed with water between applications of reagents to remove the excess leftover reagent from the previous step.

85
Q

Thin layer of peptidoglycan is stained

A

Gram negative

86
Q

Thick layer of peptidoglycan is stained

A

Gram positive

87
Q

Purple in color

A

Gram positive

88
Q

pink in color

A

Gram negative

89
Q

In an acid-fast stain, only non-acid-fast cells undergo decolorization and look clear, ready to pick up the counterstain to take on its ____color, while acid-fast cells retain the red from the primary stain.

A

blue

90
Q

In an acid-fast stain, only non-acid-fast cells undergo decolorization and look clear, ready to pick up the counterstain to take on its blue color, while acid-fast cells retain the ____ from the primary stain.

A

red

91
Q

The acid-fast stain is of diagnostic value in identifying organisms that cause _________, leprosy, and other infections.

A

tuberculosis

92
Q

The characteristic difference between mycobacteria and other microbes is the presence of

A

a thick, waxy (lipoidal) wall that makes penetration by stains extremely difficult.

93
Q

_____ in the form of steam can be used to drive the carbol fuschin into the waxy lipoidal cell wall.

A

heat

94
Q

The cells walls of Mycobacteria and Nocardia contain _______ _____and are resistant to penetration by water-soluble stains.

A

mycolic acid

95
Q

Members of Clostridium and Bacillus can exist as

A

1.vegetative cells
2.spores

96
Q

Members of Clostridium and Bacillus genera are examples of organisms that have the capacity to exist either as metabolically active ________ cells or as highly resistant metabolically inactive cell types called spores ready for more favorable environmental conditions.

A

vegetative

97
Q

are spores metabolically active?

A

No, spores are metabolically inactive cells

98
Q

Some spore forming bacteria can have extremely negative health effects. These bacteria include ________ anthracis, which causes anthrax, and certain __________ bacteria which are the causative agents of tetanus, gas gangrene, food poisoning, and pseudomembranous colitis.

A

Bacillus
Clostridia

99
Q

Some spore forming bacteria can have extremely negative health effects.

A

Bacillus and clostridia

100
Q

causes anthrax,

A

Bacillus anthracis,

101
Q

causative agents of tetanus, gas gangrene, food poisoning, and pseudomembranous colitis.

A

Clostridia

102
Q

Spore forming bacteria that is causative agent of food poisoning

A

Clostridia

103
Q

Clostridia can cause

A
  1. Gas gangrene
  2. Tetanus
  3. Food poisoning
  4. colitis (pseudomembranous)
104
Q

Differential stains can stain ___________ inside bacterial cells as well as free spores (both seen as the color ______), to identify these pathogenic bacteria.

A

endospores
green

105
Q

can stain endospores inside bacterial cells as well as free spores (both seen as the color green)

A

Differential stains

106
Q

What color do differential stains turn endospores and free spores?

A

green

107
Q

The _________ of an organism is increased by the presence of a capsule, since the capsule protects the organism from phagocytosis.

A

virulence

108
Q

If a bacterial infection is not being cleared or responding to antibiotic therapy as expected, staining of isolated organisms to determine the presence of a capsule may be warranted.

Gram negative bacteria that form capsules include

A

1.Haemophilus influenzae
2.Klebsiella pneumoniae

109
Q

Gram positive bacteria that form capsules include

A

1.Bacillus anthracis
2.Streptococcus pneumoniae.

110
Q

Identify the type of respiration you are considering for this test (pg 203)

A

Aerobic

111
Q

There is a chemical reaction you are testing that is show in your lab book that states “Organisms capable of producing catalase rapidly degrade hydrogen peroxide….”

Identify the by-products that microbes produce.

A

water and free oxygen

112
Q

Name the enzyme you are testing for that breaks down hydrogen peroxide.

A

Catalase

113
Q

All microbes contain the enzyme you typed in question 4.

A

False

114
Q

Why is this test (Catalase test) quick and easy with the increasing worry of resistant strains?

A

This test helps distinguish between catalase-positive staphylococci and catalase-negative streptococci, and members of enterobacteriaceae .

115
Q

Most strains of MRSA make _______ and the catalase test can help differentiate between Staphylococci, which are typically catalase-positive, and streptococci which are typically catalase-negative. MRSA stands for Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus.

A

catalase

116
Q

T o F The matching test can be used to differentiate between catalase-positive Staphylococci and catalase-negative Streptococci.

A

True

117
Q

Which carbohydrate is present at lower amounts to permit detection of the utilization of this substrate only?

A

Glucose

118
Q

The TSI agar test is designed to differentiate among groups or genera of the

A

Enterobacteriaceae

119
Q

Enterobacteriaceae, which are gram ________ _______

A

negative bacilli

120
Q

Enterobacteriaceae, which are gram negative bacilli capable of fermenting _______ with the production of acid

A

glucose

121
Q

Enterobacteriaceae, which are gram negative bacilli capable of fermenting glucose with the production of ______

A

acid

122
Q

Purpose of TSI agar test

A
  1. differentiate Enterobacteriaceae
  2. distinguish from other gram negative intestinal bacilli
123
Q

to distinguish Enterobacteriaceae from other _____ _______ _______ _______

A

gram negative intestinal bacilli

124
Q

gram negative bacilli capable of fermenting glucose with the production of acid

A

Enterobacteriaceae

125
Q

The TSI test can distinguish between 3 species of Proteus:

A

P. vulgaris,
P. mirabilis,
P. penneri.

126
Q

These microorganisms are opportunistic pathogens, meaning that they do not normally cause disease, but can if they have the opportunity to colonize certain regions of the body.

A

P. vulgaris, P. mirabilis, and P. penneri.

127
Q

This test (TSI) differentiates between these three microbes by testing their abilities to

A

reduce sulfur and ferment carbohydrates.

128
Q

P. mirabilis causes

A

UTIS

128
Q
A
129
Q

P. mirabilis causes UTIS and can be treated with

A

ampicillin and cephalosporins.

130
Q

more commonly causes nosocomial (hospital-acquired) infections in immunocompromised patients.

A

P. vulgaris

131
Q
A
131
Q

P. vulgaris more commonly causes

A

nosocomial (hospital-acquired) infections in immunocompromised patients.

132
Q

Proteus less likely to cause UTIs

A

P. vulgaris

133
Q

Proteus not sensitive to ampicilin and cephalosporins

A

P. vulgaris

134
Q

Microbial growth is directly dependent on how temperature affects _______ ________.

A

cellular enzymes

135
Q

Bacteria, as a group of living organisms, are capable of growth within an overall temperature range of

A

-5C to 80C (23F to 176F).

136
Q

Each species, however, requires a narrower range that is determined by the ______ ________ of its enzyme systems.

A

heat sensitivity

137
Q

minimum growth temperature

A

the lowest temperature at which growth will occur. Below this temperature, enzyme activity is inhibited and the cells are metabolically inactive so that growth is negligible or absent.

138
Q

the lowest temperature at which growth will occur. Below this temperature, enzyme activity is _______ and the cells are metabolically inactive so that growth is negligible or absent.

A

inhibited

139
Q

below minimum growth temperature enzyme activity is inhibited and cells are metabolically inactive, meaning

A

growth is negligible or absent

140
Q

maximum growth temperature

A

the highest temperature at which growth will occur.

141
Q

Above maximum growth temperature, most enzymes are_____

A

destroyed

142
Q

cause of enzymes being destroyed

A

organism dies

143
Q

optimum growth temperature

A

the temperature at which the rate of reproduction is most rapid

144
Q

optimum growth temperature - the temperature at which the rate of reproduction is most rapid; however, it is not necessarily optimum or ideal for ____ enzymatic activities of the cell.

A

all

145
Q

optimum growth temperature is not ideal for all

A

enzymatic activities of the cell

146
Q

which major group would you likely find the microbes that reside in the human body?

A

mesophiles

147
Q

This microbe is listed as being cold resistant; doubling its growth every 36 hours even at refrigerator temperatures or lower:

A

Listeria monocytogenes

148
Q

Select two microbes below that would be examples of microbes surviving outside of the pH defense mechanisms of the body and causing infection.

A

H. pylori & C. albicans

149
Q

Require oxygen. Growth is usually seen at the very top of a test tube.

A

Aerobes

150
Q

Oxygen in excess blocks growth. In test tubes, growth is seen hovering away from, but close to, the surface.

A

microaerophiles

151
Q

Lacks enzymes to break down free oxygen, so it is lethal. Growth is seen at the very bottom of test tubes.

A

obligate anaerobes

152
Q

Can tolerate oxygen but show evenly dispersed growth in a test tube.

A

Aerotolerant anaerobes

153
Q

Majority of bacteria can grow in the absence or presence of oxygen. Growth is seen congested near the surface but also spread throughout the test tube.

A

Facultative anaerobes

154
Q

The causative agent of ___ _______is Clostridium perfringens.

A

gas gangrene

155
Q

What is the causative agent of gas gangrene?

A

Clostridium perfringens

156
Q

This bacteria thrives in wounds deprived of circulation and oxygen

A

Clostridium perfringens

157
Q

The causative agent of gas gangrene is Clostridium perfringens. This bacteria thrives in wounds deprived of _______ and ________ which can cause limb loss and death

A

circulation and oxygen

158
Q

Doctors may prescribe therapy using enriched oxygen delivered to the patient in a hyperbaric chamber allowing blood to carry more oxygen to the wounds, slowing the growth of _________microbes.

A

anaerobic

159
Q

Cells are increasing in size.

However, no cell division = no increase in numbers.

A

Lag phase

160
Q

Binary fission causes rapid increase in population.

A

Log phase

161
Q

Cells dividing = cells dying.

No increase in cell number. Population at max.

Nutrients are depleting.

Toxic end products are accumulating.

A

stationary phase

162
Q

Correct: Decrease of population at a rapid and uniform rate.

Resistant organisms usually persist after majority of population dies.

A

decline phase, death

163
Q

stages of a growth curve in order

A

Lag
Log
Stationary
Death

164
Q

How well did you create a lawn and how do you know?

A

A well created lawn of microbes would be densely populated except for the zones of inhibition. The bacterial colonies should be close together and cover the entire petri dish.

165
Q

Are you looking for colonies on the dish? Compare it to a streak plate. What are you looking for

A

You are looking for zones of inhibition on the streak plate. There should be blank spots with no bacteria surrounding the antibiotic discs. This activity is different from a streak plate because the bacterial colonies are closely packed together to create a lawn.

166
Q

What is a zone of inhibition?

A

A zone of inhibition tests a compound’s potency against a bacterial strain. It is a clear area surrounding some antimicrobial discs that indicate prevented growth of bacteria.

167
Q

chemical substances used to treat infectious diseases.

A

chemotherapeutic agents

168
Q

are synthesized and secreted by some true bacteria, actinomycetes, and fungi that destroy or inhibit the growth of other microorganisms.

A

Antibiotics

169
Q

To determine a therapeutic drug of choice, it is important to determine its ___ ___ ______, possible adverse side effects in the host, and the scope of its antimicrobial activity.

A

mode of action

170
Q

To determine a therapeutic drug of choice, it is important to determine its mode of action, possible adverse _____ ______ in the host, and the scope of its antimicrobial activity.

A

Side effects

171
Q

To determine a therapeutic drug of choice, it is important to determine its

A

-mode of action
-side effects
-scope of antimicrobial activity

172
Q

What is the essential tool used in clinical laboratories to select for the best agent?

A

Kirby Bauer Antibiotic sensitivity Test

173
Q

How big was the petri dish that was made for this Harvard experiment? feet by feet

A

2x4

174
Q

The bands of agar had antibiotic in differing concentrations toward the middle, what was the highest concentration of antibiotic?

A

1000x

175
Q

It is expected for the bacteria to grow in the first outer sections of antibiotic bands, why?

A

The concentration of antibiotic is lower in the outer regions. Lower concentration of antibiotic means that there will be less substances that can kill the bacteria on the outside regions.

176
Q

Why did bacteria grow in the second set of antibiotic bands?

A

Some of the colonies mutated and developed resistance to the higher concentration of antibiotic.

177
Q

How much time passed before the bacteria reached the middle?

A

11 days

178
Q

Bacteria which are normally ________ to an antibiotic can evolve resistance to extremely high concentrations in a short period of time.

A

sensitive

179
Q

Bacteria which are normally sensitive to an antibiotic can _______ __________to extremely high concentrations in a short period of time.

A

evolve resistance

180
Q

The efficiency of all disinfectants and antiseptics is influenced by a variety of factors including

A

1.Concentration
2.Length of exposure
3.Type of microbial population to be destroyed
4.Environmental conditions

181
Q

Environmental conditions can include

A

1.Temperature
2.pH
3.Type of material on which the microorganisms exist

182
Q

Numerous laboratory procedures are available for evaluating the antimicrobial efficiency of disinfectants or antiseptics. These procedures provide a _________ rather than an absolute measure of the effectiveness of any agent

A

general

183
Q

These procedures provide a general rather than an absolute measure of the effectiveness of any agent because test conditions frequently _______considerably from those seen during practical use.

A

differ

184
Q

Numerous laboratory procedures are available for evaluating the antimicrobial efficiency of disinfectants or antiseptics. These procedures provide a general rather than an absolute measure of the effectiveness of any agent because

A

test conditions frequently differ considerably from those seen during practical use.

185
Q

What does MRSA (pronounced merrssa) stand for

A

Methicillin- resistant staphylococcus aureus

186
Q

Which agent is named as a connection with resistance to MRSA?

A

A lack of susceptibility to benzalkonium chloride and other disinfectants

187
Q

The size of the zone of inhibition is not indicative of the degree of effectiveness of the chemical agent. T o F

A

True

188
Q

Which agent is named as a connection with resistance to MRSA? What’s the fix?

A

A lack of susceptibility to benzalkonium chloride and other disinfectants. Adjusted contact times might be needed to adequately kill the troublesome strains

189
Q

Disinfectants and antiseptics are effective in reducing the number of living microbes. However, some microbes are capable of entering a dormant stage through a process called __________

A

sporulation.

190
Q

In Sporulation, the microbes enclose themselves in structures that allow them to

A

preserve their genetic material

191
Q

However, some microbes are capable of entering a dormant stage through a process called sporulation. In this stage, the microbes enclose themselves in structures that allow them to preserve their genetic material when environmental conditions are unfavorable, called _______.

A

dormancy

192
Q

microbes enclose themselves in structures that allow them to preserve their genetic material when environmental conditions are

A

unfavorable

193
Q

sporulation. In this stage, the microbes enclose themselves in structures that allow them to preserve their genetic material when environmental conditions are unfavorable, called

A

dormancy

194
Q

called dormancy. For example, a bacterial cell that has encapsulated itself and entered a dormant stage is called an _________

A

endospore

195
Q

Endospores are a type of reproductive egg that bacteria produce in order to survive unfavorable conditions. T o F

A

False

196
Q
A

MICROBIOLOGY!225-80 (24 decks)

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