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D2 Fall > Indirect Exam 2 > Flashcards

Indirect Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 types of all ceramic crowns?

A

Feldspathic porcelain
Lithium disilicate
PFZ
Monolithic zirconia

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2
Q

What type of prep design?

Feldspathic porcelain
Lithium disilicate

A

ACC prep

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3
Q

What type of prep design?

PFM
PFZ

A

PFM prep

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4
Q

What type of prep design?

FMC
Monolithic zirconia

A

FMC prep

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5
Q

When are ACCs indicated?

A

Esthetics
Enough coronal dental structure to support restoration

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6
Q

When doing an ACC, ___________ on occluding surface should be supported by the abutment tooth

A

porcelain

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7
Q

Porcelain is relatively __________

A

weak/brittle

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8
Q

What type of crown should you do?

Tooth that has an extensive proximal and/or buccal restoration that can no longer be restored with composite

A

ACC

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9
Q

What type of crown should you do?

A more conservative restoration is inadequate

A

ACC

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10
Q

When are ACCs contraindicated? (7)

A

When a more conservative restoration is indicated
Posterior teeth
Discolored teeth
1mm margin is not possible
Occlusal load is unfavorable (edge-to-edge occlusion)
Parafunctional habits
Deep overbite

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11
Q

Why should you not put an ACC on posterior teeth?

A

High occlusal load/brittle porcelain
Ceramic can’t exceed more than 2mm in thickness

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12
Q

Why should you not put an ACC on discolored/stained teeth?

A

May alter final restoration shade

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13
Q

What are the 3 advantages of ACCs?

A

Superior esthetics (high translucency)
More conservative on facial surface (1mm) compared to PFM (1.5mm)
Shade can be modified by resin cement

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14
Q

What are the 2 multi-shaded resin cement systems?

A

Variolink esthetic
RelyX veneer

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15
Q

What are the 2 disadvantages of ACCs?

A

Not strong
Less conservative margin compared to PFM

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16
Q

Why are ACCs not as strong?

A

No metal/zirconia substructure

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17
Q

What is the MPa of feldspathic porcelain vs lithium disilicate?

A

Feldspathic porcelain: 100-150
Lithium disilicate: 360-400

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18
Q

What is the margin of ACC vs PFM crowns?

A

ACC: 1mm, 90 degree shoulder, deep chamfer
PFM: 0.5mm, feather edge, light chamfer

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19
Q

How many facial planes are there on anterior ACC preps?

A

2

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20
Q

What is the incisal edge reduction on anterior ACC preps?

A

1.5-2mm

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21
Q

What is the axial wall reduction on anterior ACC preps?

A

1-1.5mm

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22
Q

Why do you want a 90 degree shoulder or deep chamfer for ACC preps?

A

Prevents unfavorable distribution of stress
Minimize risk of fracture

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23
Q

Ideally, you want _______ contacts in the middle 1/3 of the __________ surface for an ACC prep

A

MIP; lingual

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24
Q

When prepping for an ACC, ____________ guidance should be smooth and consistent

A

anterior

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25
Q

T/F: For an ACC prep, leaving the tooth out of
occlusion should be avoided, since it will erupt and may lead to protrusive interferences/possible fracture

A

True

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26
Q

What is the axial wall reduction on posterior ACC preps?

A

1.5mm

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27
Q

What is the non-functional cusp reduction on posterior ACC preps?

A

1.5mm

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28
Q

What is the functional cusp reduction on posterior ACC preps?

A

2mm

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29
Q

Before starting an ACC prep, what should you do if you are not satisfied with the existing crown’s anatomy?

A

Make a wax-up to the ideal contours you’re restoring to

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30
Q

What is the benefit of making a wax-up to the ideal contours you’re restoring to prior to starting an ACC prep?

A

The reduction guide will truly guide you, since that’s the anatomy you’re looking for in the future crown

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31
Q

When reducing on the facial surface during an ACC prep, what should the cervical reduction follow?

A

The path of insertion

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32
Q

When reducing on the facial surface during an ACC prep, what should the incisal reduction follow?

A

The anatomical curvature it follows

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33
Q

What should you do when prepping to prevent stress concentrations in an ACC?

A

Round internal line angles

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34
Q

Which bur should you use when finishing the margin of an ACC prep to get a very smooth, continuous shoulder margin?

A

Red labeled diamond

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35
Q

Properties and behavior of materials depend on __________ structure

A

internal

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36
Q

Independent of mechanical manipulation

A

Physical properties

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37
Q

Associated with response to externally applied forces

A

Mechanical properties

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38
Q

Name 7 physical properties

A

Density
Coefficient of thermal expansion
Optical
Solubility
Viscosity
Electrical/thermal conductivity
Melting/solidification point

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39
Q

What is testing of mechanical properties a useful predictor of?

A

Clinical success - can compare to other materials

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40
Q

Push or pull exerted on a material

A

Force (load)

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41
Q

Has magnitude and direction

A

Force (load)

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42
Q

Units are pound and Newton (0.22lb)

A

Force (load)

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43
Q

Force per unit area

A

Stress

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44
Q

What are the 3 types of stress?

A

Tension (<- ->)
Compression (-><-)
Shear

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45
Q

What type of stress?

2 forces directed away from each other in same straight line

A

Tension

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46
Q

What type of stress?

2 forces directed toward each other in same straight line

A

Compression

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47
Q

What type of stress?

2 forces directed toward each other, but NOT in same line

A

Shear

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48
Q

What happens when force exceeds the cohesive strength of the object?

A

It breaks

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49
Q

What does stress depend on?

A

Area and load

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50
Q

What are the biting forces of molars, premolars, and incisors?

A

Molars: 130 lbs
Premolars: 70 lbs
Incisors: 40 lbs

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51
Q

What is the biting stress of molars?

A

130,000 psi

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52
Q

What is amalgam’s ratio of tensile strength to compressive strength?

A

Tensile strength is 1/10 of compressive strength

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53
Q

What is EvoCeram’s ratio of tensile strength to compressive strength?

A

Tensile strength is 1/5 of compressive strength

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54
Q

Small flaws caused by localized high stresses like a notch or scratch

A

Stress concentration

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55
Q

Results in unexpected fracture at low stress

A

Stress concentration

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56
Q

Change in length/original length

A

Strain

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57
Q

Amount of deformation per unit length

A

Strain

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58
Q

An object is deformed when a force is applied

A

Strain

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59
Q

Measure of the level of stress required to make a material fail

A

Strength

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60
Q

What is the importance of strength?

A

Restorations must withstand stresses of mastication

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61
Q

What is important in dentistry to avoid exceeding strength properties of a material?

A

Prep design

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62
Q

Graphic representation of the deformation of a material as stress is applied

A

Stress-strain diagrams

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63
Q

Initially, strain is proportional to stress and is reversible

A

Elastic deformation

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64
Q

Ratio of stress to strain in straight line
portion of a diagram

A

Modulus of elasticity

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65
Q

This property cannot be changed, as it is a measure of interatomic bonding

A

Modulus of elasticity

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66
Q

Relates directly to rigidity of material

A

Modulus of elasticity

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67
Q

The greater the modulus of elasticity, the more __________ a material will be

A

rigid

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68
Q

The steeper the slope, the more ________ the material

A

rigid

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69
Q

At higher stresses, permanent displacement of atoms occurs so that much of the strain is not reversible

A

Plastic deformation

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70
Q

Once it starts, the strain will increase faster than the stress

A

Plastic deformation

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71
Q

Max stress a material can withstand without deviation from the law of proportionality

A

Proportional limit

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72
Q

An increase in the proportional limit will ____________the resistance of the material to permanent deformation

A

increase

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73
Q

High proportional limit is…

A

Strong

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74
Q

Low proportional limit is…

A

Weak

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75
Q

Essentially same as proportional limit

A

Elastic limit

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76
Q

Stress at which a material exhibits a small amount of permanent deformation

A

Yield strength (point)

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77
Q

Amount is arbitrarily selected

A

Yield strength (point)

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78
Q

Any restoration or appliance that permanently deforms in service is usually what?

A

A clinical failure

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79
Q

A material with a yield strength greater than
30,000 psi can’t be ___________

A

burnished

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80
Q

Max stress before failure

A

Ultimate strength

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81
Q

Deformation from applying a tensile force

A

Elongation (ductility)

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82
Q

Indication of workability (burnishability) of an alloy

A

Elongation (ductility)

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83
Q

Increase in length/original length x 100 = ?

A

% elongation

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84
Q

Total % elongation includes what types of deformation?

A

Elastic + plastic

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85
Q

An alloy with a high value of total % elongation can be bent permanently with less risk of _____________

A

fracture

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86
Q

In regards to total % elongation, what value is needed to be useful?

A

10%

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87
Q

Ability to be hammered or rolled into thin sheets

A

Malleability

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88
Q

Ability to be drawn into wire

A

Ductility

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89
Q

Related to burnishability

A

Ductility

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90
Q

Wrought wires are ___________

A

flexible

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91
Q

Cast alloys are ____________

A

ductile

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92
Q

Measured by area under the elastic portion of a stress-strain diagram

A

Resilience

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93
Q

Amount of energy needed to deform a material to its proportional limit

A

Resilience

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94
Q

Capacity to withstand repeated stresses before deforming

A

Resilience

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95
Q

Area under the total curve of a stress-stain diagram

A

Toughness

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96
Q

Amount of energy necessary to fracture a material

A

Toughness

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97
Q

Capacity to withstand repeated stresses before fracturing

A

Toughness

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98
Q

Resistance to permanent indentation

A

Hardness

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99
Q

Size of the indentation varies inversely
with the ____________ of the material

A

Hardness

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100
Q

The higher the hardness number, the _________ the material

A

harder

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101
Q

What are the 4 testing methods for hardness?

A

Brinell hardness
Diamond pyramid
Knoop hardness
Rockwell hardness

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102
Q

Which testing method for hardness?

Small steel ball: ratio of load to area of indentation

A

Brinell hardness

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103
Q

Which testing method for hardness?

Uses a diamond pyramid instrument

A

Diamond pyramid

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104
Q

Which testing method for hardness?

For metals and alloys, not brittle materials

A

Brinell hardness
Diamond pyramid

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105
Q

Which testing method for hardness?

Diamond tool with one long diagonal and one short diagonal

A

Knoop hardness

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106
Q

Which testing method for hardness?

Cuts the material

A

Knoop hardness

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107
Q

Which testing method for hardness?

For brittle materials (enamel, dentin), elastics, and metals

A

Knoop hardness

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108
Q

Which testing method for hardness?

Depth of indentation measured directly on
a micrometer

A

Rockwell hardness

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109
Q

Which testing method for hardness?

For elastic materials

A

Rockwell hardness

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110
Q

What is the clinical significance of yield strength?

A

Burnishability

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111
Q

What is the clinical significance of tensile strength?

A

Load-bearing ability

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112
Q

What is the clinical significance of elongation?

A

Margin-finishing properties

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113
Q

What is the clinical significance of hardness?

A

Wear resistance
Finishing/polishing

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114
Q

What is the dental wax called?

A

Inlay or casting wax

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115
Q

Amorphous, organic material

A

Wax

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116
Q

Wax is solid at what temp?

A

Room temp

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117
Q

Wax melts without _____________

A

decomposition

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118
Q

What are the natural sources of wax?

A

Mineral petroleum distillation
Plants
Insect

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119
Q

What are the 3 things involved in mineral petroleum distillation that make up inlay wax?

A

Paraffin
Microcrystalline
Ceresin

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120
Q

Which plants make wax?

A

Canauba
Candelilla

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121
Q

Which insects make wax?

A

Bees

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122
Q

T/F: The composition of beeswax varies

A

True

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123
Q

Which waxes are used more often in dentistry, natural or synthetic?

A

Natural

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124
Q

Describe synthetic wax

A

Highly refined
Similar properties to natural wax, but differ chemically

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125
Q

What are the 4 additives in wax to make it more stable/easier to carve?

A

Stearic acid
Oils
Resins
Rosins

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126
Q

What do the additives in wax allow adjustments for?

A

Flow
Toughness

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127
Q

What is the composition of wax?

A

Hydrocarbons
Esters
Complex combo of organic compounds

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128
Q

Does wax have a high or low molecular weight?

A

High

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129
Q

What is the primary ingredient in casting wax?

A

Paraffin (60%)

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130
Q

T/F: Wax has a melting point

A

FALSE, wax has a melting RANGE (since it has various molecules with differing molecular weights)

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131
Q

The melting temp of wax increases when…

A

Molecular weight increases

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132
Q

T/F: Wax has the largest thermal expansion coefficient of any material in restorative dentistry

A

True

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133
Q

The thermal expansion of wax is a function of strength of ___________ valence forces

A

secondary

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134
Q

Which forces hold materials in wax together?

A

Secondary

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135
Q

Do mineral waxes have strong or weak forces?

A

Weak

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136
Q

Which one has a greater force: mineral wax or plant wax?

A

Plant wax

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137
Q

What are the 2 contractions in wax?

A

Solidification shrinkage
Cooling contraction

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138
Q

What is a major factor in the inaccuracy of a finished restortation?

A

Temp changes in wax pattern

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139
Q

Does wax have a high or low elastic modulus (rigidity)?

A

Low

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140
Q

What does elastic modulus (rigidity) of wax depend on?

A

Temperature

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141
Q

Does wax have a high or low strength?

A

Low

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142
Q

Ability to flow over a surface

A

Wetting

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143
Q

Do you want the contact angle of a wetting surface to be high or low?

A

Low

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144
Q

Ideal/perfect wetting has what degree of a contact angle?

A

0 degrees

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145
Q

What aids wetting?

A

Die lubricant

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146
Q

Die lubricant is basically the same as what material?

A

Liquid alginate

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147
Q

Degree of plastic (permanent) deformation of a material at a given temp

A

Flow

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148
Q

What 3 things does flow depend on?

A

Temp
Force applied
Time force is applied

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149
Q

What is always present in the wax pattern?

A

Residual stress

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150
Q

What does molding wax under compression lead to?

A

Expansion

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151
Q

What does molding wax under tension lead to?

A

Contraction

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152
Q

What are the 2 types of casting waxes?

A

Type 1 (technicians use)
Type 2

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153
Q

Which type of casting wax?

Harder
Lower flow for direct technique in oral cavity

A

Type 1

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154
Q

Which type of casting wax?

Soft for indirect technique on stone model

A

Type 2

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155
Q

T/F: Both type of casting wax should trim to a fine margin

A

True

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156
Q

What is a problem with both types of casting wax?

A

Warping

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157
Q

What are the 4 problem areas of wax?

A

Development + release of internal stress
Non-uniform storage temps
Carving that induces stress
Warming the pattern

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158
Q

A wax pattern is made directly on the __________

A

stone model

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159
Q

What is painted on the die? Why?

A

Die lubricant; allows wax to flow easier

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160
Q

What 5 things should you check the wax pattern for?

A

Overwaxed margins
Short margins
Thick margins
Open margins
Roughness

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161
Q

What are the 2 major categories of impression material?

A

Inelastic (rigid)
Elastic (flexible)

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162
Q

Which category of impression material?

Plaster, ZOE, compound

A

Inelastic (rigid)

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163
Q

Which category of impression material?

For edentulous pts

A

Inelastic (rigid)

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164
Q

Which category of impression material?

Hydrocolloids (reversible and irreversible)

A

Elastic (flexible)

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165
Q

Which category of impression material?

Elastomers (polysulfide, condensation silicone, addition silicone, polyether)

A

Elastic (flexible)

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166
Q

What was the first impression material to come out in 1950?

A

Polysulfide

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167
Q

Which impression materials do not have a byproduct, meaning they are stable and can be sent later to a lab without warping?

A

Polyether
Additional silicone

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168
Q

T/F: If the impression material doesn’t have a lot of filler in it, you will have a more detailed impression

A

True

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169
Q

T/F: Fillers in impression material will stabilize the dimensions of it

A

True

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170
Q

What are the 2 lead-free polysulfides?

A

Omniflex
Coe flex

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171
Q

Which impression material has the following ingredient?

Catalyst- cupric hydroxide

A

Omniflex
Coe flex

(lead-free polysulfides)

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172
Q

What are the available consistencies of polysulfide and polyether?

A

Light
Regular
Heavy

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173
Q

Do you dispense in equal lengths or equal volumes of impression material?

A

Equal lengths

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174
Q

Which impression material has the following properties?

Unpleasant odor
Stains clothes
Extremely viscous + sticky
Hydrophobic

A

Polysulfide

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175
Q

Which impression material has the following chemistry?

Condensation rxn (water is produced)
Chain lengthing rxn (viscosity increases)
Cross-linking rxn

A

Polysulfide

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176
Q

Which impression material has terminal and pendant mercaptan groups (-SH)?

A

Polysulfide

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177
Q

What are the terminal and pendant mercaptan groups in polysulfide oxidized by? What does this produce? What is there a rapid increase in?

A

Lead dioxide to produce chain lengthening and cross-linking; increase in molecular weight

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178
Q

What are the available consistencies of condensation silicones, addition silicones, and VPES?

A

Light
Regular
Heavy
Putty

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179
Q

Which impression material has the following properties?

Almost odorless
Variety of colors
Hydrophobic

A

Condensation silicones

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180
Q

Which impression material has the following chemistry?

Condensation rxn (alcohol is produced)
Chain lengthing rxn (viscosity increases)
Cross-linking rxn

A

Condensation silicones

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181
Q

What are the 2 other names for addition silicones to know for boards?

A

Polyvinyl siloxane
Vinyl polysiloxane

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182
Q

Hydrophilic formulations of addition silicones contain what?

A

Surfactant

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183
Q

Which contains the most amount of filler - putty or light body?

A

Most amount of filler = putty
Least amount of filler = light body

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184
Q

Which impression material?

Consistency depends on molecular weight of polymer and amount of filler

A

Addition silicones

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185
Q

Which impression material?

Supplied as 2 pastes, or putty, or in dual cartridge system

A

Addition silicones

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186
Q

Which impression material?

Can do a heavy-wash 1-stage impression (like how we do for crown preps)

(wash = light body)

A

Addition silicones

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187
Q

Which impression material?

Can do a putty-wash 2-stage impression

(wash = light body)

A

Addition silicones

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188
Q

Which impression material has the following properties?

Almost odorless
Variety of colors
May cause bubbles in stone
Naturally hydrophobic

A

Addition silicones

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189
Q

Which impression material has the following chemistry?

Addition rxn (no volatile byproduct; some forms produce hydrogen)
Chain lengthing rxn (viscosity increases)
Cross-linking rxn (elasticity increases)

A

Addition silicones

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190
Q

What groups contribute to chain lengthening and cross-linking in addition silicones?

A

Vinyl groups

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191
Q

Which impression material?

Sets by uniting polymer chains (polymerization)

A

Addition silicones

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192
Q

Name the impression materials with the fastest working times in order

A

Addition silicones
VPES
Alginate

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193
Q

Which impression material?

The catalyst (benzene) used to cause a soft tissue rxn after the 2nd or 3rd impression with this material (catalyst has been changed now)

A

Polyether

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194
Q

Which impression material has the following properties?

Almost odorless
Possible skin rxns (not anymore due to change in catalyst)
Naturally hydrophilic

A

Polyether

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195
Q

Which impression material has the following chemistry?

Addition rxn (no byproduct)

A

Polyether

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196
Q

Which impression material?

Cationic polymerization and opening of the rings

A

Polyether

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197
Q

What is vinyl polyether silicone (VPES) a combination of?

A

Addition silicone + polyether

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198
Q

Which impression material has the following properties?

Intrinsically hydrophilic
Good flow
Low contact angle (10 degrees)
Easier removal than polyether (increased flexibility)
High tear strength

A

Vinyl polyether silicone (VPES)

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199
Q

Which impression materials are easier to mix due to lower initial viscosity?

A

Silicones

200
Q

Which impression materials have the most rapid increase in viscosity?

A

Addition silicone
Polyether

201
Q

There is a decrease in viscosity with increasing ___________

A

shear rate

202
Q

What are 3 words used to describe the act of putting pressure/force behind impression material to thin it out?

A

Shear thinning
Pseudoplastic
Thixotropic

203
Q

Which impression material has the longest working time and setting time?

A

Polysulfide

(next longest are silicones and polyethers)

204
Q

What are working times and setting times shortened by?

A

High temp
Humidity

205
Q

What does shrinkage of impression material occur from?

A

Evaporation of volatile byproduct
Thermal contraction
Rearrangement of bonds during polymerization

206
Q

Which impression material has the smallest and largest dimensional change/shrinkage?

A

Smallest = Addition silicone
Largest = Condensation silicone

207
Q

Which impression materials absorb water?

A

Polyether
Hydrophilic addition silicone

(do NOT wrap these up in a paper towel)

208
Q

Which impression material has the best recovery?

A

Addition silicone

209
Q

Which impression material has the worst recovery?

A

Polysulfide

210
Q

Which impression material is the stiffest?

A

Polyether

211
Q

Which impression material is the least stiff?

A

Polysulfide

212
Q

Which impression materials have the lowest and highest amount of flow?

A

Lowest = Silicones + Polyether
Highest = Polysulfide

213
Q

Which impression material is the hardest and least hard?

A

Hardest = Polyether
Least hard = Polysulfide

214
Q

Which impression material is the easiest to remove from a pts mouth, due to the fact it is the least stiff and least hard material?

A

Polysulfide

215
Q

Which impression material has the highest and lowest resistance to tearing?

A

Highest = Polysulfide
Lowest = Polyether

216
Q

Which impression material is most likely to tear when removing it from the pts mouth?

A

Polyether

217
Q

Alginate impression material is a ____________

A

hydrocolloid

218
Q

“Hydro” in hydrocolloid means __________ is the dispersion medium

A

water

219
Q

“Colloid” in hydrocolloid means solution in which the dispersed particles are __________ than ordinary atoms or molecules, but still invisible to naked eye

A

larger

220
Q

What are the 2 forms of hydrocolloids?

A

Sol
Gel

221
Q

Which form of hydrocolloid?

Aggregates of molecules are dispersed within water and material behaves like a high viscosity fluid

A

Sol

222
Q

Which form of hydrocolloid?

Semisolid mass formed by reduction in temp or chemical rxn

A

Gel

223
Q

Which form of hydrocolloid?

Molecules join to form a network of chains (fibrils) which enclose the dispersion medium (water)

A

Sol
Gel

224
Q

How do hydrocolloids behave?

A

Drying
Imbibition
Syneresis

225
Q

Which behavior of hydrocolloids?

Evaporation of water from gel under conditions of high ambient temp and low humidity

A

Drying

226
Q

Which behavior of hydrocolloids?

Shrinkage

A

Drying

227
Q

Which behavior of hydrocolloids?

Water absorbed with associated swelling of the gel

A

Imbibition

228
Q

Which behavior of hydrocolloids?

Will NOT restore the original dimensions to the gel

A

Imbibition

229
Q

How fast should hydrocolloid impressions be poured up?

A

Within 2 hrs

230
Q

Which behavior of hydrocolloids?

Appearance of exudate on surface of impression (sticky layer)

A

Syneresis

231
Q

Which behavior of hydrocolloids?

Occurs independent of humidity; doesn’t matter if you wrap it up in paper towel

A

Syneresis

232
Q

What type of rxn is in Alginate?

A

Irreversible rxn

233
Q

How does alginate set?

A

Chemical rxn

234
Q

Which impression material?

Uses:
Preliminary impressions for CDs and RPDs
Study model impressions

A

Alginate

235
Q

Alginate is _______ to mix

A

easy

236
Q

What should you do with the extra Alginate in the bowl? What does this help with?

A

Put it on your finger and apply to posterior teeth; helps get rid of air bubbles

237
Q

Which 2 ingredients bond to each other in Alginate impressions?

A

Sodium alginate + calcium sulfate

238
Q

Which ingredient in Alginate helps improve the surface of stone by counteracting gypsum inhibition?

A

Potassium sulfate

239
Q

Which ingredient in Alginate is a retarder?

A

Sodium phosphate

240
Q

Which ingredient in Alginate controls consistency?

A

Fillers

241
Q

What are the setting rxns of Alginate?

A

Retarding (ties up the Ca2+ ions)
Setting (Na alginate reacts with Ca2+ sulfate and water; product is Ca2+ alginate)

242
Q

_________ ___________ is essentially insoluble in water; it’s formation causes gelation

A

Calcium alginate

(it is the product of Alginate setting rxn)

243
Q

The concentration of what ingredient in Alginate is adjusted to provide regular and fast set impression materials?

A

Sodium phosphate

244
Q

Which impression material?

Proportioning the powder/water ratio is critical for consistent results

A

Alginate

245
Q

Which impression material?

Fluff the powder before scooping, but don’t inhale it

A

Alginate

246
Q

Which impression material?

Mixing time:
1 min for regular set
45 seconds for fast set

A

Alginate

247
Q

Which impression material?

Rinse impression with (slurry) water to remove saliva and then disinfect

A

Alginate

248
Q

Which impression material?

Setting time:
No less than 2 mins, no more than 4.5 mins for regular set

No less than 1 min, no more than 2 mins for fast set

A

Alginate

249
Q

Which impression material?

Adjust setting time by altering water temp

A

Alginate

250
Q

How do you make Alginate set faster?

A

Use warmer water

251
Q

How do you know if Alginate is set?

A

Loses surface tackiness

252
Q

Which impression material?

Wait 2-3 mins before removing from pts mouth to increase tear strength and resistance to permanent deformation

A

Alginate

253
Q

Permanent deformation of Alginate is a function of…

A

% compression of material
Time under compression
Time after removal

254
Q

What is meant by % compression of material?

A

A bulk of material will absorb compression

255
Q

What will increase deformation of an Alginate impression?

A

Slow removal from pts mouth

256
Q

How long should you let the Alginate impression recover after removing from pts mouth?

A

8 mins

257
Q

Which impression material?

One of the most flexible impression materials

A

Alginate

258
Q

Which impression material?

Tear strength increases with increased rate of removal from pts mouth

A

Alginate

259
Q

What is dimensional stability of Alginate due to?

A

Loss or gain of water

260
Q

Loss of water in an Alginate impression due to evaporation or syneresis leads to what?

A

Shrinkage

261
Q

Gain of water in an Alginate impression due to imbibition leads to what?

A

Expansion

262
Q

Store your Alginate impression in _____________ (wet paper towel) for up to 2 hrs

A

100% humidity

263
Q

Pure calcium alginate is ___________

A

brittle

264
Q

The double alginate structure is ____________ to a sudden force, but not to a prolonged force

A

elastic

265
Q

What kind of rxns does Agar hydrocolloid use?

A

Reversible rxn
Conversion rxn

266
Q

Which impression material?

Gel upon cooling, liquifies when heated

A

Agar hydrocolloid

267
Q

Which impression material?

Heating units and special trays are required

A

Agar hydrocolloid

268
Q

Which impression material?

Dimensionally unstable; difficult to register subgingival areas

A

Agar hydrocolloid

269
Q

Which impression material?

Thermal shock

A

Agar hydrocolloid

270
Q

Which ingredient in Agar hydrocolloid functions as the fibril structure of gel?

A

Agar

271
Q

Which ingredient in Agar hydrocolloid improves surface of stone?

A

Potassium sulfate

272
Q

Which ingredient in Agar hydrocolloid improves strength of gel?

A

Borax

273
Q

Which ingredient in Agar hydrocolloid is a preservative?

A

Alkyl benzoate

274
Q

Which ingredient in Agar hydrocolloid is the continuous phase?

A

Water

275
Q

Difference btwn gel -> sol and sol -> gel transformation temps in Agar hydrocolloid

A

Hysteresis

276
Q

Describe the conversion rxn in Agar hydrocolloid

A

Gel -> heat to 212 -> sol (liquid)
Sol (liquid) -> cool to 109 -> gel

277
Q

Which impression material?

Store at 145-150 degrees
Temper at 115 degrees for 2 mins

A

Agar hydrocolloid

278
Q

Which impression material?

Properties are similar to Alginate

A

Agar hydrocolloid

279
Q

Which category of cement?

Stronger, more stable, bond to tooth structure

A

Polymer based

280
Q

Which category of cement?

Oil based, water based, do NOT bond to tooth structure

A

Traditional

281
Q

Name 2 traditional cements

A

Zinc oxide - eugenol (ZOE)
Zinc phosphate

282
Q

What are ZOE, silicophosphate, and GI used for?

A

Temp filling material

283
Q

What are silica and GI used for?

A

Durable filling material

284
Q

What are ZOE, zinc phosphate, polycarboxylate, and GI used for?

A

Cavity liner/base

285
Q

Which cement is the only one that is NOT used for cementation?

A

Silicate cement

286
Q

Which cement is insoluble in the pts mouth and highly acidic?

A

Zinc phosphate

287
Q

Which cement is very soluble in the pts mouth and will sedate the pulp?

A

ZOE

288
Q

What characteristics are in an ideal final cement?

A

Adequate working time
Short setting time
Resistance to dislodging forces
Adequate flow
Adhesive
Resists plastic deformation (high elastic modulus)
Anticariogenic
Translucent
Thin film thickness
Non-toxic
Easy to clean up
Low solubility
High compressive strength

289
Q

Which traditional cement?

Strong and rigid; irritant because it is acidic

A

Zinc phosphate

290
Q

Which traditional cement?

No adhesion, no anti-bacterial properties

A

Zinc phospahte

291
Q

What is the main powder ingredient in Zinc phosphate and ZOE cements?

A

ZnO

292
Q

What is the main liquid ingredient in Zinc phosphate cement?

A

Phosphoric acid (H3PO4)

(this is where the acidity comes from)

293
Q

Which traditional cement?

Components are fused by heating (calcination) and then ground to fine powder

A

Zinc phosphate

294
Q

Which traditional cement?

Metallic oxides added for color

A

Zinc phosphate

295
Q

Which traditional cement?

Made up of 30% water, which controls ionization of the acid

A

Zinc phosphate

296
Q

What shortens the setting time of Zinc phosphate?

A

More water

297
Q

Which traditional cement?

Surface of powder is dissolved by the acid, which is an exothermic rxn

A

Zinc phosphate

298
Q

Which traditional cement?

When it sets, you will have an amorphous network surrounding incompletely dissolved ZnO

A

Zinc phosphate

299
Q

The smaller the particle size in a material, the ____________ (faster/slower) the material will set

A

faster

300
Q

What 5 factors does the operator control when using Zinc phosphate cement?

A

Powder/liquid ratio
Rate of powder incorporation
Mixing temp
Manner of spatulation
Water contamination or loss from liquid

301
Q

Which traditional cement?

The greater the surface area of powder, the faster the rxn

A

Zinc phosphate

302
Q

Which traditional cement?

More rapid incorporation of the powder into the mix will increase surface area of the powder, leading to a faster rxn

A

Zinc phosphate

303
Q

Which traditional cement?

A higher powder/liquid ratio will make it set faster

A

Zinc phosphate

304
Q

Which traditional cement?

Small initial quantities of powder provide smaller surface area for rxn with the acid

A

Zinc phosphate

305
Q

What is the MOST IMPORTANT property of cement?

A

Solubility

306
Q

Premature contact of Zinc phosphate cement with water/saliva results in ___________ of the surface, and it will become soft, friable, chalky

A

leaching

307
Q

There is a continued loss of Zinc phosphate material in the mouth over time. What 3 things can affect this?

A

Powder/liquid ratio or mix
Diet
Oral environment (acidity)

308
Q

Which traditional cement?

Luting mix reaches:
pH of 4.2 in 3 mins
pH of 6 in 1 hr
Neutral in 48 hrs

A

Zinc phosphate

309
Q

Which traditional cement?

May cause irreversible trauma to pulp

A

Zinc phosphate

310
Q

Which traditional cement?

Ca2+ hydroxide, varnish, or bonding agent should be applied to vital dentin before cement

A

ZInc phosphate

311
Q

Which traditional cement?

Shrinks as it hardens

A

Zinc phosphate

312
Q

Which cement is not used anymore?

A

Zinc silicophosphate

313
Q

Which traditional cement?

Only used as a temporary material because it is highly soluble

A

ZOE

314
Q

Which ingredient in ZOE reduces brittleness?

A

Rosin

315
Q

Which powder ingredient in ZOE is a plasticizer? Which liquid ingredient in ZOE is a plasticizer?

A

Powder = zinc stearate
Liquid = olive oil

316
Q

Which ingredient in ZOE increases strength and setting rxn?

A

Zinc acetate

317
Q

What is the main liquid in ZOE and is a sedative?

A

Eugenol

318
Q

T/F: ZOE should never be used as a permanent cement

A

True

319
Q

What is the setting reaction in ZOE cement?

A

Chelate

320
Q

Which traditional cement?

Chemical compound that has primary and/or secondary bonds projecting from 2 sites on a molecule toward a single metal ion; a ring formation results and the cement sets

A

ZOE

321
Q

T/F: ZOE bonds to tooth structure

A

FALSE

322
Q

Which traditional cement?

A large amount of powder can be added by heavy spatulation

A

ZOE

323
Q

Which traditional cement?

Flow is deceptive, and people tend to not add enough powder

A

ZOE

324
Q

Which traditional cement?

Flow is viscous compared to Zinc phosphate cement

A

ZOE

325
Q

Which traditional cement?

Cool slab is NOT required; treated paper pad is better

A

ZOE

326
Q

Which traditional cement?

Cool slab is required

A

Zinc phosphate
Zinc polycarboxylate

327
Q

Which traditional cement?

Bulk of powder is incorporated in initial step; thoroughly spatulate

A

ZOE

328
Q

Which traditional cement?

Film thickness
Long working and setting times
Low strength
High solubility
Good sealing properties
Pulp protection not needed
Inhibits set of resin
Irritant if in direct contact w/ pulp

A

ZOE

329
Q

What is another word for “sedative” that is sometimes used on boards?

A

Obtundant

330
Q

Which traditional cement?

Liquid component is a copolymer of polyacrylic acid and itaconic acid

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

331
Q

Which liquid component of Zinc polycarboxylate will actually bond to the tooth structure?

A

Polyacrylic acid

332
Q

Which traditional cement?

Powder is ZnO and MgO; sintered and ground to reduce reactivity of ZnO

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

333
Q

Which traditional cement?

Consistency is thick compared to Zinc phosphate

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

334
Q

Which traditional cement?

Thixotropic

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

335
Q

Which traditional cement?

Rapid mixing (30 seconds), all at once

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

336
Q

Which traditional cement?

Clean, dry cavity; do not varnish cavity; cement must appear glossy

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

337
Q

Which traditional cement?

24 hr compressive strength is 1/2 that of Zinc phosphate

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

338
Q

Which traditional cement?

Tensile strength is 40% greater than Zinc phosphate

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

339
Q

Which traditional cement?

Slightly higher film thickness than Zinc phosphate

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

340
Q

Which traditional cement?

Carboxylate groups in the polymer chelate to Ca2+ for adhesion to tooth structure

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

341
Q

Which traditional cement?

Adhesion to gold castings is dependent on surface prep (sandblast or electrolytic etching)

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

342
Q

Which traditional cement?

Slightly more acidic than Zinc phosphate when first mixed

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

343
Q

Which traditional cement?

Acidic penetration into tubules in minimal

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

344
Q

Which traditional cement?

Some formulated with SnF instead of MgO for fluoride release

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

345
Q

Which traditional cement?

Less soluble than Zinc phosphate in oral fluids

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

346
Q

Which traditional cement?

Powder is aluminosilicate glass + fluoride flux

A

GI

347
Q

Which traditional cement?

Liquid is polyacrylic acid, itaconic acid, and tartaric acid

A

GI

348
Q

What are the 3 types of GI?

A

Liner/base
Durable filling
Cementing

349
Q

Which traditional cement?

Strength is 2x that of Zinc phosphate for some types

A

GI

350
Q

Which traditional cement?

Anticariogenic
Low solubility once set
Adhesion
Biocompatible
Technique sensitive
Some available in light-cured formulations

A

GI

351
Q

Cements based on filled polymers designed to adhere to tooth structure, requiring the use of a separate etching and bonding agent

A

Adhesive resin cements

352
Q

Self-etching cements based on filled polymers designed to adhere to tooth structure and other substrates, without the use of a separate etching and bonding agent

A

Self-adhesive resin cements

353
Q

These cements are also called “Universal”

A

Self-adhesive resin cements

354
Q

These cements may selectively etch enamel margins

A

Self-adhesive resin cements

355
Q

Chemical agent used to increase affinity of adhesion to metallic or ceramic materials

A

Primer

356
Q

What are the 2 basic categories of polymer-based cements?

A

Resin-based cement
Resin-based GI

357
Q

Which category of cement has the following ideal properties?

High bond strength to tooth structure and various materials
High tensile/compressive strengths
Low solubility
Color stability
Low water sorption
Low film thickness
Radiopacity
Tolerance to moisture during cementation

A

Polymer-based cement

358
Q

Which polymer-based cement has the following disadvantages?

Technique sensitive; bond strength is affected by pre-tx procedures, depth of cure, degree of polymerization, opacity/shade of restoration and cement

A

Resin-based

359
Q

Which polymer-based cement has the following disadvantages?

Difficult clean-up
Change shade during curing
May darken during lifetime

A

Resin-based

360
Q

What are the 2 ways to classify polymer-based cements?

A

Polymerization mechanism
Adhesive scheme

361
Q

What are the 3 categories of polymer-based cements that fall under polymerization mechanism classification?

A

Light cured
Chemical cured
Dual cured

362
Q

What are the 2 categories of polymer-based cements that fall under adhesive scheme classification?

A

Adhesive resin (bond and either total etch, selective etch, or self etch)
Self-adhesive resin (no etch, no bond)

363
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

Advantages = increased working time, decreased finishing time, remove excess cement before final curing, color stability

A

Light-cured resin

364
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

Chemical and light curing when ceramic is too thick or too opaque

A

Dual cure resin

365
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

Has both a self-cured initiator (benzoyl peroxide) and a light-cured initiator (camphorquinone)

A

Dual cure resin

366
Q

Light cured and dual cured resin cements can be ______________

A

tack cured

367
Q

When doing tack cure, after you seat the restoration, cure marginal excess cement for ___________

A

2 seconds

368
Q

When doing tack cure, remove the cured excess with a ____________

A

scaler

369
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

Self curing, not as color stable, limited shade selection

A

Chemical cured resin

370
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

Requires bond, bonds cement to tooth, self-etching

A

Adhesive resin

371
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

Optional phosphoric acid to etch enamel and/or dentin

A

Adhesive resin

372
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

May be light or dual cured; highest bond strengths especially to enamel; multi-step technique is complex

A

Adhesive resin

373
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

One component, “universal” adhesive

A

Self-adhesive resin

374
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

Bonds directly to enamel, dentin, metal, ceramic

A

Self-adhesive resin

375
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

Acidic monomers for bonding to different substrates; better bond to dentin than enamel

A

Self-adhesive resin

376
Q

Which cement has a better/higher bond strength to tooth structure: adhesive or self-adhesive resin cement?

A

Adhesive resin

377
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

Change from acidic to neutral in 24 hrs; pH of 2 after mixing

A

Self-adhesive resin

378
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

Ability to self-etch; hydrophilic for interaction w/ moist collagen fibers

A

Self-adhesive resin

379
Q

Which restoration would you use the following cements on?

Any cement not requiring light activation; dual cured could work tho

A

Metallic

380
Q

Which restoration would you use the following cements on?

A resin cement; resin modified GI would be 2nd choice

A

ACC

381
Q

Which restoration would you use the following cements on?

Light cured is preferable to avoid color shift

A

Porcelain veneer

382
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

Exhibits fluoride release comparable to true GI cements

A

Resin-modified GI

383
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

RelyX Luting Plus

A

Resin-modified GI

384
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

Moisture tolerance during cementation

A

Resin-modified GI

385
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

Adheres to tooth structure; less soluble than GI

A

Resin-based GI

386
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

Expansion after setting due to water sorption; causes crack propagation in ACC

A

Resin-based GI

387
Q

Which polymer-based cement?

Prep must be more retentive in design

A

Resin-based GI

388
Q

Facebow should replicate the __________ movements of the pt

A

functional

389
Q

Facebow should transfer ___________ info that is useful for diagnosis and tx

A

esthetic

390
Q

Facebows help minimize time spent _____________ in the chair when seating restorations

A

adjusting

391
Q

What does the earbow help with?

A

Axis of rotation of the mandible

(opening, closing, lateral movements)

392
Q

Why are posts needed?

A

Tooth had RCT and does not have enough leftover tooth structure

393
Q

What are the 5 indications of posts?

A
  1. Remaining structure is inadequate for retention of restoration
  2. Enough root length to accommodate post w/ appropriate apical seal (4-5mm)
  3. Enough ferrule effect (1.5-2mm)
  4. Healthy periodontium
  5. Adequate occlusal function/load
394
Q

When placing the post, it is important to have an ______________ feature to keep it stable

A

anti-rotational

395
Q

What is the main goal of a post? (ON EXAM)

A

Retain core on prep for fabrication of restoration

396
Q

T/F: Posts strengthen and reinforce teeth

A

FALSE

397
Q

How long should a post be? (4)

A

Equal or longer than the clinical crown length
2/3 root length
1/2 root length on bone
4-5mm of gutta percha for apical seal

398
Q

What happens if a post is too short?

A

Root fracture
Post decements/fails

399
Q

What happens if a post is too long?

A

Canal can get contaminated if there’s not enough apical seal

400
Q

There is no need to place a post longer than ______mm

A

11mm

401
Q

What are the 3 types of posts?

A

Cast metal post (indirect technique; made custom by lab)
Fiber post (direct technique)
Metal post (direct technique)

402
Q

Before placing a post, you should prep the canal so that there are no ___________

A

undercuts

403
Q

Which type of post has flexibility that is similar to dentin?

A

Fiber post

404
Q

When should you use a cast metal post that is custom made by a lab?

A

When there is little to no tooth structure left

405
Q

A coronal-radicular core buildup utilizing the pulp chamber and 2mm canal extension; proven to be very successful

A

Amalgam core buildup

406
Q

Pulp chamber anatomy must provide adequate retention form for this type of buildup, otherwise, a post may be required instead

A

Amalgam core buildup

407
Q

Amalgam core buildups are only used for which teeth?

A

Molars

408
Q

Band or ring used to encompass the root or crown of a tooth

A

Ferrule

409
Q

Provides bracing or casing effect to protect the integrity of the root

A

Ferrule

410
Q

Where is ferrule height measured from?

A

Crown margin to core buildup

411
Q

How many mm should the ferrule be in order to minimize risk of fracture?

A

1.5-2mm

412
Q

T/F: A post is NOT contraindicated if the ferrule height of 1.5-2mm is not met, but it will compromise the prognosis of the tooth

A

True

413
Q

When preparing a tooth for any kind of restoration, it is important to place the margin on ______________

A

sound dental structure

414
Q

Which appointment?

a. Preliminary impressions, facebow, mounted casts
b. Wax-up if needed
c. Tx plan elaboration
d. Fabrication of vacuum form for provisional fabrication

A

Diagnosis + tx plan (1 or 2 appts)

415
Q

Which appointment?

a. Shade selection prior to prep (teeth dehydrate during appt)
b. Anesthesia
c. Prep
d. Evaluate if tooth will need additional procedures (build-up, endo)
e. Provisional restoration fabrication
f. Cement provisional

A

Crown prep appt

416
Q

Which appointment?

a. Anesthesia
b. Try-in custom tray/stock tray, paint tray with adhesive, prepare impression material guns. (Remember to always bleed material!)
c. Place 1st retraction cord
d. Evaluate prep, refine if needed
e. Place 2nd retraction cord
f. Impression
g. Interocclusal registration (Regisil)

A

Final impression appt

417
Q

A facebow record must always be obtained to mount the ___________ cast on the semi adjustable articulator

A

maxillary

418
Q

An interocclusal record should be obtained to mount the ____________ cast

A

mandibular

419
Q

This record gives good stability to the mandibular arch when articulated

A

Interocclusal record

420
Q

A distribution of contacts with a ___________ layout is desired to maximize stability

A

tripod

421
Q

Where should you place the bite reg material?

A

Only on teeth being restored

422
Q

Trim the interocclusal record so only the most occlusal _________ digitates into the material

A

1mm

423
Q

What material is used for interocclusal records?

A

Regisil
Aluwax

424
Q

Dentil bite and impression wax

A

Aluwax

425
Q

Composite material with powdered aluminum to increase integrity of compound and provide heat retention properties for efficient modeling

A

Aluwax

426
Q

What step does this describe?

a. Pour and fabricate master cast
b. Mounted case w/ facebow and interocclusal record
c. Lab script
d. Faculty signature
e. Turn in case to South Lab to be sent to lab

A

Lab procedures

427
Q

Which appointment?

a. Remove provisional w/ hemostat
b. Clean crown prep from all cement excess w/ pumice (Preppies)
c. Try-in crown
d. Cement crown w/ appropriate cement and respective manipulation
technique
e. Remove all cement excess
f. Verify restoration was fully seated, check occlusion, interproximal contacts…
g. Final x-ray: verify all margins are closed and crown fully seated

A

Crown delivery appt

428
Q

Which step of the crown delivery appt?

  1. Check margins clinically, should be closed.
  2. If margins are opened, check for very heavy inter-proximal contacts - they might not be letting the restoration seat completely
  3. If margins are clinically closed take a bite-wing x-ray (posterior teeth) to verify closed margins
  4. If margins appeared opened radiographically, check for very heavy interproximal contacts.
  5. Once the close margins are confirmed, check interproximal contacts.
  6. Last adjustment, occlusal surface on MIP and eccentric movements
  7. Polish porcelain with the Dialite Porcelain Polisher Kit to minimize occlusal wear of opposing dentition.
A

Try-in

429
Q

Which step of the crown delivery appt?

1.Verify margins, inter-proximal contacts, occlusion, shade, xray…
2.Wash crown from any debris (Ivoclean or phosphoric acid)
3.Clean abutment from any previous cementation, saliva, blood…
4.Cementation:
Every cement has it’s own cementation instructions. Read them, follow them
4.Let cement fully set / light cure. (Remove gross excess when
partially set)
5.Gently remove cement excess with an explorer. Assistant helps with high suction.
6.Verify margins and occlusion with shimstock for any last adjustments. Always polish after adjustments with the dialite polisher kit!!!
7.Final x-ray, verify all margins are closed

A

Cement permanent crown

430
Q

Which polisher kit is used to polish crowns after adjusting?

A

Dialite

431
Q

What is the order of checking the fit of a crown or FDP in the pts mouth?

A
  1. Margins
  2. Interproximal contacts
  3. Occlusion
432
Q

Which step of crown prep appt?

  1. Clean provisional from any previous cementation or debris.
    2.Clean abutment from any previous cementation, saliva, blood…
    3.Cementation:
    Assistant: mixes and loads provisional with provisional cement.
    Dentist: isolates tooth and lightly dries the tooth. Then, seat restoration
    after handled by assistant.
    4.Let cement fully set.
    5.Gently remove cement excess with an explorer. Assistant helps with high
    suction.
    6.Verify occlusion, provisional restoration could have not seated
    completely.
A

Cement provisional

433
Q

Which provisional cement?

Crowns
FDPs
Inlays/onlays

A

Non-eugenol cement

434
Q

Which provisional cement?

Inlays/onlays
Implant screw access

A

Light cure composites

435
Q

T/F: Eugenol containing bases and liners partially inhibit polymerization of freshly mixed composite restorations and there is softening of the resin surface adjacent to the eugenol liner

A

True

436
Q

Light cure composites have a _________ consistency when fully cured

A

rubbery

437
Q

Which provisional cement?

Considered a permanent cement, but can be used for long term provisional cementation

A

Polycarboxylate luting cement

438
Q

Which provisional cement?

Durelon

A

Polycarboxylate luting cement

439
Q

Which provisional cement?

Used when provisional doesn’t successfully retain with a provisional cement

A

Polycarboxylate luting cement

440
Q

Which provisional cement?

Used when a pt will be out of town for a few weeks

A

Polycarboxylate luting cement

441
Q

Formulated w/ 2.0% CHX gluconate for cleaning and disinfecting

A

Preppies pumice paste

442
Q

What is the thickest articulating paper?

A

Horseshoe articulating paper

443
Q

What is the thinnest articulating paper?

A

Shimstock

444
Q

Which articulating paper?

181.7 um thick

A

Horseshoe

445
Q

Which articulating paper?

25.5 um thick

A

Accu Film II

446
Q

Which articulating paper?

9.2 um thick

A

Shimstock

447
Q

Which articulating paper?

Double-sided for precise occlusal equilibration and restoration adjustments

A

Accu Film II

448
Q

Which articulating paper?

Won’t trigger mandibular reflexes that might skew bite

A

Accu Film II

449
Q

Which articulating paper?

Consistently produces sharp, easy to interpret marks; no false markings

A

Accu Film II

450
Q

Which articulating paper?

Stretches, but does not break; no snap back to distort marks

A

Accu Film II

451
Q

Which articulating paper?

Highest plastic deformation of all major brands tested

A

Accu Film II

452
Q

What should you do when equilibrating hard to mark surfaces like polished gold in order to read Accu Film II marks?

A

Apply thin coat of vaseline

453
Q

In the dialite polisher kit, what is the level of grit for the blue, pink, and gray polishers?

A

Blue = coarse
Pink = medium
Gray = fine

(use in order!)

454
Q

The dialite polisher kit is best used on which type of crown material?

A

Feldspathic porcelain

455
Q

What is the recommended speed when using the dialite polisher kit?

A

5000-8000 rpm

456
Q

Which part of the dialite zirconia polishing kit?

Adjust occlusal surfaces of posterior teeth and lingual surfaces of anterior teeth

A

Football diamond

457
Q

Which part of the dialite zirconia polishing kit?

Adjust cusps and interproximal contacts

A

Tapered diamond

458
Q

Which part of the dialite zirconia polishing kit?

Adjust fossa

A

Round diamond

459
Q

Which part of the dialite zirconia polishing kit?

Using light pressure and no water, prepolish with blue polisher to remove abrasions left by diamonds during adjustment

A

Dialite polisher (blue)

460
Q

Which part of the dialite zirconia polishing kit?

Can also be used alone for minor adjustments if you don’t want to use a diamond

A

Dialite polisher (blue)

461
Q

Which part of the dialite zirconia polishing kit?

Continue pre-polishing until glossier look appears on adjusted areas

A

Medium polisher (green)

462
Q

Which part of the dialite zirconia polishing kit?

Use with light/medium pressure to achieve a “wet” high shine

A

Fine polisher (orange)

463
Q

Which permanent cement?

Self-etching dual cure resin cement

A

Rely x Unicem

464
Q

Which permanent cement?

Used to cement any material, but avoid on areas where isolation is difficult; resin materials don’t work well under moisture

A

Rely x Unicem

465
Q

Which permanent cement?

Comes in different shades for cementing translucid materials (veneers, ACCs)

A

Rely x Unicem

466
Q

Which permanent cement?

Avoid w/ veneers or highly translucid restorations, since dual cure cement shades can change over time

A

Rely x Unicem

467
Q

Which permanent cement?

Resin modified glass ionomer cement

A

Rely x Luting

468
Q

Which permanent cement?

Crowns and FDPs:
PFM, FMC, PFZ, zirconia

A

Rely x Luting

469
Q

Which permanent cement?

Inlays/onlays:
Metal

A

Rely x Luting

470
Q

Which permanent cement?

Cast metal post and core

A

Rely x Luting

471
Q

Which permanent cement?

Avoid cementing any lithium disilicate, feldspathic, or composite restorations

A

Rely x Luting

472
Q

Universal cleaning paste to clean bonding surface of restorations after intraoral try-in; creating optimum pre-requisites for adhesive luting procedure

A

Ivoclean

473
Q

Which step of cast metal post appt?

  1. Prepare tooth to desired working length and canal width.
  2. Canal Final Impression using impression plastic post (smooth post).
  3. Fabricate provisional restoration using the titanium post and Jet Acrylic
A

1st appt

474
Q

Which step of cast metal post appt?

  1. Pour final impression and place burnout post on master cast.
  2. Wax-up post & core on burnout post. Sprue, invest and cast post
A

Lab procedures

475
Q

Which step of cast metal post appt?

  1. Try-in / Cement cast metal post. (I recommend cementing with the Rely
    X Lutting Plus).
  2. Refine crown preparation, final impression and crown cementation
A

2nd appt

476
Q

Aerosol spray for disclosing high spots and contact points

A

Occlude

477
Q

Useful when seating crowns and cast metal posts if not seating properly

A

Occlude

478
Q

Dries instantaneously; adheres to dry or moist surface

A

Occlude

479
Q

If gypsum materials are immersed in water during setting, the setting expansion will ____________

A

increase

480
Q

All gypsum material __________ on setting from growth of crystals

A

expand

481
Q

Which gypsum expands the most on setting?

A

Plaster > dental stone > die stone

482
Q

What will result in a gypsum with the following qualities?

Thinner mix
Longer setting time
Weaker
Less expansion

A

Increased water/powder ratio

483
Q

What will result in a gypsum with the following qualities?

Thicker mix
Shorter setting time
Stronger
More expansion

A

Decreased water/powder ratio

484
Q

The longer the mixing time, the ____________ the setting time, and the _____________ the expansion

A

shorter; greater

485
Q

Impression plaster

A

Type I

486
Q

Model plaster

A

Type II

487
Q

Dental stone

A

Type III

488
Q

Die stone or high strength stone

A

Type IV

489
Q

Die stone (high expansion)

A

Type V

490
Q

Inlay, thermal

A

Type I

491
Q

Inlay, hygroscopic

A

Type II

492
Q

Partial denture, thermal

A

Type III

493
Q

_____________ expands more at lower temp

A

Cristobalite

494
Q

________ form is stable at room temp

A

Alpha

495
Q

________ form is stable at high temp

A

Beta

496
Q

Prevents O2 from contacting metal and causing oxidation; dissolves oxides already present

A

Flux

D2 Fall (45 decks)

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