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MICROBIOLOGY!225-80 > Lab Practical > Flashcards

Lab Practical Flashcards

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1
Q

Presence or absence of oxygen can be very _________ to the growth of bacteria

A

Important

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2
Q

Sodium thioglycate broth

A

Type of reducing media that is used to reduce the amount of oxygen concentration within the test tube

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3
Q

_____ is added to reduce the diffusion of oxygen to the rest of the media

A

Agar

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4
Q

Dye added to indicate where oxygen is present in the medium

A

resazurin

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5
Q

Turns pink in the presence of excess oxygen

A

Resazurin

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6
Q

Obligate Aerobe

A

1.Require oxygen. 2.See growth at the top of broth only

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7
Q

Obligate anaerobe

A
  1. Can’t tolerate oxygen
  2. Lack catalase
    3.See growth at bottom of broth only
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8
Q

Majority of bacteria

A

Facultative anaerobes

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9
Q

Capable of living with or without oxygen

A

Facultative anaerobe

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10
Q

Growth is seen throughout medium but more at the surface

A

Facultative anaerobe

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11
Q

Cannot use oxygen but tolerate it well

A

Aerotolerant anaerobe

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12
Q

Most bacteria use fermentative metabolism

A

Aerotolerant anaerobe

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13
Q

Growth is seen throughout the medium, but more at the bottom

A

Aerotolerant anaerobe

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14
Q

Microaerophiles

A

Grow best in an atmosphere with increased carbon dioxide (5-10%)and lower concentrations of oxygen.

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15
Q

To culture microaerophiles on petri dishes, a ______ jar is needed

A

CO2

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16
Q

Generally, ____ kills microbes and _____ inhibits microbial growth

A

Heat
cold

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17
Q

How is heat sensitivity determined?

A

Heat sensitivity is genetically determined and partially reflected in the optimal growth ranges

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18
Q

Bacteria exhibit different tolerances to the application of_____

A

Heat

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19
Q

Examples of dry heating

A

1.Hot air ovens
2.incineration

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20
Q

Moist heat examples

A
  1. Pasteurization
    2.boiling
  2. autoclave
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21
Q

________ transfers heat energy to the microbial cell more efficiently

A

Moisture

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22
Q

Pasteurization maintains temperature at ____ for ______ mins

A

145 F for 30 mins

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23
Q

Pasteurization maintains temperature at _____ for __ ________ to kill microbes that are pathogenic or cause spoilage

A

160 F for 15 seconds

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24
Q

Boiling

A

212 F for 10 minutes kills vegetative bacterial cells but does not inactivate endospores

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25
Q

Most effective method of moist heat sterilization

A

Autoclave

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26
Q

What is autoclaving?

A

Use of steam under pressure

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27
Q

More pressure ________ the boiling point of water and produces steam with a higher temperature

A

Raises

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28
Q

What are the conditions for autoclaving?

A

15 PSI at 250F for 15 minutes

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29
Q

Sufficient to kill endospores and render materials sterile

A

Autoclaving

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30
Q

Thermal death time

A

The effectiveness of heat against a specific microbe

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31
Q

TDT

A

Length of time required to kill all bacteria in a liquid culture at a given temperature

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32
Q

TDP thermal death point

A

Temperature required to kill all bacteria in a liquid culture in 10 minutes (less common)

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33
Q

DRT decimal reduction time

A

Time in minutes in which 90% of a population of bacteria at a given temperature will be killed.

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34
Q

Antimicrobial agents

A

Control the growth of microbes

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35
Q

Disinfectants

A

Chemical agents used on inanimate objects to lower the level of microbes on their surface

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36
Q

Antiseptics

A

Chemicals used on living tissue to decrease number of microbes

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37
Q

Bactericidal agents

A

Those that result in bacterial death

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38
Q

-cidal

A

Lethal

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39
Q

Bacteriostatic agents

A

Those that cause temporary inhibition of growth

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40
Q

-static

A

Inhibiting

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41
Q

DRT Decimal reduction time

A

for the most common and persistent microbes identified at a healthcare facility should be determined

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42
Q

Limited to bacteriocidal compounds cannot be used for bacterostatic

A

Dilution test

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43
Q

The effectiveness of a disinfectant can be determined by the amount of resulting growth

A

Use-dilution test

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44
Q

Common and persistent microbes identified at healthcare facilities

A

1.Salmonella enterica
2.Staphylococcus aureus
3. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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45
Q

Use dilution test

A

Rings are dipped into standardized cultures, removed, and dried.

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46
Q

Rings are placed into a solution of disinfectant at the concentration recommended for 10 minutes at 68° F

A

Use-dilution test

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47
Q

Effectiveness of disinfectant can be determined by the amount of resulting growth

A

Use dilution test

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48
Q

Antibiotics

A

Substance produced by a microorganism that inhibits the growth of other microorganisms

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49
Q

Antimicrobial or chemotherapeutic drugs

A

Antimicrobial chemicals used internally whether natural (antibiotic) or synthetic

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50
Q

Disk diffusion method

A

1.Petri dish is innoculated with desired microbe

  1. Various antimicrobial agents are placed on the surface of the agar
  2. Antimicrobial agent diffuses
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51
Q

Zone of inhibition

A

No growth around the disk
1. Helps us see the diffusion rate of antimicrobial agent

  1. Growth rate of microbe
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52
Q

Kirby-Bauer test

A

Standardized disc diffusion method to minimize variance

Uses Mueller-Hinton agar

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53
Q

The bigger the zone of inhibition the more ______ the antibiotic is

A

Effective

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54
Q

Which bacteria produce 70% of all antibiotics

A

Streptomycetes

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55
Q

Earliest writers classified bacteria solely on their

A

Morphological characteristics

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56
Q

Biologic characters

A

Refers to information about the metabolism of bacteria

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57
Q

Exoenzymes

A

Break down large molecules outside a cell. Smaller molecules released by this reaction are taken into the cell and further degraded by endoenzymes

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58
Q

Endoenzymes

A

Degrade the products of exoenzymes

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59
Q

Majority of enzymes function on the inside of the cell

A

Endoenzymes

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60
Q

Enzymes that are released from the cell to catalyze reactions outside the cell

A

Exoenzymes

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61
Q

Mainly hydrolytic enzymes

A

Exoenzymes

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62
Q

What do exoenzymes do?

A

1.Leave the cell
2.break down large substrates
3.need the addition of water
4. transport smaller components into the cell

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63
Q

Example of exoenzyme

A

Amylase hydrolyzes the polysaccharide starch to glucose

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64
Q

Starch hydrolysis begins

A

Clear

65
Q

Add iodine to see presence in substrate outside

A

Colony

66
Q

O/F test

A

1.Oxidative vs fermentative
2. OF medium is semisolid nutrient agar deep

67
Q

Low concentration of peptone is

A

Growth medium

68
Q

Desired carbohydrate can be added

A

O/F test

69
Q

Oxidative catabolism requires the presence of

A

O2

70
Q

Fermentative catabolism does not require oxygen but may occur in its presence

A

Some gas may occur

71
Q

Peptone are

A

Food

72
Q

Bromothymol blue turns green to yellow in the presence of

A

Acids

73
Q

Bromothymol blue turns green to yellow in the presence of acids

A

Catabolism of carbohydrates

74
Q

Both tubes turn yellow

A

Carbohydrate catabolism= fermentation

75
Q

Yellow at top half

A

Acids produced as intermediates in respiration

76
Q

Yellow in open tube only

A

Aerobic conditions only

77
Q

Dark blue

A

1.Alkaline conditions
2.peptone used but no carbohydrate
3.ammonia production

78
Q

More specific

A

Fermentation

79
Q

Carbohydrate fermentation

A

Many bacteria produce organic acids and carbon dioxide gases from carbohydrate fermentation
-glucose

80
Q

MRVP broth

A

Used to distinguish organisms that produce large amounts of acid from glucose and organisms that produce neutral product Acetoin

81
Q

Citrate agar

A

Used to test for ammonia production

82
Q

Phenol red turns from red to yellow when

A

Acid is present

83
Q

Carbohydrate fermentation test

A

1.Peptone is used for microbe growth
2. Each tube has the same microbe but different carbohydrates

84
Q

Durham tube

A

Small inverted tube used to observe gas released by the microbe

85
Q

This is not a test you want to leave longer than 24 hours because the color will change back to red

A

Carbohydrate fermentation test

86
Q

Why can’t you leave the carbohydrate fermentation test for more than 24 hours

A

The color will change back to red because peptone is used after the carbohydrate is gone

87
Q

MR test

A

Test for acid to neutral pH changes based on products produced by microbes

88
Q

Red

A

pH is below 4.4

89
Q

Orange red

A

pH is 4.4-6.0

90
Q

Yellow

A

pH is above 6.0

91
Q

MR VP

A

Methyl red voges proskauer

92
Q

Is a glucose supplemented nutrient broth

A

MR VP

93
Q

Voges proskauer test

A

Test for production of acetoin detection by the addition of reagent 1 (alpha napthol) and reagent 2 (KOH)

94
Q

VP
Upper part is red

A

Acetoin present= positive test

95
Q

VP Upper part is brown

A

No acetoin=negative test

96
Q

Simmons citrate agar

A

Green=control and negative
Prussian blue=positive

97
Q

Some bacteria ferment citrate which can be useful for identifying bacteria

A

Contain citrate lyase

98
Q

When citric acid is in solution, it loses a proton to form

A

Citrate ion
Sole carbon source

99
Q

Citrate lyase break down citrate to form

A

pyruvate which can be reduced in fermentation

100
Q

Bacteria use ammonium for sources of nitrogen and produce

A

Ammonia

101
Q

Bromothymol blue changes to blue when the medium is

A

Alkalized

102
Q

Small chain of amino acids

A

Peptide

103
Q

Large chain of amino acids

A

Polypeptide

104
Q

Amino acids are used primarily in

A

Anabolic reactions

105
Q

Bacteria can hydrolyze the peptides or Polypeptides to release amino acids

A

Use amino acids as energy sources when carbohydrates are unavailable

106
Q

When is the nutrient gelatin test positive?

A

If it stays liquid because it signifies the breakdown of proteins

107
Q

Exoenzymes gelatinase hydrolyzes gelatin

A

It liquefies but does not solidify when cooled

108
Q

Litmus milk

A

Bacteria can hydrolyzes the protein in milk called casein

109
Q

Skim milk

A

Litmus indicator (blue/purple)

110
Q

Cason hydrolysis peptonization

A

Turns clear blue

111
Q

Lactose fermentation

A

Turns pink with acid

112
Q

Excessive acid coagulation

A

Curd

113
Q

Catabolism of litmus milk test

A

Alkaline reaction is purple

114
Q

Reduce litmus

A

Turns white in lower part of two

115
Q

Reduce litmus

A

Turns white in lower part of tube

116
Q

Urea

A

Urea is a waste product of protein digestion in most vertebrates and is excreted in urine

117
Q

Urease

A

Breaks down urea releasing ammonia

118
Q

Urea agar contains

A

peptone, glucose, urea, and phenol red

119
Q

Phenol red in urease test is originally

A

Orange

120
Q

In urease test, yellow means a pH of

A

6.8

121
Q

Urease test: Bright pink means a pH of

A

8.4

122
Q

Once the amino acids are taken into a bacterial cell, various metabolic processes can occur using endoenzymes

A
  1. Use as carbon and energy source
  2. Have to remove the amino group
123
Q

Removing the amino group is called

A

Deamination makes H2S and Indole

124
Q

During deamination

A

Amino acid to ammonia, then released from the cell

125
Q

Urease breaks down urea releasing

A

Ammonia

126
Q

Deamination produces

A

Indole and H2S

127
Q

Some bacteria have de-sulfhydrase enzymes

A

Remove hydrogen sulfide from the sulfur containing amino acids cysteine and methionine

128
Q

De-sulfhydrase enzymes gas

A

Make rotten egg gas

129
Q

H2S can also be produced from the reduction of inorganic compounds such as

A

thiosulfate

130
Q

SIM Medium

A

Sulfide indole motility

131
Q

Why do we use an inoculation needle in the sim medium?

A

To see if the bacteria grows out from where it was stabbed

132
Q

Motility

A

The growth of black hydrogen sulfide is going to spread instead of being in a line

133
Q

What is added to the Sim medium? What kind of salt?

A

Heavy metal salt such as iron, thiosulfate

134
Q

Positive results shows a blackened area

A

Sulfide

135
Q

Positive result shows red at top

A

Indole

136
Q

Positive result shows black all over test tube

A

Motility

137
Q

What does the hydrogen sulfide production test do?

A

Tests sulfide, indole and motility

138
Q

Indole test

A

Useful diagnostic tool. Some bacteria deaminate amino acid tryptophan and produce indole, indigo

139
Q

Uses MIO deep

A

Indole test

140
Q

Which reagent is used for the indole test?

A

Kovac’s reagent

141
Q

MIO stands for

A

Motility
Indole
Ornithine decarboxylase

142
Q

Respiration

A

Living organisms obtain energy by removing electrons or oxidizing substrates

143
Q

Example of respiration

A

Glycolysis; glucose is oxidized to pyruvic acid; The electron transport chain carries electrons; O2 is the final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration.

144
Q

Cytochromes in the plasma membrane of bacterial cells carry electrons to

A

O2

145
Q

Oxidase test

A

Used to determine the presence of cytochrome C
Four classes of cytochromes have been identified

146
Q

Catalase test

A

During respiration, hydrogen combines with oxygen forming hydrogen peroxide.

Hydrogen peroxide is lethal to the cell

147
Q

During respiration hydrogen combines with oxygen forming

A

Hydrogen peroxide

148
Q

Nitrate reduction rest

A

Used to determine the ability to reduce nitrates

149
Q

During anaerobic respiration, some bacteria reduce

A

1.Nitrate to nitrite
2.Nitrite to nitrous oxide
3.Nitrous oxide to nitrogen gas

150
Q

Uses to reagents to detect nitrites

A

Reagent a & reagent b

151
Q

Dimethyl-alpha-naphthylamine

A

Reagent A

152
Q

Sulfanilic acid

A

Reagent B

153
Q

What indicates a positive nitrate reduction test?

A

Red color-> nitrite is present= positive

154
Q

Why should you check for gas first in the nitrate reduction test

A

Nitrogen has been reduced to nitrous, oxide (N2O) or nitrogen gas (N2)

155
Q

A second test is used to further check if a negative is found

A

Zinc dust
Red color-> zinc will reduce nitrates to nitrites

156
Q

Salt tolerance test

A

Tests the ability of an organisms ability to survive in high salt concentration

157
Q

Percentage of salt for salt tolerance test

A

6.5% to 7.5%

158
Q

What is a positive result of the salt tolerance test?

A

Cloudy is a positive result. Clear is a negative result

159
Q

Which organisms are expected to grow in high salt concentrations?

A

Staphylococci enterococci, Aerococci

MICROBIOLOGY!225-80 (24 decks)

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