Chap 6 Flashcards

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1
Q

Physical requirements for microbial growth

A
  1. Temperature
  2. pH
  3. Osmotic pressure
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2
Q

Chemical requirements for growth

A
  1. Carbon
  2. N,S,P
  3. trace elements
  4. Oxygen
  5. Organic growth factors
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3
Q

Types of temperatures involved in growth

A

Minimum growth temperature
Optimum growth temperature
Maximum growth temperature

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4
Q

Psychrophiles

A

cold-loving

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5
Q

Mesophiles

A

Moderate temperature loving

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6
Q

Thermophiles

A

heat-loving

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7
Q

Psychrotrophs grow between which temperatures?

A

0 C and 20-30 C

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8
Q

Psychotrophs cause

A

food spoilage

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9
Q

Refrigerator temperatures

A

40 to 40 F

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10
Q

Many bacteria survive, some may grow

A

40 F to 60 F

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11
Q

Danger zone temp range

A

60 F to 130 F

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12
Q

Very slow bacterial growth

A

50-60 C

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13
Q

Temperatures in this range destroy most microbes, although lower temperatures take more time

A

above 60 C

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14
Q

Thermophiles optimum growth temperature

A

50-60C

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15
Q

Thermophiles are found in

A

hot springs and organic compost

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16
Q

Hyperthermophiles optimum growth temperature

A

above 80C

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17
Q

Most bacteria grow between what pH range?

A

6.5-7.5

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18
Q

Molds and yeasts grow between what pH range?

A

5 and 6

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19
Q

Acidophiles grow in what environments

A

acidic

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20
Q

What is plasmolysis?

A

the process of water leaving plant cells, allowing the cytoplasm and plasma membrane to shrink away from the cell wall.

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21
Q

What causes plasmolysis?

A

hypertonic environments; high osmotic pressure

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22
Q

Extreme or obligate halophiles require what kind of osmotic pressure?

A

high osmotic pressure (high salt)

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23
Q

Faculative halophiles tolerate what?

A

high osmotic pressure

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24
Q

Why are hyperthermophiles that grow at temperatures above 100C seemingly limited to oceanic depths?

A

the extreme pressure at those depths allows water to remain liquid at such high temperatures, which is necessary for their survival; essentially, the high pressure counteracts the boiling point of water, enabling them to exist in a liquid environment where they can function properly.

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25
Q

Other than controlling acidity, what is an advantage of using phosphate salts as buffers in growth media?

A

primary advantage of using phosphate salts as buffers in growth media is that they provide a readily available source of phosphorus, an essential nutrient for most bacteria, making them non-toxic and beneficial for microbial growth.

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26
Q

Why might primitive civilizations have used food preservation techniques that rely on osmotic pressure?

A

Growth of the cell is inhibited as the plasma membrane pulls away from the cell wall. The high salt or sugar concentrations draw water out of any microbial cells, thus prevent their growth.

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27
Q

Name each of the four elements needed in large amounts for microbial growth.

A

carbon, nitrogen, sulfur, and phosphorus

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28
Q

Identify ways in which aerobes avoid damage by toxic forms of oxygen

A

produce enzymes such as catalase, peroxidase and/or superoxide dismutase that break down toxic forms of oxygen and their intermediate byproducts.

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29
Q

Function of carbon

A

Structural backbone of organic molecules

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30
Q

Chemoheterotrophs use organic molecules as

A

energy

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31
Q

Autotrophs use

A

CO2

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32
Q

Nitrogen is a component of

A

proteins, DNA & ATP

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33
Q

Most bacteria decompose protein material for the

A

nitrogen source

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34
Q

Some bacteria use NH4+ or NO3- from

A

organic material

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35
Q

A few bacteria use what in nitrogen fixation?

A

N2

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36
Q

Sulfur is used in

A
  1. Amino acids,
  2. Thiamine
  3. Biotin
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37
Q

Most bacteria decompose protein for the

A

sulfur source

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38
Q

Some bacteria use SO4 2- or H2S

A

true

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39
Q

Usage of phosphorus

A

DNA, RNA, ATP

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40
Q

Phosphorus is found in

A

membranes

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41
Q

What is a source of phosphorus?

A

PO4 3

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42
Q

What are trace elements?

A

Inorganic elements required in small amounts

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43
Q

Trace elements usually function as

A

enzyme cofactors

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44
Q

Examples of trace elements

A

iron, copper, molybdenum, and zinc

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45
Q

Obligate aerobes+

A

require oxygen

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46
Q

Facultative anaerobes

A

grow via fermentation or anaerobic respiration when oxygen is not available

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47
Q

Anaerobes

A

unable to use oxygen and most are harmed by it

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48
Q

Aerotolerant anaerobes

A

tolerate but cannot use oxygen

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49
Q

Microaerophiles

A

Require O2 concentration lower than air

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50
Q

Growth of obligate aerobes

A

Growth on top. Growth occurs where high concentrations of oxygen have diffused into the medium

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51
Q

Faculative anaerobes
Growth

A

Growth is most concentrated on top, but some is into the medium. Growth is best where most oxygen is present, but occurs throughout the tube.

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52
Q

Growth of obligate anaerobes

A

Growth occurs only where there is no oxygen. At bottom of broth.

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53
Q

Aerotolerant anaerobes growth

A

growth occurs evenly, oxygen has no effect

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54
Q

Singlet Oxygen

A

boosted to a higher-energy state and is reactive. 1O2 -

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55
Q

Superoxide radicals

A

O2

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56
Q

Superoxide radicals equation

A

O2- + O2- + 2H+ —> H2O2 + O2

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57
Q

Peroxide anion

A

O2 2-

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58
Q

Peroxide Anion equation

A

2H2O2 —> 2H2O + O2
H2O2 + 2H+ —> 2H2O

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59
Q

Hydroxyl radical

A

OH -
OH.

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60
Q

Organic compounds are obtained from the

A

environment

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61
Q

Examples of organic growth factors

A
  1. Vitamins,
  2. amino acids,
  3. purines,
  4. pyrimidines
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62
Q

If bacterial cells were given a sulfur source containing radioactive sulfur (35 S) in their culture media, in what molecules would the
35 S be found in the cells?

A

Bacterial cells would incorporate the radioactive sulfur (35S) into amino acids, proteins, and nucleic acids in their cells

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63
Q

How would one determine whether a microbe is a strict anaerobe?

A

culture it in an oxygen-free environment and observe if it grows well; if the microbe only grows in the absence of oxygen, it is considered a strict anaerobe

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64
Q

Oxygen is so pervasive in the environment that it would be very difficult for a microbe to always avoid physical contact with it. What, therefore, is the most obvious way for a microbe to avoid damage?

A

Produce enzymes that would neutralize them from toxicity

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65
Q

What are biofilms?

A

Microbial communities

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66
Q

Biofilms form

A

slime or hydrogels that adhere to surfaces

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67
Q

How do bacteria in biofilms communicate?

A

Bacteria communicate cell-to-cell via quorum sensing

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68
Q

quorum sensing

A

a cell-to-cell communication process that allows bacteria to sense their population density and adjust their gene expression

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69
Q

How do bacteria use quorum sensing to communicate?

A

Bacteria secrete an inducer (signaling chemical) to attract other bacterial cells

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70
Q

In biofilms, bacteria share

A

nutrients

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71
Q

In biofilms, the bacteria can be sheltered from

A

harmful environmental factros

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72
Q

Where can you find biofilms?

A

digestive system and sewage treatment systems, can clog pipes

73
Q

How resistant are biofilms to microbicides?

A

1000x resistant

74
Q

Biofilms are involved in what perecentage of infections?

A

70%

75
Q

Common sites of infections

A

Catheters, heart valves, contact lenses, dental caries

76
Q

Identify a way in which pathogens find it advantageous to form biofilms.

A
  1. Antibiotic resistance
  2. Protection from immune system
  3. Nutrient trapping (concentrated source of food within)
  4. adhesion to surfaces
  5. quorum sensing that allows the group to respond to environmental clues
77
Q

Culture medium

A

nutrients prepared for microbial growth

78
Q

Sterile

A

no living microbes

79
Q

inoculum

A

introduction of microbes into a medium

80
Q

Culture

A

microbes growing in or on a culture medium

81
Q

Agar is made of

A

Complex polysaccharide

82
Q

Agar is used as

A

solidifying agent for culture media in Petri plates, slants, and deeps

83
Q

Agar liquifies at what temp

A

100 C

84
Q

Agar solidifies at what temp

A

approx 40 C

85
Q

What is chemically defined media?

A

exact chemical composition is known

86
Q

Fastidious organisms

A

those that require many growth factors provided in chemically defined media

87
Q

Complex media

A

extracts and digests of yeasts, meat, or plants; chemical composition varies batch to batch

88
Q

Examples of complex media

A
  1. Nutrient broth
  2. Nutrient agar
89
Q

Reducing media is used for

A

the cultivation of anaerobic bacteria

90
Q

Reducing media contains

A

chemicals that combine O2 to deplete it (Sodium Thioglycolate)

91
Q

Reducing media is heated to

A

drive off O2

92
Q

Capnophiles

A

Microbes that require high CO2 conditions

93
Q

Things needed to culture canophiles

A

1.CO2 packet,
2. candle jar

94
Q

B S L - 1

A

no special precautions; basic teaching labs

95
Q

BSL-2

A

lab coat, gloves, eye protection

96
Q

BSL-3

A

biosafety cabinets to prevent airborne transmission

97
Q

BSL-4

A

sealed, negative pressure; “hot zone”

98
Q

In BSL-4, the exhaust air is

A

is filtered twice through H E P A filters

99
Q

Selective media purpose

A
  1. Suppress unwanted microbes and encourage desired microbes
  2. Has inhibitors to suppress growth
100
Q

Differential media allows for

A

distinguishing of colonies of different microbes on the same plate

101
Q

Some media have both selective and differential characteristics
True or false?

A

True

102
Q

What is an enrichment culture?

A

Encourages the growth of a desired microbe by increasing very small numbers of a desired organism to detectable levels

103
Q

An enrichment culture is usually which state of matter?

A

liquid

104
Q

Growth of chemoautotrophs and photoautotrophs; microbiological assays

A

chemically defined media

105
Q

Growth of most chemoheterotrophic organisms

A

complex media

106
Q

Growth of obligate anaerobes

A

reducing media

107
Q

Suppression of unwanted microbes; encouraging desired microbes

A

selective media

108
Q

Differentiation of colonies of desired microbes from others

A

Differential media

109
Q

Similar to selective media but designed to increase numbers of desired microbes to detectable levels

A

Enrichment media

110
Q

Could humans exist on chemically defined media, at least under laboratory conditions?

A

Yes, under laboratory conditions, human cells can exist and even proliferate on chemically defined media, meaning a medium where all the chemical components are known and precisely controlled; Has nurteints, can’t grow a whole organsim though

111
Q

Could Louis Pasteur, in the 1800s, have grown rabies viruses in cell culture instead of in living animals?

A

No, viruses only reproduce in a living host cell

112
Q

Pure culture

A

Contains only one species or strain

113
Q

Colony

A

population of cells arising from a single cell or spore or from a group of attached cells

114
Q

Colony Forming unit

A

unit used in microbiology to estimate the number of viable microorganisms in a sample

115
Q

Streak plate method

A

Used to isolate pure cultures

116
Q

Can you think of any reason why a colony does not grow to an infinite size, or at least fill the confines of the Petri plate?

A

as the colony expands, it eventually encounters limitations like depleted nutrients, accumulation of waste products, limited space, and competition between individual cells within the colon

117
Q

Could a pure culture of bacteria be obtained by the streak plate method if there were only one desired microbe in a bacterial suspension of billions?

A

It is possible but would be better if you used the selective media to kill off unwanted colonies first THEN use streak method to obtain a pure culture.

as long as that single microbe gets sufficiently separated from the others during the streaking process, allowing it to form a distinct colony which can then be isolated to create a pure culture;

118
Q

Ways to preserve bacterial cultures

A
  1. Deep freezing
  2. Lyophilization (freeze drying)
119
Q

At what temp does deep-freezing occur?

A

-50 to -95c

120
Q

At what temp does Lyophilization occur?

A

-54 to -72 C
gets frozen then dehydrated

121
Q

If the Space Station in Earth orbit suddenly ruptured, the humans on board would die instantly from cold and the vacuum of space. Would all the bacteria in the capsule also be killed?

A

Some bacteria might get lyophilized

122
Q

What does bacterial division do?

A

Increase in number of cells, not cell size

123
Q

Binary fission

A

asexual reproduction where a single-celled organism divides into two identical daughter cells

124
Q

What is Budding?

A

asexual reproduction where a new organism develops from a small outgrowth or “bud” that grows on the body of a parent organism, eventually detaching to become a separate individual

125
Q

(actinomycetes)

A

group of microbes that make antibiotic compounds and other important metabolites

126
Q

Conidiospores (actinomycetes)

A

asexual reproductive spores produced by fungi

127
Q

Fragmentation of filaments

A

organism is split into fragments upon maturation and the spilted part becomes the new individual.

128
Q

Bacterial cells do not divide by

A

meiosis and mitosis

129
Q

Most bacteria grow asexually, by a process known as

A

binary fission

130
Q

What happens in binary fission?

A
  1. Bacteria copies its chromosome
  2. elongates and splits making two identical daughter bacteria
131
Q

Can each daughter cell split?

A

Yes

132
Q

Step one of binary fission

A

cell elongates and DNA is replicated

133
Q

Step 2 of binary fission

A

Plasma membrane begins to constrict and a new wall is made

134
Q

Step 3 of binary fission

A

cross-wall forms, completely separating the two DNA copies

135
Q

Step 4 of binary fission

A

cells separate

136
Q
A
137
Q

How does binary fission multiply the number of cells

A

doubles the number of cells each generation

138
Q

Total number of cells made by binary fission. Formula.

A

2^(n)
n= number of generations

139
Q

Growth curve of binary fission

A

logarithmically

140
Q

Unlike eukaryotic cells, bacteria do not need to do what during replication?

A

assemble mitotic spindle , binary fission is faster.

141
Q

Can a complex organism, such as a beetle, divide by binary fission?

A

no, Its only possible for single celled organisms that reproduce asexually

142
Q

What are the phases of growth?

A
  1. Lag phase
  2. Log phase
  3. Stationary phase-Bacteria approach the carrying capacity
  4. Death phase
143
Q
A
144
Q

What happens during the stationary phase?

A

Bacteria approach the carrying capacity

145
Q

carrying capacity

A

the number of organisms that an ecosystem can sustainably support

146
Q
  1. Lag phase
A

Intense activity preparing for population growth, but no increase in population.

147
Q
  1. Log phase
A

Logarithmic, or exponential increase in population

148
Q

What causes the logarithmic growth in the log phase?

A

reproduction by binary fission (bacteria), or mitosis (yeast)

149
Q

yeast reproduces by

A

mitosis

150
Q

bacteria reproduces by

A

binary fission

151
Q

Stationary phase

A

microbial deaths balance production of new cells.

152
Q

Death phase

A

population is decreasing at a logarithmic rate

153
Q

Growth in bacteria is defined as

A

an increase in the number of bacterial cells within a population.

154
Q

What do the bacteria do in the lag phase?

A

adjust metabolic activity to the new medium. The number of new cells is equivalent to the number of dying cells.

155
Q

lag phase can last from

A

less than an hour to days depending on species

156
Q

When is the graph linear?

A

log of number of cells vs generation.

157
Q

How do bacterial cells survive without nutrients?

A

switch metabolism to dormant state

158
Q

If two mice started a family within a fixed enclosure, with a fixed food supply, would the population curve be the same as a bacterial growth curve?

A

No, this growth curve applies to bacteria and mammals function differently. Mammals use more resources to produce and the mice would, most likely, use most of there food supply before bacteria would

159
Q

What do direct measurements do?

A

count microbial cells

160
Q

types of direct measurements

A

Plate count
Filtration
Most probable number (meter P N) method
Direct microscopic count

161
Q

When do you use plate counts?

A

Count colonies on plates that have 30 to 300 colonies (C F Us)

162
Q

How do you ensure the right number of colonies in plate counts?

A

the original inoculum must be diluted via serial dilution

163
Q

Plate counts are performed on

A

bacteria mixed into a dish with agar (pour plate method) or spread on the surface of a plate (spread plate method)

164
Q

Pour plate method

A

bacteria mixed into a dish with agar

165
Q

Spread plate method

A

Spread on the surface of a plate

166
Q

What is filtration?

A

Solution passed through a filter that collects bacteria

167
Q

Filter is transferred to a Petri dish and grows as

A

colonies on the surface

168
Q

What happens in the Most Probable Number MPM Method

A

Multiple tube test
Count positive tubes
Compare with a statistical table

169
Q

Function of MPN tables

A

calculate the microbial numbers that are statistically likely to lead to such a result

170
Q

Direct microscopic count- How does it happen?

A
  1. Volume of a bacterial suspension placed on a slide
  2. Avg num of bacteria per viewing field is calculated
  3. uses Petroff-Hausser cell counter
171
Q

Number of bacteria / ml formula

A

(# of cells counted) /(volume of area counted) = number of bacteria/ml

172
Q

Why is it difficult to measure realistically the growth of a filamentous mold isolate by the plate count method?

A

filamentous fungi tend to form complex, interwoven networks of hyphae that can easily fragment during sample preparation, leading to multiple colonies arising from a single hyphae fragment, thus overestimating the actual number of viable cells present in the original sample. Break off and make more leading to overestimation

173
Q

Turbidity

A

measurement of cloudiness with a spectrophotometer

174
Q

Metabolic activity

A

amount of metabolic product is proportional to the number of bacteria

175
Q

Dry weight bacteria are

A

filtered, dried, and weighed; used for filamentous organisms

176
Q

Direct methods usually require an incubation time for a colony. Why is this not always feasible for analyzing foods?

A

food often has a high microbial load, potentially leading to overgrown plates where individual colonies cannot be accurately counted, and the rapid analysis needed for food safety often cannot accommodate the incubation period required for colony growth

177
Q

If there is no good method for analyzing a product for its vitamin content, what is a feasible method of determining the vitamin content?

A

Metabolic Method - assumes metabolic product is proportionate to # of bacteria present
(ex. Acid production determines amount of vitamins)

178
Q
A