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D2 Fall > Indirect Exam 2 > Flashcards

Indirect Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 types of all ceramic crowns?

A

Feldspathic porcelain
Lithium disilicate
PFZ
Monolithic zirconia

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2
Q

What type of prep design?

Feldspathic porcelain
Lithium disilicate

A

ACC prep

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3
Q

What type of prep design?

PFM
PFZ

A

PFM prep

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4
Q

What type of prep design?

FMC
Monolithic zirconia

A

FMC prep

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5
Q

When are ACCs indicated?

A

Esthetics
Enough coronal dental structure to support restoration

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6
Q

When doing an ACC, ___________ on occluding surface should be supported by the abutment tooth

A

porcelain

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7
Q

Porcelain is relatively __________

A

weak/brittle

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8
Q

What type of crown should you do?

Tooth that has an extensive proximal and/or buccal restoration that can no longer be restored with composite

A

ACC

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9
Q

What type of crown should you do?

A more conservative restoration is inadequate

A

ACC

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10
Q

When are ACCs contraindicated? (7)

A

When a more conservative restoration is indicated
Posterior teeth
Discolored teeth
1mm margin is not possible
Occlusal load is unfavorable (edge-to-edge occlusion)
Parafunctional habits
Deep overbite

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11
Q

Why should you not put an ACC on posterior teeth?

A

High occlusal load/brittle porcelain
Ceramic can’t exceed more than 2mm in thickness

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12
Q

Why should you not put an ACC on discolored/stained teeth?

A

May alter final restoration shade

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13
Q

What are the 3 advantages of ACCs?

A

Superior esthetics (high translucency)
More conservative on facial surface (1mm) compared to PFM (1.5mm)
Shade can be modified by resin cement

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14
Q

What are the 2 multi-shaded resin cement systems?

A

Variolink esthetic
RelyX veneer

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15
Q

What are the 2 disadvantages of ACCs?

A

Not strong
Less conservative margin compared to PFM

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16
Q

Why are ACCs not as strong?

A

No metal/zirconia substructure

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17
Q

What is the MPa of feldspathic porcelain vs lithium disilicate?

A

Feldspathic porcelain: 100-150
Lithium disilicate: 360-400

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18
Q

What is the margin of ACC vs PFM crowns?

A

ACC: 1mm, 90 degree shoulder, deep chamfer
PFM: 0.5mm, feather edge, light chamfer

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19
Q

How many facial planes are there on anterior ACC preps?

A

2

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20
Q

What is the incisal edge reduction on anterior ACC preps?

A

1.5-2mm

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21
Q

What is the axial wall reduction on anterior ACC preps?

A

1-1.5mm

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22
Q

Why do you want a 90 degree shoulder or deep chamfer for ACC preps?

A

Prevents unfavorable distribution of stress
Minimize risk of fracture

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23
Q

Ideally, you want _______ contacts in the middle 1/3 of the __________ surface for an ACC prep

A

MIP; lingual

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24
Q

When prepping for an ACC, ____________ guidance should be smooth and consistent

A

anterior

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25
Q

T/F: For an ACC prep, leaving the tooth out of
occlusion should be avoided, since it will erupt and may lead to protrusive interferences/possible fracture

A

True

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26
Q

What is the axial wall reduction on posterior ACC preps?

A

1.5mm

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27
Q

What is the non-functional cusp reduction on posterior ACC preps?

A

1.5mm

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28
Q

What is the functional cusp reduction on posterior ACC preps?

A

2mm

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29
Q

Before starting an ACC prep, what should you do if you are not satisfied with the existing crown’s anatomy?

A

Make a wax-up to the ideal contours you’re restoring to

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30
Q

What is the benefit of making a wax-up to the ideal contours you’re restoring to prior to starting an ACC prep?

A

The reduction guide will truly guide you, since that’s the anatomy you’re looking for in the future crown

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31
Q

When reducing on the facial surface during an ACC prep, what should the cervical reduction follow?

A

The path of insertion

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32
Q

When reducing on the facial surface during an ACC prep, what should the incisal reduction follow?

A

The anatomical curvature it follows

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33
Q

What should you do when prepping to prevent stress concentrations in an ACC?

A

Round internal line angles

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34
Q

Which bur should you use when finishing the margin of an ACC prep to get a very smooth, continuous shoulder margin?

A

Red labeled diamond

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35
Q

Properties and behavior of materials depend on __________ structure

A

internal

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36
Q

Independent of mechanical manipulation

A

Physical properties

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37
Q

Associated with response to externally applied forces

A

Mechanical properties

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38
Q

Name 7 physical properties

A

Density
Coefficient of thermal expansion
Optical
Solubility
Viscosity
Electrical/thermal conductivity
Melting/solidification point

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39
Q

What is testing of mechanical properties a useful predictor of?

A

Clinical success - can compare to other materials

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40
Q

Push or pull exerted on a material

A

Force (load)

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41
Q

Has magnitude and direction

A

Force (load)

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42
Q

Units are pound and Newton (0.22lb)

A

Force (load)

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43
Q

Force per unit area

A

Stress

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44
Q

What are the 3 types of stress?

A

Tension (<- ->)
Compression (-><-)
Shear

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45
Q

What type of stress?

2 forces directed away from each other in same straight line

A

Tension

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46
Q

What type of stress?

2 forces directed toward each other in same straight line

A

Compression

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47
Q

What type of stress?

2 forces directed toward each other, but NOT in same line

A

Shear

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48
Q

What happens when force exceeds the cohesive strength of the object?

A

It breaks

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49
Q

What does stress depend on?

A

Area and load

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50
Q

What are the biting forces of molars, premolars, and incisors?

A

Molars: 130 lbs
Premolars: 70 lbs
Incisors: 40 lbs

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51
Q

What is the biting stress of molars?

A

130,000 psi

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52
Q

What is amalgam’s ratio of tensile strength to compressive strength?

A

Tensile strength is 1/10 of compressive strength

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53
Q

What is EvoCeram’s ratio of tensile strength to compressive strength?

A

Tensile strength is 1/5 of compressive strength

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54
Q

Small flaws caused by localized high stresses like a notch or scratch

A

Stress concentration

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55
Q

Results in unexpected fracture at low stress

A

Stress concentration

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56
Q

Change in length/original length

A

Strain

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57
Q

Amount of deformation per unit length

A

Strain

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58
Q

An object is deformed when a force is applied

A

Strain

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59
Q

Measure of the level of stress required to make a material fail

A

Strength

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60
Q

What is the importance of strength?

A

Restorations must withstand stresses of mastication

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61
Q

What is important to avoid exceeding strength properties of a material?

A

Prep design

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62
Q

Graphic representation of the deformation of a material as stress is applied

A

Stress-strain diagrams

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63
Q

Initially, strain is proportional to stress and is reversible

A

Elastic deformation

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64
Q

Ratio of stress to strain in straight line
portion of a diagram

A

Modulus of elasticity

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65
Q

This property cannot be changed, as it is a measure of interatomic bonding

A

Modulus of elasticity

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66
Q

Relates directly to rigidity of material

A

Modulus of elasticity

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67
Q

The greater the modulus of elasticity, the more __________ a material will be

A

rigid

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68
Q

The steeper the slope, the more ________ the material

A

rigid

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69
Q

At higher stresses, permanent displacement of atoms occurs so that much of the strain is not reversible

A

Plastic deformation

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70
Q

Once it starts, the strain will increase faster than the stress

A

Plastic deformation

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71
Q

Max stress a material can withstand without deviation from the law of proportionality

A

Proportional limit

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72
Q

An increase in the proportional limit will ____________the resistance of the material to permanent deformation

A

increase

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73
Q

High proportional limit is…

A

Strong

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74
Q

Low proportional limit is…

A

Weak

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75
Q

Essentially same as proportional limit

A

Elastic limit

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76
Q

Stress at which a material exhibits a small amount of permanent deformation

A

Yield strength (point)

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77
Q

Amount is arbitrarily selected

A

Yield strength (point)

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78
Q

Any restoration or appliance that permanently deforms in service is usually what?

A

A clinical failure

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79
Q

A material with a yield strength greater than
30,000 psi can’t be ___________

A

burnished

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80
Q

Max stress before failure

A

Ultimate strength

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81
Q

Deformation from applying a tensile force

A

Elongation (ductility)

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82
Q

Indication of workability (burnishability) of an alloy

A

Elongation (ductility)

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83
Q

Increase in length/original length x 100 = ?

A

% elongation

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84
Q

Total % elongation includes what types of deformation?

A

Elastic + plastic

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85
Q

An alloy with a high value of total % elongation can be bent permanently with less risk of _____________

A

fracture

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86
Q

In regards to total % elongation, what value is needed to be useful?

A

10%

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87
Q

Ability to be hammered or rolled into thin sheets

A

Malleability

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88
Q

Ability to be drawn into wire

A

Ductility

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89
Q

Related to burnishability

A

Ductility

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90
Q

Wrought wires are ___________

A

flexible

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91
Q

Cast alloys are ____________

A

ductile

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92
Q

Measured by area under the elastic portion of a stress-strain diagram

A

Resilience

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93
Q

Amount of energy needed to deform a material to its proportional limit

A

Resilience

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94
Q

Capacity to withstand repeated stresses before deforming

A

Resilience

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95
Q

Area under the total curve of a stress-stain diagram

A

Toughness

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96
Q

Amount of energy necessary to fracture a material

A

Toughness

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97
Q

Capacity to withstand repeated stresses before fracturing

A

Toughness

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98
Q

Resistance to permanent indentation

A

Hardness

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99
Q

Size of the indentation varies inversely
with the ____________ of the material

A

Hardness

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100
Q

The higher the hardness number, the _________ the material

A

harder

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101
Q

What are the 4 testing methods for hardness?

A

Brinell hardness
Diamond pyramid
Knoop hardness
Rockwell hardness

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102
Q

Which testing method for hardness?

Small steel ball: ratio of load to area of indentation

A

Brinell hardness

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103
Q

Which testing method for hardness?

Uses a diamond pyramid instrument

A

Diamond pyramid

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104
Q

Which testing method for hardness?

For metals and alloys, not brittle materials

A

Brinell hardness
Diamond pyramid

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105
Q

Which testing method for hardness?

Diamond tool with one long diagonal and one short diagonal

A

Knoop hardness

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106
Q

Which testing method for hardness?

Cuts the material

A

Knoop hardness

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107
Q

Which testing method for hardness?

For brittle materials (enamel, dentin), elastics, and metals

A

Knoop hardness

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108
Q

Which testing method for hardness?

Depth of indentation measured directly on
a micrometer

A

Rockwell hardness

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109
Q

Which testing method for hardness?

For elastic materials

A

Rockwell hardness

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110
Q

What is the clinical significance of yield strength?

A

Burnishability

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111
Q

What is the clinical significance of tensile strength?

A

Load-bearing ability

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112
Q

What is the clinical significance of elongation?

A

Margin-finishing properties

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113
Q

What is the clinical significance of hardness?

A

Wear resistance
Finishing/polishing

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114
Q

What is the dental wax called?

A

Inlay or casting wax

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115
Q

Amorphous, organic material

A

Wax

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116
Q

Wax is solid at what temp?

A

Room temp

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117
Q

Wax melts without _____________

A

decomposition

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118
Q

What are the natural sources of wax?

A

Mineral petroleum distillation
Plants
Insect

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119
Q

What are the 3 things involved in mineral petroleum distillation that make up inlay wax?

A

Paraffin
Microcrystalline
Ceresin

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120
Q

Which plants make wax?

A

Canauba
Candelilla

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121
Q

Which insects make wax?

A

Bees

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122
Q

T/F: The composition of beeswax varies

A

True

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123
Q

Which waxes are used more often in dentistry, natural or synthetic?

A

Natural

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124
Q

Describe synthetic wax

A

Highly refined
Similar properties to natural wax, but differ chemically

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125
Q

What are the 4 additives in wax to make it more stable/easier to carve?

A

Stearic acid
Oils
Resins
Rosins

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126
Q

What do the additives in wax allow adjustments for?

A

Flow
Toughness

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127
Q

What is the composition of wax?

A

Hydrocarbons
Esters
Complex combo of organic compounds

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128
Q

Does wax have a high or low molecular weight?

A

High

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129
Q

What is the primary ingredient in casting wax?

A

Paraffin (60%)

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130
Q

T/F: Wax has a melting point

A

FALSE, wax has a melting RANGE (since it has various molecules with differing molecular weights)

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131
Q

The melting temp of wax increases when…

A

Molecular weight increases

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132
Q

T/F: Wax has the largest thermal expansion coefficient of any material in restorative dentistry

A

True

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133
Q

The thermal expansion of wax is a function of strength of ___________ valence forces

A

secondary

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134
Q

Which forces hold materials in wax together?

A

Secondary

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135
Q

Do mineral waxes have strong or weak forces?

A

Weak

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136
Q

Which one has a greater force: mineral wax or plant wax?

A

Plant wax

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137
Q

What are the 2 contractions in wax?

A

Solidification shrinkage
Cooling contraction

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138
Q

What is a major factor in the inaccuracy of a finished restortation?

A

Temp changes in wax pattern

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139
Q

Does wax have a high or low elastic modulus (rigidity)?

A

Low

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140
Q

What does elastic modulus (rigidity) of wax depend on?

A

Temperature

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141
Q

Does wax have a high or low strength?

A

Low

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142
Q

Ability to flow over a surface

A

Wetting

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143
Q

Do you want the contact angle of a wetting surface to be high or low?

A

Low

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144
Q

Ideal/perfect wetting has what degree of a contact angle?

A

0 degrees

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145
Q

What aids wetting?

A

Die lubricant

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146
Q

Die lubricant is basically the same as what material?

A

Liquid alginate

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147
Q

Degree of plastic (permanent) deformation of a material at a given temp

A

Flow

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148
Q

What 3 things does flow depend on?

A

Temp
Force applied
Time force is applied

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149
Q

What is always present in the wax pattern?

A

Residual stress

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150
Q

What does molding wax under compression lead to?

A

Expansion

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151
Q

What does molding wax under tension lead to?

A

Contraction

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152
Q

What are the 2 types of casting waxes?

A

Type 1 (technicians use)
Type 2

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153
Q

Which type of casting wax?

Harder
Lower flow for direct technique in oral cavity

A

Type 1

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154
Q

Which type of casting wax?

Soft for indirect technique on stone model

A

Type 2

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155
Q

T/F: Both type of casting wax should trim to a fine margin

A

True

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156
Q

What is a problem with both types of casting wax?

A

Warping

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157
Q

What are the 4 problem areas of wax?

A

Development + release of internal stress
Non-uniform storage temps
Carving that induces stress
Warming the pattern

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158
Q

A wax pattern is made directly on the __________

A

stone model

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159
Q

What is painted on the die? Why?

A

Die lubricant; allows wax to flow easier

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160
Q

What 5 things should you check the wax pattern for?

A

Overwaxed margins
Short margins
Thick margins
Open margins
Roughness

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161
Q

What are the 2 major categories of impression material?

A

Inelastic (rigid)
Elastic (flexible)

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162
Q

Which category of impression material?

Plaster, ZOE, compound

A

Inelastic (rigid)

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163
Q

Which category of impression material?

For edentulous pts

A

Inelastic (rigid)

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164
Q

Which category of impression material?

Hydrocolloids (reversible and irreversible)

A

Elastic (flexible)

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165
Q

Which category of impression material?

Elastomers (polysulfide, condensation silicone, addition silicone, polyether)

A

Elastic (flexible)

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166
Q

What was the first impression material to come out in 1950?

A

Polysulfide

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167
Q

Which impression materials do not have a byproduct, meaning they are stable and can be sent later to a lab without warping?

A

Polyether
Additional silicone

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168
Q

Which impression material has the following composition?

Base paste (polysulfide polymers and fillers)
Accelerator paste (lead dioxide, dibutyl phthalate, sulfur)

A

Polysulfide

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169
Q

T/F: If the impression material doesn’t have a lot of filler in it, you will have a more detailed impression

A

True

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170
Q

T/F: Fillers in impression material will stabilize the dimensions of it

A

True

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171
Q

What are the 2 lead-free polysulfides?

A

Omniflex
Coe flex

172
Q

Which impression material has the following ingredient?

Catalyst- cupric hydroxide

A

Omniflex
Coe flex

(lead-free polysulfides)

173
Q

What are the available consistencies of polysulfide and polyether?

A

Light
Regular
Heavy

174
Q

Do you dispense in equal lengths or equal volumes of impression material?

A

Equal lengths

175
Q

Which impression material has the following properties?

Unpleasant odor
Stains clothes
Extremely viscous + sticky
Hydrophobic

A

Polysulfide

176
Q

Which impression material has the following chemistry?

Condensation rxn (water is produced)
Chain lengthing rxn (viscosity increases)
Cross-linking rxn

A

Polysulfide

177
Q

Which impression material has terminal and pendant mercaptan groups (-SH)?

A

Polysulfide

178
Q

What are the terminal and pendant mercaptan groups in polysulfide oxidized by? What does this produce? What is there a rapid increase in?

A

Lead dioxide to produce chain lengthening and cross-linking; increase in molecular weight

179
Q

How long does polysulfide impression material take to set?

A

10-20 mins

(manipulation time plus 6-8 mins in mouth)

180
Q

Which impression material has the following composition?

Base paste (dimethyl siloxane w/ reactive terminal hydroxyl groups and fillers)
Accelerator paste (tin octoate and alkyl silicate (orthoethyl silicate)))

A

Condensation silicones

181
Q

What are the available consistencies of condensation silicones, addition silicones, and VPES?

A

Light
Regular
Heavy
Putty

182
Q

Which impression material has the following properties?

Almost odorless
Variety of colors
Hydrophobic

A

Condensation silicones

183
Q

Which impression material has the following chemistry?

Condensation rxn (alcohol is produced)
Chain lengthing rxn (viscosity increases)
Cross-linking rxn

A

Condensation silicones

184
Q

What are the 2 other names for addition silicones to know for boards?

A

Polyvinyl siloxane
Vinyl polysiloxane

185
Q

Which impression material has the following composition?

Base paste (low molecular weight polymer w/ silane groups and fillers)
Accelerator paste (low molecular weight polymer w/ vinyl terminal groups, chloroplatinic acid catalyst, hydrogen absorber (palladium), filler)

A

Addition silicones

186
Q

Hydrophilic formulations of addition silicones contain what?

A

Surfactant

187
Q

Which contains the most amount of filler - putty or light body?

A

Most amount of filler = putty
Least amount of filler = light body

188
Q

Which impression material?

Consistency depends on molecular weight of polymer and amount of filler

A

Addition silicones

189
Q

Which impression material?

Supplied as 2 pastes, or putty, or in dual cartridge system

A

Addition silicones

190
Q

Which impression material?

Can do a heavy-wash 1-stage impression (like how we do for crown preps)

(wash = light body)

A

Addition silicones

191
Q

Which impression material?

Can do a putty-wash 2-stage impression

(wash = light body)

A

Addition silicones

192
Q

Which impression material has the following properties?

Almost odorless
Variety of colors
May cause bubbles in stone
Naturally hydrophobic

A

Addition silicones

193
Q

Which impression material has the following chemistry?

Addition rxn (no volatile byproduct; some forms produce hydrogen)
Chain lengthing rxn (viscosity increases)
Cross-linking rxn (elasticity increases)

A

Addition silicones

194
Q

What groups contribute to chain lengthening and cross-linking in addition silicones?

A

Vinyl groups

195
Q

Which impression material?

Sets by uniting polymer chains (polymerization)

A

Addition silicones

196
Q

Which impression material?

Working time: 1-2 mins
Setting time: 4-5 mins

(rxn is very rapid!)

A

Addition silicones

197
Q

Which impression material?

The catalyst (benzene) used to cause a soft tissue rxn after the 2nd or 3rd impression with this material (catalyst has been changed now)

A

Polyether

198
Q

Which impression material has the following composition?

Base (low molecular weight polyether w/ ethylene imine rings as terminal groups and silica fillers)
Catalyst (aliphatic cationic starter)

A

Polyether

199
Q

Which impression material has the following properties?

Almost odorless
Possible skin rxns (not anymore due to change in catalyst)
Naturally hydrophilic

A

Polyether

200
Q

Which impression material has the following chemistry?

Addition rxn (no byproduct)

A

Polyether

201
Q

Which impression material?

Cationic polymerization and opening of the rings

A

Polyether

202
Q

What is vinyl polyether silicone (VPES) a combination of?

A

Addition silicone + polyether

203
Q

Which impression material has the following properties?

Intrinsically hydrophilic
Good flow
Low contact angle (10 degrees)
Easier removal than polyether (increased flexibility)
High tear strength

A

Vinyl polyether silicone (VPES)

204
Q

Which impression material?

Working time: 2 mins
Setting time: 3.5 mins

A

Vinyl polyether silicone (VPES)

205
Q

Which impression materials are easier to mix due to lower initial viscosity?

A

Silicones

206
Q

Which impression materials have the most rapid increase in viscosity?

A

Addition silicone
Polyether

207
Q

There is a decrease in viscosity with increasing ___________

A

shear rate

208
Q

What are 3 words used to describe the act of putting pressure/force behind impression material to thin it out?

A

Shear thinning
Pseudoplastic
Thixotropic

209
Q

Which impression material has the longest working time and setting time?

A

Polysulfide

(next longest are silicones and polyethers)

210
Q

What are working times and setting times shortened by?

A

High temp
Humidity

211
Q

What does shrinkage of impression material occur from?

A

Evaporation of volatile byproduct
Thermal contraction
Rearrangement of bonds during polymerization

212
Q

Which impression material has the smallest dimensional change/shrinkage?

A

Addition silicone

213
Q

Which impression material has the largest dimensional change/shrinkage?

A

Condensation silicone

214
Q

Which impression materials absorb water?

A

Polyether
Hydrophilic addition silicone

(do NOT wrap these up in a paper towel)

215
Q

Which impression material has the best recovery?

A

Addition silicone

216
Q

Which impression material has the worst recovery?

A

Polysulfide

217
Q

Which impression material is the stiffest?

A

Polyether

218
Q

Which impression material is the least stiff?

A

Polysulfide

219
Q

Which impression materials have the lowest amount of flow?

A

Silicones
Polyether

220
Q

Which impression material has the greatest amount of flow?

A

Polysulfide

221
Q

Which impression material is the hardest?

A

Polyether

222
Q

Which impression material is the least hard?

A

Polysulfide

223
Q

Which impression material is the easiest to remove from a pts mouth, due to the fact it is the least stiff and least hard material?

A

Polysulfide

224
Q

Which impression material has the highest resistance to tearing?

A

Polysulfide

225
Q

Which impression material has the lowest resistance to tearing?

A

Polyether

226
Q

Which impression material is most likely to tear when removing it from the pts mouth?

A

Polyether

227
Q

Alginate impression material is a ____________

A

hydrocolloid

228
Q

“Hydro” in hydrocolloid means __________ is the dispersion medium

A

water

229
Q

“Colloid” in hydrocolloid means solution in which the dispersed particles are __________ than ordinary atoms or molecules, but still invisible to naked eye

A

larger

230
Q

What are the 2 forms of hydrocolloids?

A

Sol

231
Q

Which form of hydrocolloid?

Aggregates of molecules are dispersed within water and material behaves like a high viscosity fluid

A

Sol
Gel

232
Q

Which form of hydrocolloid?

Semisolid mass formed by reduction in temp or chemical rxn

A

Gel

233
Q

Which form of hydrocolloid?

Molecules join to form a network of chains (fibrils) which enclose the dispersion medium (water)

A

Sol
Gel

234
Q

How do hydrocolloids behave?

A

Drying
Imbibition
Syneresis

235
Q

Which behavior of hydrocolloids?

Evaporation of water from gel under conditions of high ambient temp and low humidity

A

Drying

236
Q

Which behavior of hydrocolloids?

Shrinkage

A

Drying

237
Q

Which behavior of hydrocolloids?

Water absorbed with associated swelling of the gel

A

Imbibition

238
Q

Which behavior of hydrocolloids?

Will NOT restore the original dimensions to the gel

A

Imbibition

239
Q

How fast should hydrocolloid impressions be poured up?

A

Within 2 hrs

240
Q

Which behavior of hydrocolloids?

Appearance of exudate on surface of impression (sticky layer)

A

Syneresis

241
Q

Which behavior of hydrocolloids?

Occurs independent of humidity; doesn’t matter if you wrap it up in paper towel

A

Syneresis

242
Q

What type of rxn is in Alginate?

A

Irreversible rxn

243
Q

How does alginate set?

A

Chemical rxn

244
Q

Which impression material?

Uses:
Preliminary impressions for CDs and RPDs
Study model impressions

A

Alginate

245
Q

Alginate is _______ to mix

A

easy

246
Q

What should you do with the extra Alginate in the bowl? What does this help with?

A

Put it on your finger and apply to posterior teeth; helps get rid of air bubbles

247
Q

Which 2 ingredients bond to each other in Alginate impressions?

A

Sodium alginate + calcium sulfate

248
Q

Which ingredient in Alginate helps improve the surface of stone by counteracting gypsum inhibition?

A

Potassium sulfate

249
Q

Which ingredient in Alginate is a retarder?

A

Sodium phosphate

250
Q

Which ingredient in Alginate controls consistency?

A

Fillers

251
Q

What are the setting rxns of Alginate?

A

Retarding (ties up the Ca2+ ions)
Setting (Na alginate reacts with Ca2+ sulfate and water; product is Ca2+ alginate)

252
Q

_________ ___________ is essentially insoluble in water; it’s formation causes gelation

A

Calcium alginate

(it is the product of Alginate setting rxn)

253
Q

The concentration of what ingredient in Alginate is adjusted to provide regular and fast set impression materials?

A

Sodium phosphate

254
Q

Which impression material?

Proportioning the powder/water ratio is critical for consistent results

A

Alginate

255
Q

Which impression material?

Fluff the powder before scooping, but don’t inhale it

A

Alginate

256
Q

Which impression material?

Mixing time:
1 min for regular set
45 seconds for fast set

A

Alginate

257
Q

Which impression material?

Rinse impression with (slurry) water to remove saliva and then disinfect

A

Alginate

258
Q

Which impression material?

Working time:
3 - 4.5 mins for regular set (includes mixing time)
75 seconds - 2 mins for fast set

A

Alginate

259
Q

Which impression material?

Setting time:
No less than 2 mins, no more than 4.5 mins for regular set

No less than 1 min, no more than 2 mins for fast set

A

Alginate

260
Q

Which impression material?

Adjust setting time by altering water temp

A

Alginate

261
Q

How do you make Alginate set faster?

A

Use warmer water

262
Q

How do you know if Alginate is set?

A

Loses surface tackiness

263
Q

Which impression material?

Wait 2-3 mins before removing from pts mouth to increase tear strength and resistance to permanent deformation

A

Alginate

264
Q

Permanent deformation of Alginate is a function of…

A

% compression of material
Time under compression
Time after removal

265
Q

What is meant by % compression of material?

A

A bulk of material will absorb compression

266
Q

What will increase deformation of an Alginate impression?

A

Slow removal from pts mouth

267
Q

How long should you let the Alginate impression recover after removing from pts mouth?

A

8 mins

268
Q

Which impression material?

One of the most flexible impression materials

A

Alginate

269
Q

Which impression material?

Tear strength increases with increased rate of removal from pts mouth

A

Alginate

270
Q

What is dimensional stability of Alginate due to?

A

Loss or gain of water

271
Q

Loss of water in an Alginate impression due to evaporation or syneresis leads to what?

A

Shrinkage

272
Q

Gain of water in an Alginate impression due to imbibition leads to what?

A

Expansion

273
Q

Store your Alginate impression in _____________ (wet paper towel) for up to 2 hrs

A

100% humidity

274
Q

Pure calcium alginate is ___________

A

brittle

275
Q

The double alginate structure is ____________ to a sudden force, but not to a prolonged force

A

elastic

276
Q

What kind of rxns does Agar hydrocolloid use?

A

Reversible rxn
Conversion rxn

277
Q

Which impression material?

Gel upon cooling, liquifies when heated

A

Agar hydrocolloid

278
Q

Which impression material?

Heating units and special trays are required

A

Agar hydrocolloid

279
Q

Which impression material?

Dimensionally unstable; difficult to register subgingival areas

A

Agar hydrocolloid

280
Q

Which impression material?

Thermal shock

A

Agar hydrocolloid

281
Q

Which ingredient in Agar hydrocolloid functions as the fibril structure of gel?

A

Agar

282
Q

Which ingredient in Agar hydrocolloid improves surface of stone?

A

Potassium sulfate

283
Q

Which ingredient in Agar hydrocolloid improves strength of gel?

A

Borax

284
Q

Which ingredient in Agar hydrocolloid is a preservative?

A

Alkyl benzoate

285
Q

Which ingredient in Agar hydrocolloid is the continuous phase?

A

Water

286
Q

Difference btwn gel -> sol and sol -> gel transformation temps in Agar hydrocolloid

A

Hysteresis

287
Q

Describe the conversion rxn in Agar hydrocolloid

A

Gel -> heat to 212 -> sol (liquid)
Sol (liquid) -> cool to 109 -> gel

288
Q

Which impression material?

Store at 145-150 degrees
Temper at 115 degrees for 2 mins

A

Agar hydrocolloid

289
Q

Which impression material?

Properties are similar to Alginate

A

Agar hydrocolloid

290
Q

Which category of cement?

Stronger, more stable, bond to tooth structure

A

Polymer based

291
Q

Which category of cement?

Oil based, water based, do NOT bond to tooth structure

A

Traditional

292
Q

Name 2 traditional cements

A

Zinc oxide - eugenol (ZOE)
Zinc phosphate

293
Q

What are ZOE, silicophosphate, and GI used for?

A

Temp filling material

294
Q

What are silica and GI used for?

A

Durable filling material

295
Q

What are ZOE, zinc phosphate, polycarboxylate, and GI used for?

A

Cavity liner/base

296
Q

Which cement is the only one that is NOT used for cementation?

A

Silicate cement

297
Q

Which cement is insoluble in the pts mouth and highly acidic?

A

Zinc phosphate

298
Q

Which cement is very soluble in the pts mouth and will sedate the pulp?

A

ZOE

299
Q

What characteristics are in an ideal final cement?

A

Adequate working time
Short setting time
Resistance to dislodging forces
Adequate flow
Adhesive
Resists plastic deformation (high elastic modulus)
Anticariogenic
Translucent
Thin film thickness
Non-toxic
Easy to clean up
Low solubility
High compressive strength

300
Q

Which traditional cement?

Strong and rigid; irritant because it is acidic

A

Zinc phosphate

301
Q

Which traditional cement?

No adhesion, no anti-bacterial properties

A

Zinc phospahte

302
Q

What is the main powder ingredient in Zinc phosphate and ZOE cements?

A

ZnO

303
Q

What is the main liquid ingredient in Zinc phosphate cement?

A

Phosphoric acid (H3PO4)

(this is where the acidity comes from)

304
Q

Which traditional cement?

Components are fused by heating (calcination) and then ground to fine powder

A

Zinc phosphate

305
Q

Which traditional cement?

Metallic oxides added for color

A

Zinc phosphate

306
Q

Which traditional cement?

Made up of 30% water, which controls ionization of the acid

A

Zinc phosphate

307
Q

What shortens the setting time of Zinc phosphate?

A

More water

308
Q

Which traditional cement?

Surface of powder is dissolved by the acid, which is an exothermic rxn

A

Zinc phosphate

309
Q

Which traditional cement?

When it sets, you will have an amorphous network surrounding incompletely dissolved ZnO

A

Zinc phosphate

310
Q

The smaller the particle size in a material, the ____________ (faster/slower) the material will set

A

faster

311
Q

What 5 factors does the operator control when using Zinc phosphate cement?

A

Powder/liquid ratio
Rate of powder incorporation
Mixing temp
Manner of spatulation
Water contamination or loss from liquid

312
Q

Which traditional cement?

The greater the surface area of powder, the faster the rxn

A

Zinc phosphate

313
Q

Which traditional cement?

More rapid incorporation of the powder into the mix will increase surface area of the powder, leading to a faster rxn

A

Zinc phosphate

314
Q

Which traditional cement?

A higher powder/liquid ratio will make it set faster

A

Zinc phosphate

315
Q

Which traditional cement?

Small initial quantities of powder provide smaller surface area for rxn with the acid

A

Zinc phosphate

316
Q

What is the MOST IMPORTANT property of cement?

A

Solubility

317
Q

Premature contact of Zinc phosphate cement with water/saliva results in ___________ of the surface, and it will become soft, friable, chalky

A

leaching

318
Q

There is a continued loss of Zinc phosphate material in the mouth over time. What 3 things can affect this?

A

Powder/liquid ratio or mix
Diet
Oral environment (acidity)

319
Q

Which traditional cement?

Luting mix reaches:
pH of 4.2 in 3 mins
pH of 6 in 1 hr
Neutral in 48 hrs

A

Zinc phosphate

320
Q

Which traditional cement?

May cause irreversible trauma to pulp

A

Zinc phosphate

321
Q

Which traditional cement?

Ca2+ hydroxide, varnish, or bonding agent should be applied to vital dentin before cement

A

ZInc phosphate

322
Q

Which traditional cement?

Shrinks as it hardens

A

Zinc phosphate

323
Q

Which cement is not used anymore?

A

Zinc silicophosphate

324
Q

Which traditional cement?

Only used as a temporary material because it is highly soluble

A

ZOE

325
Q

Which ingredient in ZOE reduces brittleness?

A

Rosin

326
Q

Which powder ingredient in ZOE is a plasticizer? Which liquid ingredient in ZOE is a plasticizer?

A

Powder = zinc stearate
Liquid = olive oil

327
Q

Which ingredient in ZOE increases strength and setting rxn?

A

Zinc acetate

328
Q

What is the main liquid in ZOE and is a sedative?

A

Eugenol

329
Q

T/F: ZOE should never be used as a permanent cement

A

True

330
Q

What are the ways they tried to make ZOE stronger and less soluble (even though it didn’t work)?

A

Polymer reinforced
EBA-alumina reinforced

331
Q

What is the setting reaction in ZOE cement?

A

Chelate

332
Q

Which traditional cement?

Chemical compound that has primary and/or secondary bonds projecting from 2 sites on a molecule toward a single metal ion; a ring formation results and the cement sets

A

ZOE

333
Q

T/F: ZOE bonds to tooth structure

A

FALSE

334
Q

Which traditional cement?

A large amount of powder can be added by heavy spatulation

A

ZOE

335
Q

Which traditional cement?

Flow is deceptive, and people tend to not add enough powder

A

ZOE

336
Q

Which traditional cement?

Flow is viscous compared to Zinc phosphate cement

A

ZOE

337
Q

Which traditional cement?

Cool slab is NOT required; treated paper pad is better

A

ZOE

338
Q

Which traditional cement?

Cool slab is required

A

Zinc phosphate
Zinc polycarboxylate

339
Q

Which traditional cement?

Bulk of powder is incorporated in initial step; thoroughly spatulate

A

ZOE

340
Q

Which traditional cement?

Film thickness
Long working and setting times
Low strength
High solubility
Good sealing properties
Pulp protection not needed
Inhibits set of resin
Irritant if in direct contact w/ pulp

A

ZOE

341
Q

What is another word for “sedative” that is sometimes used on boards?

A

Obtundant

342
Q

Which traditional cement?

Liquid component is a copolymer of polyacrylic acid and itaconic acid

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

343
Q

Which liquid component of Zinc polycarboxylate will actually bond to the tooth structure?

A

Polyacrylic acid

344
Q

Which traditional cement?

Powder is ZnO and MgO; sintered and ground to reduce reactivity of ZnO

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

345
Q

Which traditional cement?

Consistency is thick compared to Zinc phosphate

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

346
Q

Which traditional cement?

Thixotropic

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

347
Q

Which traditional cement?

Rapid mixing (30 seconds), all at once

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

348
Q

Which traditional cement?

Clean, dry cavity; do not varnish cavity; cement must appear glossy

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

349
Q

Which traditional cement?

24 hr compressive strength is 1/2 that of Zinc phosphate

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

350
Q

Which traditional cement?

Tensile strength is 40% greater than Zinc phosphate

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

351
Q

Which traditional cement?

Slightly higher film thickness than Zinc phosphate

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

352
Q

Which traditional cement?

Carboxylate groups in the polymer chelate to Ca2+ for adhesion to tooth structure

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

353
Q

Which traditional cement?

Adhesion to gold castings is dependent on surface prep (sandblast or electrolytic etching)

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

354
Q

Which traditional cement?

Slightly more acidic than Zinc phosphate when first mixed

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

355
Q

Which traditional cement?

Acidic penetration into tubules in minimal

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

356
Q

Which traditional cement?

Some formulated with SnF instead of MgO for fluoride release

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

357
Q

Which traditional cement?

Less soluble than Zinc phosphate in oral fluids

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

358
Q

Which traditional cement?

Powder is aluminosilicate glass + fluoride flux

A

GI

359
Q

Which traditional cement?

Liquid is polyacrylic acid, itaconic acid, and tartaric acid

A

GI

360
Q

What are the 3 types of GI?

A

Liner/base
Durable filling
Cementing

361
Q

Which traditional cement?

Strength is 2x that of Zinc phosphate for some types

A

GI

362
Q

Which traditional cement?

Anticariogenic
Low solubility once set
Adhesion
Biocompatible
Technique sensitive
Some available in light-cured formulations

A

GI

363
Q

Cements based on filled polymers designed to adhere to tooth structure, requiring the use of a separate etching and bonding agent

A

Adhesive resin cements

364
Q

Self-etching cements based on filled polymers designed to adhere to tooth structure and other substrates, without the use of a separate etching and bonding agent

A

Self-adhesive resin cements

365
Q

These cements are also called “Universal”

A

Self-adhesive resin cements

366
Q

These cements may selectively etch enamel margins

A

Self-adhesive resin cements

367
Q

Chemical agent used to increase affinity of adhesion to metallic or ceramic materials

A

Primer

368
Q

What are the 2 basic categories of polymer-based cements?

A

Resin-based cement
Resin-based GI

369
Q

Which category of cement has the following ideal properties?

High bond strength to tooth structure and various materials
High tensile/compressive strengths
Low solubility
Color stability
Low water sorption
Low film thickness
Radiopacity
Tolerance to moisture during cementation

A

Polymer-based cement

370
Q

Which polymer-based cement has the following disadvantages?

Technique sensitive; bond strength is affected by pre-tx procedures, depth of cure, degree of polymerization, opacity/shade of restoration and cement

A

Resin-based

371
Q

Which polymer-based cement has the following disadvantages?

Difficult clean-up
Change shade during curing
May darken during lifetime

A

Resin-based

372
Q

What are the 2 ways to classify polymer-based cements?

A

Polymerization mechanism
Adhesive scheme

373
Q

What are the 3 categories of polymer-based cements that fall under polymerization mechanism classification?

A

Light cured
Chemical cured
Dual cured

374
Q

What are the 2 categories of polymer-based cements that fall under adhesive scheme classification?

A

Adhesive resin (bond and either total etch, selective etch, or self etch)
Self-adhesive resin (no etch, no bond)

375
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

Advantages = increased working time, decreased finishing time, remove excess cement before final curing, color stability

A

Light-cured resin

376
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

Chemical and light curing when ceramic is too thick or too opaque

A

Dual cure resin

377
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

Has both a self-cured initiator (benzoyl peroxide) and a light-cured initiator (camphorquinone)

A

Dual cure resin

378
Q

Light cured and dual cured resin cements can be ______________

A

tack cured

379
Q

When doing tack cure, after you seat the restoration, cure marginal excess cement for ___________

A

2 seconds

380
Q

When doing tack cure, remove the cured excess with a ____________

A

scaler

381
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

Self curing, not as color stable, limited shade selection

A

Chemical cured resin

382
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

Requires bond, bonds cement to tooth, self-etching

A

Adhesive resin

383
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

Optional phosphoric acid to etch enamel and/or dentin

A

Adhesive resin

384
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

May be light or dual cured; highest bond strengths especially to enamel; multi-step technique is complex

A

Adhesive resin

385
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

One component, “universal” adhesive

A

Self-adhesive resin

386
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

Bonds directly to enamel, dentin, metal, ceramic

A

Self-adhesive resin

387
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

Acidic monomers for bonding to different substrates; better bond to dentin than enamel

A

Self-adhesive resin

388
Q

Which cement has a better/higher bond strength to tooth structure: adhesive or self-adhesive resin cement?

A

Adhesive resin

389
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

Change from acidic to neutral in 24 hrs; pH of 2 after mixing

A

Self-adhesive resin

390
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

Ability to self-etch; hydrophilic for interaction w/ moist collagen fibers

A

Self-adhesive resin

391
Q

Which restoration would you use the following cements on?

Any cement not requiring light activation; dual cured could work tho

A

Metallic

392
Q

Which restoration would you use the following cements on?

A resin cement; resin modified GI would be 2nd choice

A

ACC

393
Q

Which restoration would you use the following cements on?

Light cured is preferable to avoid color shift

A

Porcelain veneer

394
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

Exhibits fluoride release comparable to true GI cements

A

Resin-modified GI

395
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

RelyX Luting Plus

A

Resin-modified GI

396
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

Moisture tolerance during cementation

A

Resin-modified GI

397
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

Adheres to tooth structure; less soluble than GI

A

Resin-based GI

398
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

Expansion after setting due to water sorption; causes crack propagation in ACC

A

Resin-based GI

399
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

Prep must be more retentive in design

A

Resin-based GI

400
Q

Facebow should replicate the __________ movements of the pt

A

functional

401
Q

Facebow should transfer ___________ info that is useful for diagnosis and tx

A

esthetic

402
Q

Facebows help minimize time spent _____________ in the chair when seating restorations

A

adjusting

403
Q

What does the earbow help with?

A

Axis of rotation of the mandible

(opening, closing, lateral movements)

404
Q

Why are posts needed?

A

Tooth had RCT and does not have enough leftover tooth structure

405
Q

What are the 5 indications of posts?

A
  1. Remaining structure is inadequate for retention of restoration
  2. Enough root length to accommodate post w/ appropriate apical seal (4-5mm)
  3. Enough ferrule effect (1.5-2mm)
  4. Healthy periodontium
  5. Adequate occlusal function/load
406
Q

When placing the post, it is important to have an ______________ feature to keep it stable

A

anti-rotational

407
Q

What is the main goal of a post? (ON EXAM)

A

Retain core on prep for fabrication of restoration

408
Q

T/F: Posts strengthen and reinforce teeth

A

FALSE

409
Q

How long should a post be? (4)

A

Equal or longer than the clinical crown length
2/3 root length
1/2 root length on bone
4-5mm of gutta percha for apical seal

410
Q

What happens if a post is too short?

A

Root fracture
Post decements/fails

411
Q

What happens if a post is too long?

A

Canal can get contaminated if there’s not enough apical seal

412
Q

There is no need to place a post longer than ______mm

A

11mm

413
Q

What are the 3 types of posts?

A

Cast metal post (indirect technique; made custom by lab)
Fiber post (direct technique)
Metal post (direct technique)

414
Q

Before placing a post, you should prep the canal so that there are no ___________

A

undercuts

415
Q

Which type of post has flexibility that is similar to dentin?

A

Fiber post

416
Q

When should you use a cast metal post that is custom made by a lab?

A

When there is little to no tooth structure left

417
Q

A coronal-radicular core buildup utilizing the pulp chamber and 2mm canal extension; proven to be very successful

A

Amalgam core buildup

418
Q

Pulp chamber anatomy must provide adequate retention form for this type of buildup, otherwise, a post may be required instead

A

Amalgam core buildup

419
Q

Amalgam core buildups are only used for which teeth?

A

Molars

420
Q

Band or ring used to encompass the root or crown of a tooth

A

Ferrule

421
Q

Provides bracing or casing effect to protect the integrity of the root

A

Ferrule

422
Q

Where is ferrule height measured from?

A

Crown margin to core buildup

423
Q

How many mm should the ferrule be in order to minimize risk of fracture?

A

1.5-2mm

424
Q

T/F: A post is NOT contraindicated if the ferrule height of 1.5-2mm is not met, but it will compromise the prognosis of the tooth

A

True

425
Q

When preparing a tooth for any kind of restoration, it is important to place the margin on ______________

A

sound dental structure

D2 Fall (37 decks)

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