Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

D2 Fall > Gen Path Exam 1 - Cardiovascular Path > Flashcards

Gen Path Exam 1 - Cardiovascular Path Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
WSET ® Level 4 D2 Business of Wine flashcards
1
Q

What disease?

Various diseases characterized by inability of the coronary arteries to deliver adequate oxygen to meet the needs of the myocardium

A

Ischemic heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What disease?

Leading cause of ischemic heart disease

A

Coronary artery disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What disease?

Causes include coronary artery disease, atherosclerosis, thromboemboli, coronary artery vasospasm, and conditions that increase workload and oxygen demand

A

Ischemic heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What disease?

Clinical manifestations are chronic ischemic heart disease (most common), angina pectoris, and myocardial infarction

A

Ischemic heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What disease?

Leads to congestive heart failure, angina pectoris, MI, sudden cardiac death

A

Chronic ischemic heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What disease?

Episodic, paroxysmal, substernal or precordial chest pain or discomfort resulting from myocardial ischemia, usually due to the inability of diseased coronary vessels to provide adequate blood for myocardial oxygenation

A

Angina pectoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What disease?

Caused by a fixed coronary artery obstruction secondary to atherosclerosis

A

Stable (classic) angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What disease?

Symptoms are episodic, paroxysmal, substernal or precordial pressure, heaviness, pain or discomfort usually brought on by exertion and relieved by rest or nitrates (nitroglycerin).

A

Stable (classic) angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What disease?

Attacks are no longer than 15-20 mins, predictable, and follow a precipitating event associated with temporary increase in demands of heart

A

Stable (classic) angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What disease?

Symptoms are relieved by decreased cardiac demand or nitroglycerin

A

Stable (classic) angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What disease?

Attacks occur more frequently, are longer, and produce more severe symptoms. Pain is more easily provoked and may occur at rest

A

Unstable (pre-infarction) angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What disease?

Undistinguishable from NSTEMI

A

Unstable (pre-infarction) angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What disease?

Pain occurs at rest and lasts longer than 20 mins
Pain is severe and of new onset
Pain occurs with a crescendo pattern

A

Unstable (pre-infarction) angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What disease?

Coronary artery vasospasm is an important mechanism and pain occurs at rest

A

Variant (vasospastic) angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What disease?

Characterized by symptoms of myocardial ischemia, persistent EKG changes, and release of biomarkers of myocardial necrosis resulting from an insufficient supply of oxygenated blood to an area of the heart

A

MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What disease?

Caused by irreversible myocardial injury, occurring as a result of prolonged ischemia

A

MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What disease?

Most frequently involves LV and leading cause is coronary artery atheroscleorsis

A

MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What disease?

Initiating factor in most cases is sudden disruption of partially occlusive coronary artery atherosclerotic plaque

A

MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What disease?

Classified by:
Degree of ventricular wall involvement
Location within heart or specific artery involved
Presence or absence of ST elevation on EKG

A

MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What specific MI?

Involve full thickness of ventricle and result in ST segment elevation

A

Transmural MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What specific MI?

Limited to inner third of myocardium and DO NOT exhibit ST segment elevation

A

Subendocardial MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

MI resulting from a blockage of which artery is most common?

A

L anterior descending coronary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

T/F: STEMIs are more common than NSTEMIs

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What disease?

MIs characterized by profound, acute transmural myocardial ischemia and associated with ST segment elevation on EKG

A

Acute MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of acute MIs

A

Plaque is disrupted
Platelets adhere, aggregate, and are activated
Release of ADP + thromboxane A2
Thrombus grows and occludes coronary artery
Coagulative necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Gross and microscopic appearance of an MI depends on _____ of the injury

A

age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe how the areas of damage after an MI change morphologically

A

Coagulative necrosis -> acute then chronic inflammation -> fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What disease?

Sudden onset of chest pain that is similar to the pain of angina but is more severe and prolonged, generally lasting more than 15-20 mins, and is unrelieved by nitroglycerin

A

Acute MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What symptom of acute MI?

History of alteration in the pattern of angina, recent onset of typical or atypical (unstable) angina, or unusual “indigestion” or pressure or squeezing felt in the chest.

A

Premonitory pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What symptom of acute MI?

Chest pain/discomfort at rest, nitroglycerin has no effect relieving pain

A

Pain of infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What disease?

Cold sweat, weak/apprehensive, light headed, syncope, dyspnea, orthopnea, cough, wheezing, nausea, vomiting, abdominal bloating

A

Acute MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What disease?

Diagnosed by triad of:
Ischemic type discomfort
EKG abnormalities
Elevated serum cardiac markers

A

MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Name the serum cardiac markers used to diagnose MI

A

Troponin I and T
Creatine Kinase isozyme MB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What disease?

Diagnosed with coronary artery angiography or perfusion scintigraphy test

A

MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What disease?

Complications include arrhythmias, progressive heart failure, ventricular aneurysm, mural thrombus, rupture of myocardium, fibrinous pericarditis, heart chamber dilation

A

MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Most common cause of sudden cardiac death in first hour after MI

A

Vfib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Most common cause of death among hospital patients with acute MI

A

Cardiogenic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Occurs between 4-7 days after MI and is responsible for 20% of all fatal MIs

A

Rupture of myocardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What disease?

Refers to a spectrum of clinical symptoms compatible with acute myocardial ischemia

A

Acute coronary syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What disease?

Includes unstable angina, NSTEMI, and STEMI

A

Acute coronary syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Unexpected death due to cardiac causes occurring in a short time period (in 1 hour of symptom onset) in a person with known or unknown cardiac disease in whom no previously diagnosed fatal condition is apparent

A

Sudden cardiac death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Symptom complex, not a disease entity, that can result from a variety of cardiac disorders

A

Congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What disease?

Characterized by inability of the heart to pump blood sufficiently to keep pace with the body’s circulatory demands

A

Congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What disease?

Develops when the body’s compensatory mechanisms to correct intravascular and interstitial volume overload and/or inadequate tissue perfusion (oxygenation) become overwhelmed

A

Congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What disease?

Caused by decreased myocardial function/cardiac valvular dysfunction (from previous MI), increased vascular resistance, increased blood volume, or excessive metabolic demand

A

Congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What disease?

Classified by:
Systolic vs diastolic
L vs R sided
Backward vs forward

A

Congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What specific Congestive heart failure?

Reduced cardiac contractility

A

Systolic Congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What specific Congestive heart failure?

Impaired cardiac relaxation and abnormal ventricular filling

A

Diastolic Congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What specific Congestive heart failure?

Failure of LV or excessive pressure in LA

A

Left sided Congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What specific Congestive heart failure?

Failure of RV or excessive pressure in RA

A

Right sided Congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What specific Congestive heart failure?

Not simultaneous, develops over time due to increased stress placed on remaining ventricle

A

Biventricular Congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the most frequently used index of cardiac pump function?

A

Ejection fraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Ejection fraction equation

A

EF = 100 x SV/EDV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Where is ejection fraction measured?

A

LV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is normal adult LV ejection fraction?

A

50-70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What ejection fraction is considered systolic dysfunction?

A

40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What disease?

Symptomatic congestive heart failure with a normal ejection fraction

A

Congestive heart failure with preserved ejection fraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What specific Congestive heart failure?

Exertional dyspnea, dyspnea at rest, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, cough, and hemoptysis (coughing up blood).

A

Left sided Congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What specific Congestive heart failure?

Pulmonary edema and hemosiderin-laden alveolar macrophages (heart failure cells)

A

Left sided Congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What specific Congestive heart failure?

Systemic venous congestion, jugular venous distention; enlarged and tender liver and spleen; ascites (abdominal edema); and pitting edema of the extremities

A

Right sided Congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What specific Congestive heart failure?

LV is hypertrophied and dilated

A

Left sided Congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What specific Congestive heart failure?

Lungs are heavy and boggy due to pulmonary congestion and edema

A

Left sided Congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What disease?

A gross structural abnormality of the heart or intrathoracic great vessels that is present at birth and that is actually or potentially of functional significance.

A

Congenital heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What disease?

Associated with chromosomal abnormalities

A

Congenital heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is Turner syndrome associated with?

A

Coarctation of aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is Down syndrome associated with?

A

Atrial + ventricular septal defects
AV valve deformities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is pregnancy while living at high altitudes associated with?

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is rubella syndrome associated with?

A

Patent ductus arteriosus
Pulmonary artery stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which form of Congenital heart disease?

R to L shunt because of increased pulmonary artery pressure

A

Cyanotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which form of Congenital heart disease?

L to R shunt

A

Non-cyanotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What type of Congenital heart disease?

A hole from a septum secundum or septum primum defect in the interatrial septum normally produces a modest L to R, non-cyanotic shunt.

A

Atrial septal defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Name the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd most common types of Congenital heart disease

A

1st = ventricular septal defect
2nd = atrial septal defect
3rd = patent ductus arteriosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What type of atrial septal defect?

Smooth-walled defects near the foramen ovale, typically without other associated cardiac abnormalities.

A

Ostium secundum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What type of atrial septal defect?

Occur at the lowest part of the atrial septum and can be associated with mitral and tricuspid valve abnormalities

A

Ostium primum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What type of atrial septal defect?

affects the upper part of the atrial septum near the entrance of the SVC; accompanied by anomalous drainage of the pulmonary veins into the right atrium or SVC

A

Sinus venosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What type of Congenital heart disease?

Clinical presentation includes heart failure, exertional fatigue, dyspnea, afib

A

Atrial septal defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What type of Congenital heart disease?

Flaplike opening between the atrial septa primum and secundum at the location of the fossa ovalis that persists after age 1 year

A

Patent foramen ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What type of Congenital heart disease?

No clinical significance except when it leads to paradoxical embolism and cryptogenic strokes

A

Patent foramen ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What type of Congenital heart disease?

Transient R to L blood flow can occur, such as with Valsalva-type maneuvers

A

Patent foramen ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What type of Congenital heart disease?

Hole within the membranous or muscular portions of the intraventricular septum that produces a L to R, non-cyanotic shunt.

A

Ventricular septal defect

81
Q

What type of Congenital heart disease?

Clinical presentation in infants: tachypnea, tachycardia, heart failure

Clinical presentation in adults: L sided heart failure, shortness of breath, orthopnea, dyspnea on exertion

A

Ventricular septal defect

82
Q

What type of Congenital heart disease?

Can lead to pulmonary artery hypertension (reverses blood flow to R to L shunt) and R sided heart failure

A

Ventricular septal defect

83
Q

What type of Congenital heart disease?

Failure of closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus within 1 to 2 days of birth resulting in a high-pressure L to R, non-cyanotic shunt

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

84
Q

What type of Congenital heart disease?

Risk factors include premature / low birth weight, low oxygen tension (pregnancy while living at high altitude), and first-trimester maternal rubella

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

85
Q

What type of Congenital heart disease?

Narrowing or constriction of the aorta leading to left ventricular outflow obstruction

A

Coarctation of aorta

86
Q

What type of Congenital heart disease?

The narrowing can be preductal (“infantile”) or postductal (“adult”) in relation to the ductus arteriosus

A

Coarctation of aorta

87
Q

What type of Congenital heart disease?

Patent ductus arteriosus is usually present

A

Coarctation of aorta

88
Q

What type of coarctation of aorta?

Symptomatic early in life, classically as cyanosis localized to the lower half of the body

A

Preductal (“infantile”) coarctation of aorta WITH patent ductus arteriosus

89
Q

What type of coarctation of aorta?

Hypertension is limited to the upper extremities and cerebral vessels

A

Postductal (“adult”) coarctation of aorta WITHOUT patent ductus arteriosus

90
Q

Name the 1st and 2nd most common types of R to L cyanotic congenital heart disease

A

1st = tetralogy of fallot
2nd = transposition of great arteries

91
Q

What type of Congenital heart disease?

Presents with:
-Obstruction of the RV outflow tract due to subpulmonic stenosis, pulmonary valve stenosis or complete atresia
-Concentric RV hypertrophy
-Ventricular septal defect
-Dextroposition of the aorta

A

Tetralogy of fallot

92
Q

What type of Congenital heart disease?

Aorta arises from the RV and the pulmonary artery emanates from the LV (they’re switched)

A

Transposition of great arteries

93
Q

What type of Congenital heart disease?

A concurrent compensatory anomaly such VSD, ASD, or PDA with R to L shunting is needed for extrauterine survival

A

Transposition of great arteries

94
Q

What disease?

Bulging of one or both mitral valve leaflets

A

Mitral valve prolapse

95
Q

What disease?

Most frequently due to myxomatous degeneration of connective tissue

A

Mitral valve prolapse

96
Q

What disease?

Complications include mitral regurgitation, infective endocarditis, sudden cardiac death, and stroke

A

Mitral valve prolapse

97
Q

What disease?

Retrograde blood flow through the left atrium secondary to an incompetent mitral valve

A

Mitral regurgitation

98
Q

What disease?

Caused by organic disease (e.g., myxomatous degeneration/mitral valve prolapse) or a functional abnormality

A

Mitral regurgitation

99
Q

What disease?

Increased risk for afib

A

Mitral regurgitation

100
Q

What disease?

May cause LV failure

A

Mitral regurgitation

101
Q

What disease?

Narrowing of the mitral valve orifice that prevents proper opening during diastole and obstruction of blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle

A

Mitral stenosis

102
Q

What disease?

Caused by rheumatic fever

A

Mitral stenosis

103
Q

What disease?

Clinical presentation includes fatigue and exertional dyspnea

A

Mitral stenosis

104
Q

What disease?

Retrograde blood flow into the left ventricle from the aorta secondary to an inadequately closing aortic valve

A

Aortic regurgitation

105
Q

What disease?

Obstruction to systolic left ventricular outflow across the aortic valve

A

Aortic valve stenosis

106
Q

What disease?

Most commonly acquired, due to idiopathic calcification of the aortic valve (calcific aortic stenosis) or rheumatic fever, or congenital

A

Aortic valve stenosis

107
Q

What disease?

Early symptoms: decreased exercise tolerance, dyspnea and dizziness on exertion

Late symptoms: exertional angina, L sided heart failure

A

Aortic valve stenosis

108
Q

What disease?

Small, sterile lesions (vegetations) which develop on the damaged or denuded cardiac endothelium, and are along the line of closure of the cardiac valve leaflets (and/or adjacent endocardium).

A

NBTE

109
Q

What disease?

Caused by rheumatic fever and any structural heart disease with increased turbulence of blood flow resulting in endothelial damage (cardiac valvular dysfunction, congenital heart disease)

A

NBTE

110
Q

What disease?

Complications include peripheral embolization (but emboli are sterile)

A

NBTE

111
Q

What disease?

Increases the risk for development of IE

A

NBTE

112
Q

What disease?

Microbial infection of the endocardial surfaces of the heart, usually affecting of one or more cardiac valves

A

IE

113
Q

What disease?

Mainly caused by bacteria

A

IE

114
Q

What bacteria are most common in IE?

A

Staph aureus
Streptoccoci viridans

115
Q

What type of IE?

Caused by Staph aureus

A

Acute

116
Q

What type of IE?

Caused by Strep viridans

A

Subacute

117
Q

What are the complex interactions involved with IE?

A

Cardiac endothelium + bacteria + host immune response

118
Q

What disease?

Most cases occur on an altered, injured or damaged endothelial surface (most often on a cardiac valve leaflet), that makes the surface suitable for pathogenic bacterial attachment and colonization.

A

IE

119
Q

What disease?

Risk factors include prosthetic cardiac valve, heart surgery using a prosthetic patch or prosthetic device, heart surgery with a residual hemodynamic defect, IV drug abuse, and history of previous IE

A

IE

120
Q

In IE, bacteria must then reach the site of endothelial damage via the ____________, adhere to the damaged endothelial surface, and invade the involved tissue to produce bacterial colonization and persistence

A

bloodstream

121
Q

What disease?

Complications include valvular damage and insufficiency, congestive heart failure, myocardial abscesses, and cardiac arrhythmias

A

IE

122
Q

Cardiac valves affected by IE develop friable vegetations of what 4 things?

A

Fibrin
Platelets
Inflammatory cells
Bacteria

123
Q

Portions of vegetations on valves affected by IE can easily detach forming septic (infected) _________ and may travel through the bloodstream and cause tissue and organ _____________ and infections such as ________

A

emboli; infarctions; stroke

124
Q

What is the overall mortality rate of IE with medical treatment? What about with delayed or inadequate treatment?

A

W/ treatment = 40% mortality rate
W/o treatment = 100% fatal

125
Q

What disease?

Symptoms are fever, heart murmurs, bacteremia, immunological responses, and emboli

A

IE

126
Q

What is the most common sign of IE?

A

Fever

127
Q

What disease?

Multisystem autoimmune inflammatory disease with major cardiac manifestations and sequelae, most often affecting children between 5 and 15 years of age.

A

Rheumatic fever

128
Q

What disease?

Caused by group A strep

A

Rheumatic fever

129
Q

What disease?

Symptoms include carditis, migratory polyarthritis, subcutaneous nodules, erythema marginatum, and chorea

A

Rheumatic fever

130
Q

What is evidence of a recent strep infection?

A

Elevated anti-streptolysin O

131
Q

What disease?

Example of a type II hypersensitivity reaction, sharing common antigenic determinants resulting in tissue injury

A

Rheumatic fever

132
Q

What disease?

Characterized by nonsuppurative inflammatory lesions of the joints, heart, subcutaneous tissue, and central nervous system

A

Rheumatic fever

133
Q

What disease?

Microscopic findings include Aschoff body (focal interstitial myocardial inflammation) and large activated macrophages known as Anitschkow cells

A

Rheumatic fever

134
Q

Rheumatic fever causes inflammation of the pericardium, myocardium, and endocardium. What does each result in?

A

Pericarditis = serous effusions
Myocarditis = congestive heart failure
Endocarditis = valvular damage

135
Q

Where does rheumatic fever endocarditis usually occur?

A

Areas subject to great hemodynamic stress (ex: points of valve closure)

136
Q

What disease?

Noncardiac manifestations are fever, malaise, increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate, joint involvement, skin lesions, and CNS involvement

A

Rheumatic fever

137
Q

Name one type of joint involvement in rheumatic fever. How many patients does this affect?

A

Migratory polyarthritis; 75%

138
Q

Name two types of skin lesions in rheumatic fever

A

Subcutaneous nodules
Erythema marginatum

139
Q

Name one type of CNS involvement in rheumatic fever

A

Sydenham’s chorea

140
Q

What disease?

Results from single or repeated attacks of RF and consists of the cardiac valve damage

A

Rheumatic heart disease

141
Q

What disease

As a consequence of fibrotic healing, the valves eventually become thickened, fibrotic, rigid and deformed, often with fusion of valve commissures and calcification, as well as thickening of the chordae tendineae

A

Rheumatic heart disease

142
Q

What valve is most frequently involved in rheumatic heart disease?

A

Mitral valve

143
Q

What disease?

MacCallum plaques appear on endocardium in L atrium, caused by regurgitant jets of blood flow due to incompetence of damaged mitral valve

A

Rheumatic heart disease

144
Q

What other valves besides the mitral valve can be affected by Rheumatic heart disease?

A

Aortic valve (+ mitral)
Tricuspid valve (+ mitral and aortic)

145
Q

What disease?

An alteration of the normal site or rate of electrical impulse generation within the heart or an alteration of the impulse’s orderly spread through the cardiac conducting system

A

Arrhythmia

146
Q

What disease?

Vary greatly in their clinical significance

A

Arrhythmia

147
Q

What disease?

Caused by primary cardiovascular disease, ischemic injury (ex: MI), and drugs

A

Arrhythmia

148
Q

Describe a normal EKG

A

Begins in SA node (atrium) -> depolarization -> P wave

AV node -> delay -> PR interval

R and L bundle branches (ventricle) -> depolarization -> QRS complex

Repolarization -> T wave

149
Q

What type of arrhythmia?

100 bpm +

A

Tachyarrhythmia

149
Q

What type of arrhythmia?

Originating above AV node

A

Supraventricular tachyarrhythmia

150
Q

What type of arrhythmia?

Originating below AV node

A

Ventricular tachyarrhythmia

151
Q

What type of arrhythmia?

Less than 60 bpm

A

Bradyarrhytmia

152
Q

What type of arrhythmia?

Examples are:
Sinus + atrial tachycardia
Premature atrial contractions
Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
Atrial flutter
Afib

A

Supraventricular tachyarrhythmia

153
Q

What type of arrhythmia?

Premature ventricular contraction
Vtach
Vfib
Torsades de pointes

A

Ventricular tachyarrhythmia

154
Q

What type of arrhythmia?

Sinus bradycardia
Sick sinus syndrome
First, second, third degree heart block

A

Bradyarrhythmia

155
Q

What disease?

Heart muscle disease attributable to intrinsic myocardial dysfunction

A

Cardiomyopathy

156
Q

What disease?

3 types are:
Dilated (congestive) - most common
Hypertrophic
Restrictive (obliterative or infiltrative)

A

Cardiomyopathy

157
Q

What disease?

Caused by a specific identifiable etiology, or can be idiopathic

A

Cardiomyopathy

158
Q

What type of cardiomyopathy?

Characterized by dilation and impaired, ineffective contraction of one or both ventricles

A

Dilated (congestive) cardiomyopathy

159
Q

What type of cardiomyopathy?

Systolic function of the heart is impaired and patients may develop overt heart failure, atrial and/or ventricular arrhythmias, and can experience sudden cardiac death.

A

Dilated (congestive) cardiomyopathy

160
Q

What type of cardiomyopathy?

Caused by idiopathic, genetic, alcoholism, ischemic heart disease, uncontrolled tachyarrhythmia, cirrhosis, end-stage renal disease, sleep apnea, infections, cardiotoxic drugs, toxins, substance abuse, peripartum, endocrine disease, collagen-vascular autoimmune disease, hematologic disease

A

Dilated (congestive) cardiomyopathy

161
Q

What type of cardiomyopathy?

Symptoms of congestive heart failure, but can also be asymptomatic, leading to incidental finding on a chest X-ray

A

Dilated (congestive) cardiomyopathy

162
Q

What type of cardiomyopathy?

Clinical presentation includes mitral regurgitation and ventricular or atrial arrhythmias

A

Dilated (congestive) cardiomyopathy

163
Q

What type of cardiomyopathy?

Heart is enlarged, heavy, and flabby due to dilation of all 4 chambers

A

Dilated (congestive) cardiomyopathy

164
Q

What type of cardiomyopathy?

Myocardial cells are hypertrophied; interstitial and endocardial fibrosis is present

A

Dilated (congestive) cardiomyopathy

165
Q

What type of cardiomyopathy?

Characterized by marked thickening of the left ventricular wall without dilation, not explained by another cardiac or systemic disorder.

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

166
Q

What type of cardiomyopathy?

Ventricular septum is also profoundly enlarged and hypertrophied and there may be obstruction within the left ventricular outflow tract

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

167
Q

This type of cardiomyopathy associated with LVOT obstruction is called idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

168
Q

What type of cardiomyopathy?

Reduced stroke volume due to left ventricular diastolic dysfunction

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

169
Q

What type of cardiomyopathy?

Caused by genetics - mutation in proteins of the cardiac sarcomere and Ca2+ regulation

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

170
Q

What type of cardiomyopathy?

Clinical presentation can be asymptomatic or dyspnea, syncope, presyncope, ventricular arrhythmias, sudden cardiac death, and stroke

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

171
Q

What type of cardiomyopathy?

L ventricle is banana shaped and there is obstruction of L ventricular outflow tract

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

172
Q

What type of cardiomyopathy?

Miscroscopic findings include massive myocyte hypertrophy, disorganized myocyte architecture, interstitial and replacement fibrosis

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

173
Q

What type of cardiomyopathy?

Characterized by restrictive ventricular filling

A

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

174
Q

What type of cardiomyopathy?

Decrease in ventricular compliance and distensibility (the ventricles are abnormally “stiff”), resulting in impaired ventricular filling during diastole (diastolic dysfunction) and the atria become enlarged

A

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

175
Q

What type of cardiomyopathy?

Caused by amyloidosis, progressive systemic sclerosis (scleroderma), myocardial fibrosis

A

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

176
Q

What type of cardiomyopathy?

Clinical presentation is biventricular congestive heart failure

A

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

177
Q

What type of cardiomyopathy?

Gross finding is that both atria are dilated

A

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

178
Q

What type of cardiomyopathy?

Microscopic finding is interstitial fibrosis

A

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

179
Q

What disease?

Accumulation of serous transudate in the pericardial space

A

Hydropericardium

180
Q

What disease?

Caused by congestive heart failure, nephritic syndrome, or chronic liver disease

A

Hydropericardium

181
Q

What disease?

Accumulation of blood in the pericardial sac

A

Hemopericardium

182
Q

What disease?

Caused by trauma to chest resulting in rupture of myocardium, coronary arteries or aortic root, or myocardial rupture secondary to MI

A

Hemopericardium

183
Q

What disease?

Acute inflammation (or infiltration) of the pericardium

A

Acute pericarditis

184
Q

What disease?

Characterized by at least 2 of the following 4 criteria:

Chest pain
Specific EKG changes
Pericardial friction rub
New/worsening pericardial effusion

A

Acute pericarditis

185
Q

What disease?

Classified as:
Serous
Fibrinous
Purulent
Hemorrhagic

A

Acute pericarditis

186
Q

What type of acute pericarditis?

Protein-rich exudate

A

Serous pericarditis

187
Q

What type of acute pericarditis?

Associated with lupus, rheumatic fever, or viral infections

A

Serous pericarditis

188
Q

What type of acute pericarditis?

Fibrin-rich exudate

A

Fibrinous pericarditis

189
Q

What type of acute pericarditis?

Caused by uremia, MI, or rheumatic fever

A

Fibrinous pericarditis

190
Q

What type of acute pericarditis?

Purulent inflammatory exudate

A

Purulent pericarditis

191
Q

What type of acute pericarditis?

Caused by bacterial infection

A

Purulent pericarditis

192
Q

What type of acute pericarditis?

Blood inflammatory exudate

A

Hemorrhagic pericarditis

193
Q

What type of acute pericarditis?

Caused by metastatic tumor invasion of pericardium, TB, or other bacterial infection

A

Hemorrhagic pericarditis

194
Q

Common heart tumor of adults

A

Myxoma

195
Q

Common heart tumor of infants and children

A

Rhabdomyomas

196
Q

Which cardiac tumor occurs with high frequency in patients with tuberous sclerosis?

A

Rhabdomyomas

197
Q

Most common malignancy of the heart

A

Metastatic tumors

198
Q

This type of cancer has a higher predilection for cardiac metastatic tumors

A

Lung cancer

D2 Fall (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions